Title: EMT-165
Tags: 06 anatomy 05 terminology abbreviations 07 pharmacology 11 03 legal development life span 02 safety wellness 04 communications 01 EMS systems BLS resuscitation

Q: What is the order of BLS if you suspect cardiac arrest?
A: If this is suspected, BLS order becomes CAB.

Q: What is the chain of survival?
A: This is:
1. Early access (ie Access EMS by calling 911)
2. Early CPR (keeps blood flowing)
3. Early defibrillation
4. Early advanced care
5. Integrated post-arrest care (including controlling temperature and maintaining glucose levels in the patient who is hypoglycemic)

Q: What is important to remember regarding time and CPR?
A: It's important to remember regarding this that few patients survive cardiac arrest if this is not administered within the first few minutes, and if the time from cardiac arrest to defibrillation is more than 10 minutes, the chance of survival is minimal.

Q: What is arrhythmia?
A: This is sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance.

Q: What is ventricular fibrillation?
A: This is the disorganized twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest.

Q: For each minute the patient remains in V-fib or pulseless V-tach, how much does the chance of survival decrease?
A: For each minute in these states, there is a 7% to 10% less chance of survival.

Q: What is a common cause of cardiac arrest in children?
A: Respiratory failure is usually the cause of this in children.

Q: Where should you place the AED electrode on patients with an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker?
A: If you see a patient with one of these, you should place the AED electrode at least 1 inch to the side of the device.

Q: On average, how much blood is pumped through the body when external chest compressions are performed as proficiently as possible?
A: Only one third of the blood that is normally pumped by is circulated through this method.

Q: Where should the patient's head be while administring chest compressions?
A: This should not be elevated at a level above the heart because this will further reduce blood flow to the brain.

Q: What kind of surface should a patient receiving chest compressions be placed on?
A: During this, the patient should be palced on the floor or have a board placed under the back.

Q: When performing CPR on an adult, how many chest compressions should be given a minute?
A: Give at least 100 compressions per minute for this type of patient.

Q: What is the recovery position?
A: This is a side-lying position (patient's hand under their head) used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are adequately breathing.

Q: What is the focus of pediatric BLS?
A: The focus of BLS for these types of patients is airway and breathing.

Q: Where do you check the pulse on infants?
A: You check the pulse on the brachial artery for these patients.

Q: Where do you check the pulse on children (1-12 years)?
A: You check the pulse on the carotid or femoral artery for these patients.

Q: What is the compression rate for infants and children in CPR?
A: For these patients, the compression rate is at least 100/min.

Q: What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR for infants and children?
A: For these patients, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for one rescuer, and 15:2 for 2 rescuers.

Q: With infants and children, what is the ventilation rate during CPR?
A: With these patients, the ventilation rate is 1 breath every 3-5 seconds.

Q: What should you do with a patient who has a mild airway obstruction?
A: With these patients, you should encourage him or her to cough or to continue coughing if they are already doing so.

Q: What is pharmacology?
A: This is the science of drugs.

Q: What is pharmacodynamics?
A: This is the process by which a medication works on the body.

Q: What is an agonist?
A: This is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors.

Q: What is an antagonist?
A: This is medication that binds to a receptor and block other medications.

Q: What is a medication's action?
A: This is the therapeutic effect or intended effect it is expected to have on the body.

Q: What should you remember about doses in the elderly population?
A: These may also need to be decreased for this population because they cannot process medications as efficiently as others.

Q: What are indication?
A: These are the reasons or conditions for which a particular medication is given.

Q: What are contraindications?
A: These are reasons or conditions for which a particular medication should not be given, even if it usually is indicated for that person's condition.

Q: What are side effects?
A: These are any actions of a medication other than the desired ones.

Q: What are unintended effects?
A: These are the effects that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.

Q: What are untoward effects?
A: These are the effects that can be harmful to the patient.

Q: What is the difference between a medication's generic name and its trade name?
A: The first is a simple, clear, nonproprietary name. The second is the brand name; as a proper noun, it begins with a capital letter.

Q: What are OTC medications?
A: These are medications that can be purchased without a prescription.

Q: What are enteral medications?
A: These are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.

Q: What are parenteral medications?
A: These are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes. These are absorbed much more quickly and offer a more predictable and measurable dose.

Q: What is absorption?
A: This is the process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.

Q: What is the per retum (PR) route of administration?
A: This is medication administrated by the rectum. It is most commonly used with children and patients who cannot swallow or are unconscious.

Q: What is the intravenous (IV) route of administration?
A: This is medication administed into the vein. This is the fastest way to deliver a chemical substance.

Q: What is the intraosseous (IO) route of administration?
A: This is medication delivered into the bone, reaching the bloodstream via the bone marrow. This is very painful, and so this route is used most often in patients who are unconscious as a result of cardiac arrest or extreme shock, as well as children who have fewer available IV sites.

Q: What is the subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route of administration?
A: This is medication delivered beneath the skin as an injection into the tissue between the skin and muscle. Because there is less blood here than in the muscles, medications that are given by this route are generally absorbed more slowly, and their effects last longer. Daily insulin injections for patients with diabetes are given this way, as well as some forms of epinephrine.

Q: What is the intramuscular (IM) route of administration?
A: This is medication administered into the muscle. Usually, medications given this way are absorbed quickly because muscles have a lot of blood vessels. Possible problems with this method are damage to muscle tissue and uneven, unreliable absorption, especially in people with decreased tissue perfusion. Auto-injectors frequently use this method.

Q: What is the inhalation route of administration?
A: This is medication inhaled into the lungs so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly, or so they work in the lungs. Generally, this minimizes the effects of the medication in other body tissues.

Q: What is the sublingual (SL) route of administration?
A: This is medication administered under the tongue. The medication enters through the oral mucosa under the tongue and are absorbed into the bloodstream within minutes. This method is faster than the oral route, and it protects medications from chemicals in the digestive system, such as acids that can weaken or inactivate them.

Q: What is the transcutaneous, or transdermal route of administration?
A: This is medication administered through the skin, and usually have longer-lasting effects. Nicotine patches or adhesive patches containing nitroglycerin are examples of this.

Q: What is the intranasal (IN) route of administration?
A: This is medication administered into the nostril, typically via a specialized atomizer device called a Mucosal Atomizer Device (AKA M.A.D.). Blood flow to the head and face is very high; therefore, absorption is rather quick with this route. Naloxone can be administered to some overdose patients via this route.

Q: What is a solution?
A: This is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand.

Q: What is a suspension?
A: This is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. It is very important that you shake or swirl a suspesion before administering it to ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication.

Q: What is a metered-dose inhaler (A.K.A. an MDI)?
A: This is a miniature spray canister used to direct such substances through the mouth and into the lungs. It delivers the same amount of medication each time it is used, and must be shaken vigorously before the medication is administered.

Q: What are topical medications?
A: These are lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin.

Q: What are the "Six Rights" of medication administration?
A: These are:
1) Right patient,
2) Right medication,
3) Right dose,
4) Right route,
5) Right time,
and 6) Right documentation

Q: What is the echo technique?
A: This is repeating the order you receive from the physician for the administration of a medication. It is essential that you do this anytime you receive an order from a physician.

Q: What are the 3 circumstances for administering medication?
A: These are:
1) peer-assisted medication (administering medication to yourself or your partner)
2) patient-assisted medication (assisting the patient with the administration of his or her own medication)
and,
3) EMT-administered medication (directly administering the medication to the patient.

Q: What are the medications that may be administered by EMTs (depending of course on local protocol)?
A: These medications are:
Oxygen,
Activated charcoal,
Oral glucose,
Aspirin,
Epinephrine auto-injector,
Meter-dose inhaler medications,
and,
Nitroglycerin.

Q: What is Lipitor AKA atorvastatin used for?
A: This is used to lower cholesterol.

Q: What is montelukast AKA Singulair used for?
A: This is used to help prevent asthma attacks.

Q: What is escitalopram AKA Lexapro used for?
A: This is used to treat depression.

Q: What is esomeprazole AKA Nexium used for?
A: This is used to treat gastric reflux.

Q: What is levothyroxine AKA Synthroid used for?
A: This is used to treat decreased thyroid functioning.

Q: What is clopidogrel AKA Plavix used for?
A: This is used to prevent stroke and heart attack.

Q: What is metroprolol AKA Toprol used for?
A: This is used to lower blood pressure.

Q: What is lansoprazole AKA Prevacid used for?
A: This is used to treat stomach ulcers.

Q: What is ezetimibe and simvastatin AKA Vytorin AKA Zetia used for?
A: This is used to lower cholesterol.

Q: What is fluticasone and salmeterol AKA Advair Diskus used for?
A: This is used to treat asthma.

Q: What is cetirizine AKA Zyrtec used for?
A: This is used to treat allergies.

Q: What is venlafaxine AKA Effexor used for?
A: This is used to treat depression.

Q: What is pantoprazole AKA Protonix used for?
A: This is used to treat gastic reflux.

Q: What is valsartan AKA Diovan used for?
A: This is used to treat high blood pressure.

Q: What is alendronate AKA Fosamax used for?
A: This is used to treat osteoporosis.

Q: What is potassium chloride AKA Klor-Con used for?
A: This is used to treat low potassium levels.

Q: What is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide AKA Diovan HCT used for?
A: This is used to treat hypertension.

Q: What is levofloxacin AKA Levaquin?
A: This is an antibiotic.

Q: What is polypharmacy?
A: This refers to the use of multiple medications by one person.

Q: What is a common bronchodilator?
A: A common kind of this medication is albuterol (AKA Proventil or Ventolin).

Q: What is another name for asthma?
A: This is also known as reactive airway disease.

Q: What is the standard dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector?
A: The standard dose for this is 0.3 mg.

Q: What is epinephrine (AKA adrenaline), and what are its characteristics?
A: This is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response and is the primary medication EMTs will administer IM. It is sympathomimetic, meaning it mimics the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
Characteristics of this chemical are:
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands.
Dilates passages in the lungs.
Constricts blood vessels, causing increased blood pressure.
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.
Contraindication for this include:
hypertension,
hypothermia,
myocardial infarction,
and,
no sign of wheezing or hypotension

Q: What is nitroglycerin?
A: The purpose of this is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to dilate. It does this by relaxing the muscular walls of the coronary arteries and veins. Always take the patient's blood pressure before administering this; if systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, do not administer this medication.
Contraindications for this include:
sildenafil (Viagra), tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or any other medications that are used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction taken in the previous 24 hours.

Q: What is the standard dose for nitroglycerin?
A: The standard dose for this is .4 mg / pill.

Q: How long should you wait between doses of nitroglycerin?
A: You should wait 5 minutes before administering another dose of this.

Q: What is aspirin (A.K.A. acetylsalicylic acid or A.S.A.)?
A: This is an antipyretic (fever reducer), analgesic (reduces pain), and anti-inflammatory medication that also inhibits platelet aggregation. Taken during a heart attack, this may prove lifesaving. It should not be given to children during episodes of fever-causing illness due to its association with Reye syndrome (which causes swelling in the brain and liver).

Q: What is adsorption?
A: This means to bind or stick to a surface.

Q: What is the usual dose for activated charcoal?
A: This is usually 1 to 2 grams per kilogram of body weight.

Q: As an EMT, what is the only way you can administer oral glucose?
A: As an EMT, you can only administer this orally.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Acetaminophen / Tylenol?
A: For this medication:
Action: Analgesic and antifever
Indications: Relief of mild pain or fever, headache, and muscle aches
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Allergic reaction
Interactions: Caution must be taken when EMTs are administering this to avoid potential overdosing.
Adult dose: 500 to 1000 mg every 4 hours as needed; dose is weight based for children.
Administration concerns: Weight of child is more important than age.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of activated charcoal / actidose with Sorbitol?
A: For this medication:
Action: Adsorbs toxic substances in the digestive tract.
Indications: Most oral poisonings; overdose.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness; overdose of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances.
Routes: PO.
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, constipation, black stool.
Interactions: Bonds with and inactivates most medications / substance in the digestive tract.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 grams per kilogram
Administration concerns: Stains; protect patient and provider clothing; do not give when giving other PO medications.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Aspirin / Bayer?
A: For this medication:
Action: Anti-inflammatory agent and anti-fever agent; prevents platelets from clumping, thereby decreasing formation of new clots.
Indications: Relief of mild pain, headache, muscle aches, chest pain when considering myocardial infarction.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, recent bleeding.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Caution should be used in patients who are taking anticoagulants.
Adult dose: 160 to 325 mg for chest pain.
Administration concerns: Do not administer for pain cause by trauma or for fevers in children; patients with chest pain must be able to chew tablets.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Albuterol / Proventil, Ventolin?
A: For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Asthma / difficulty breathing with wheezing.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, tachycardia, myocardial infarction.
Routes: MDI / inhalation.
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 inhalations; wait 5 minutes before repeating dose.
Administration concerns: Patient must inhale all medication in 1 breath; coach patient to hold breath for 5 seconds after inhalation.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of diphenhydramine / Benadryl?
A: For this medication:
Action: Antihistamine.
Indications: Mild allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Asthma, glaucoma, pregnancy, hypertension, infants.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Sleepiness, dry mouth, and throat.
Interactions: Do not take with alcohol or MAO inhibitors (a type of psychiatric medication).
Adult dose: 25 to 50 mg.
Administration concerns: Can use in severe allergic reaction; however, epinephrine is administered first.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Epinephrine / EpiPen?
A: For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Severe allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Myocardial infarction, hypothermia, hypertension.
Routes: IM (auto-injector).
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 auto-injector.
Administration concerns: Medication will last approximately 5 minutes; do not repeat dose; ensure ALS is en route for continuing treatment.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of ibuprofen / Advil, Motrin, Nuprin?
A: For this medication:
Action: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that reduces inflammation and fever, analgesic.
Indications: Mild pain or fever, headache, muscle aches.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Do not take with aspirin.
Adult dose: 200 to 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours; dose is weight based in children.
Administration concerns: Do not take for pain caused by trauma; weight of child is more important than age.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of nitroglycerin / Nitrostat?
A: For this medication:
Action: Dilates blood vessels.
Indications: Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.
Contraindications: Hypotension, having taken sildenafil (Viagra) or another treatment for erectile dysfunction with the past 24 hours; head injury.
Routes: SL / Spray.
Side Effects: Headache, burning under tongue, hypotension, nausea.
Interactions: Increases dilating effects of other blood vessel-dilating medications.
Adult dose: 0.3 to 0.4 mg SL; 0.4 mg spray.
Administration concerns: Ensure ALS is en route.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oral glucose / Glutose?
A: For this medication:
Action: When absorbed, provides glucose for cell use.
Indications: Hypoglycemia.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting.
Interactions: None.
Adult dose: 1/2 to 1 tube.
Administration concerns: Patient must have control of airway and be awake and able to follow commands.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oxygen?
A: For this medication:
Action: Reverses hypoxia, provides oxygen to be absorbed by lungs.
Indications: Hypoxia or suspected hypoxia.
Contraindications: Very rarely in patients with C.O.P.D.
Routes: Gas / Inhalation.
Side Effects: Decreased respiratory effort in rare cases in patients with C.O.P.D.
Interactions: Can support combustion.
Adult dose: Use oxygen delivery to administer 28% to 100% oxygen.
Administration concerns: No open flames nearby; do not withhold oxygen from patients in respiratory distress.

Q: What is a neonate?
A: This is a baby from birth to 1 month.

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of neonates (0 to 1 month)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 180;
Respirations: 30 to 60;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 50 to 70;
and,
Temperature: 98 to 100° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of infants (1 month to 1 year)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 100 to 160;
Respirations: 25 to 50;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 70 to 95;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of toddler (1 to 3 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 150;
Respirations: 20 to 30;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of preschool age children (3 to 6 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 80 to 140;
Respirations: 20 to 25;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of school age children (6 to 12 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 70 to 120;
Respirations: 15 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of early adults (19 to 40 years) and middle adults (41 to 60 years)?
A: For these groups:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 140;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of adolescents (12 to 18 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What is the general rule for age and pulse rates / respirations?
A: The general rule is: the younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations.

Q: What is the tidal volume in neonates?
A: In this age group, the tidal volume is 6 to 8 mL per kg.

Q: How much does a neonate usually weigh at birth, what percent of their weight does their head account for, and how much weight do they gain as they develop?
A: This group usually weighs 6 to 8 lbs (3 to 3.5 kg) at birth, with the head accounting for 25% of its body weight. In the first week, 5% to 10% of their birth weight is lost due to fluid loss. I n the second week, they start growing at a rate of about 30g a day.

Q: What are some important considerations regarding a neonate's pulmonary system?
A: In the group:
1) Their first breath is forceful, as they must inflate their lungs.
2) This group is particularly prone to nasal congestion, which causes upper respiratory infections. If you recieve a call for choking, make sure the nasal passages are clear and unobstructed by mucus.
3) Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. This explains their diaphragmatic breathing (AKA "belly breathing").

Q: What is barotrauma?
A: This is trauma resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs.

Q: What is the moro reflex?
A: This (AKA startle reflex) is when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone; the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things.

Q: What is the palmer grasp?
A: This is an infant reflex; when an is object is placed in their palm, they grasp at the object.

Q: What is the rooting reflex?
A: This takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek; the neonate will instinctively turn his or her head toward the touch.

Q: What is the sucking reflex?
A: This occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked.

Q: What are fontanelles?
A: These are areas where the infat's skull has not fused together; the posterior fuses by the third month; the anterior between 9 and 18 months.

Q: If an infant's fontanelles' is depressed or bulging, what does that mean?
A: If these are depressed, the infant is most likely dehydrated.
These bulging is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 2 months?
A: At this age, the infant can recognize familar faces, and is able to track objects with their eyes.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 3 months?
A: At this age, the infant can bring objects to the mouth, and can smile and frown.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 4 months?
A: At this age, the infant can reach out to people and drool.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 5 months?
A: At this age, the infant can sleep through the night, and can tell family from strangers.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 6 months?
A: At this age, teething begins; the infant can sit upright in a chair, and one-syllable words are spoken.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 7 months?
A: At this age, the infant is afraid of strangers, and has mood swings.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 8 months?
A: At this age, the infant responds to "no", can sit alone, and plays peek-a-boo.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 9 months?
A: At this age, the infant can pull himself or herself up, and places objects in mouth to explore them,

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 10 months?
A: At this age, the infant responds to his or her name, and crawls efficiently.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 11 months?
A: At this age, the infant starts to walk without help, and can be frustrated with restrictions.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 12 months?
A: At this age, the infant knows his or her name, and can walk.

Q: What a secure attachment?
A: This occurs when an infant understands that parents or caregivers will be responsive to his or her needs. This realization encourages a child to reach out and explore, knowing that the parents will provide a "safety net".

Q: What is anxious-avoidant attachment?
A: In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others.

Q: What are some physical developments in toddlers and preschoolers?
A: In these age groups:
1) The children do not have well-developed lung musculature. This anomaly prevents them from sustaining deep or rapid respirations for an extended period of time.
2) They lose passive immunity and acquire their own immunity as the body is exposed to various viruses and germs.
3) The average age for completion of toilet training is 28 months of age.

Q: At what age do children transition from using language to communicate what they want to using language creatively and playfully.
A: This transition occurs by the age of 3 or 4.

Q: How much do most school age children grow each year?
A: This group grows about 4 lbs (2 kg) and 2 1/2 inches (6 cm) each year.

Q: What is pre-conventional reasoning?
A: In this stage of development, children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

Q: What is conventional reasoning?
A: In this stage of development, children look for approval from their peers and society.

Q: What is postconventional reasoning?
A: In this stage of development, children make decisions guided by their conscience.

Q: What is atherosclerosis?
A: In this disorder, cholesterol and calcium build-up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque. More than 60% of people older than 65 years ahve atherosclerotic disease.

Q: What happens to the respiratory system of late adults?
A: In this group:
1) The size of the airway increases.
2) The surface of the alveoli decreases.
and
3) Factors such as loss of respiratory muscle mass and an increased stiffness of the thoracic cage leads to up to a 50% decresse of vital capacity by age 75.

Q: What happens to the endocrine system of late adults?
A: In this group:
As a person gains weight, more insulin is need to control the body's metabolism and blood glucose level. The pancreas may not be able to produce enough insulin for the person's body size, which can lead to diabetes mellitus.

Q: What happens to the digestive system of late adults?
A: In this group:
Blood flow may drop by as much as 50%, decreasing the ability of the intestines to extract vitamins and minerals from digested food.

Q: What happens to the renal system of late adults?
A: In this group:
1) The filtration function of the kidneys declines by 50% from age 20 to age 90.
2) Kidney mass decreases by 20% over the same span.
3) The number of nephrons (capillaries that perform filtering in the kidney) also decreases, which leads to a decrease in the ability to clear wastes from the body.

Q: What happens to the nervous system of late adults?
A: In this group:
1) The brain may shrink 10% to 20% by age 80, increasing the possibility of internal trauma.
2) The number of neurons (brain cells) declines over one's lifetime.
3) The peripheral nervous system also slows with age.

Q: What is the terminal drop hypothesis?
A: This is a theory that a person's mental function declines in the last five years of life.

Q: What percentage of single women of 60 years of age or older live at or below the poverty line in the United States.
A: More than 50% of this group live at or below the poverty line in the United States.

Q: What is topographic anatomy?
A: This is the landmarks of the surface of the body used to orient treatment.

Q: What is the anatomic position?
A: This is a position of reference in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward. To be consistent, health care providers use the patient's left and right as reference point.

Q: What are the three planes of the body?
A: These are:
1) Frontol (coronal) plane - Anterior vs. posterior.
2) Transverse (horizontal) plane - Superior vs. inferior.
and
3) Sagittal plane - medial vs. lateral.

Q: What is the opposite of superficial (closest to the surface of the skin)?
A: The opposite of this is deep (farthest from the surface of the skin).

Q: What is the palmar surface?
A: This is another term for the palm.

Q: What is the plantar surface?
A: This is another term for the bottom of the foot.

Q: What is the apex (plural apices)?
A: This is the tip of a structure.

Q: What is flexion?
A: This is the bending of a joint.

Q: What is extension?
A: This is the straightening of a joint.

Q: What is adduction?
A: This is motion toward the midline.

Q: What is abduction?
A: This is motion away from the midline.

Q: What does it mean if something is said to occur unilaterally?
A: This means something appears on only one side of the body.

Q: What are ligaments?
A: These connect bones to other bones.

Q: What are tendons?
A: These connect muscles to bones.

Q: What is cartilage?
A: This is the soft, semiflexible material that is found within the joints and serves as cushioning.

Q: What is the axial skeleton?
A: This forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung. It is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cavity, and vertebral column.

Q: What is the appendicular skeleton?
A: This is composed of the arms and legs, their connective points, and the pelvis.

Q: How many bones are there in the body?
A: There are 206 of these.

Q: What is the foramen magnum?
A: This is a large opening at the base of the skull.

Q: What are the maxillae?
A: These are the upper, non-moveable jawbones.

Q: What are the zygomas?
A: These are the cheekbones.

Q: What is the orbit?
A: This is the eye socket.

Q: How many vertebrae are there in the body?
A: There are 33 of these in the body.

Q: What are the five sections of the spine, and how many vertebrae in each?
A: These are the:
1) Cervical - 7
2) Thoracic - 12
3) Lumbar - 5
4) Sacrum - 5
5) Coccyx - 4

Q: How many pairs of ribs are there in the body?
A: There are 12 pairs of these.

Q: What is the sternum?
A: This is the midline of the chest. It's bordered superiorly by the easily palpable jugular notch. It has three components: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.

Q: What is the xiphoid process.
A: This is a narrow, cartilaginous tip which forms the inferior part of the sternum.

Q: What is the shoulder girdle?
A: This is where three bones (the clavicle, scapula, and humerus) come together, allowing the arm to be moved.

Q: What is the clavicle (AKA the collarbone)?
A: This overlies the superior boundaries of the thorax in fonrt and articulates posteriorly with the scapula.

Q: What is the scapula?
A: This lies in the muscular tissue of the posterior thoracic wall.

Q: What two bones compose the forearm?
A: This is composed of the ulna (medial, larger in the proximal) and radius (lateral, larger in the distal).

Q: What bones make up the pelvis?
A: This is made up of the sacrum and the two pelvic bones, each of which is formed by the fusion of three separate bones, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis, joined posteriorly by the sacrum.

Q: What is the pubis symphysis?
A: This is a hard and bony cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowest portion of the abdomen, where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.

Q: What is the acetabulum?
A: This is the part of the pelvis where the lower leg connects, the "socket" in which the "ball" of the femur fits.

Q: What is the greater trochanter?
A: This is the projection on the lateral / superior portion of the femur.

Q: What is the lesser trochanter?
A: This is the medial / superior portion of the femur.

Q: What is the patella?
A: This is the kneecap.

Q: What is the tibia (shine bone)?
A: This is the larger bone of lower leg. It lies in the anterior of the leg.

Q: What is the fibula?
A: This is the smaller of the bones in the lower leg. It lies on the lateral side of the leg.

Q: What is joint capsules?
A: These are fibrous sacs composed of ligaments at the end of bones, and assist in flexion.

Q: What is the synovial membrane?
A: This is special tissue on the inner lining of the joint capsule that is responsible for making a thick lubricant called synovial fluid. This fluid allows the ends of bones to glide over each other as opposed to grating.

Q: What is the difference between ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints?
A: The first allows rotation and bending (as in the shoulder joint), while the second restricts motion to one plane (as in the knee).

Q: What is the skeletal system responsible for?
A: This is resonsible for:
1) giving the body shape.
2) providing protection of fragile organs.
3) allowing for movement.
And,
4) helping with the creation of various types of blood cells.

Q: How many different muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system?
A: There are over 600 of these.

Q: What are skeletal muscles (AKA voluntary muscles)?
A: These attach to the bones of the skeleton and forms the major muscle mass of the body. They are under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be stimulated to contract or relax at will.

Q: What is smooth muscle?
A: This is found within blood vessels and intestines.

Q: What is cardiac muscle?
A: This is found only within the heart.

Q: What is the epiglottis?
A: These is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that protects the opening of the trachea.

Q: What is the location and function of the biceps?
A: This is located anterior to the humerus,
and,
flexes the lower arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the triceps?
A: This is located posterior to the humerus,
and,
extends the lower arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the pectoralis?
A: This is located anterior to the thorax,
and,
flexes and rotates the arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the latissimus dorsi?
A: This is located posterior to the thorax,
and,
extends and rotates the arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the rectus abdominis?
A: This is located anterior to the abdomen,
and,
flexes and rotates the spine.

Q: What is the location and function of the tibialis anterior?
A: This is located anterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes towards the heads.

Q: What is the location and function of the gastrocnemius?
A: This is located posterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes away from the head.

Q: What is the location and function of the quadriceps?
A: This is located anterior to the femur,
and,
extends the lower leg.

Q: What is the location and function of the biceps femoris?
A: This is located posterior to the femur,
and,
flexes the lower leg.

Q: What is the location and function of the gluteus?
A: This is located posterior to the pelvis,
and,
extends and rotates the leg.

Q: What is another name for the larynx?
A: Another name for this is the voice box.

Q: What is the cricothyroid membrane?
A: This lies between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. It can be felt as a depression in the midline of the neck just inferior to the thyroid cartilage.

Q: What kind of muscle is the diaphragm?
A: This is unique because it has characteristics of skeletal and smooth muscle.

Q: How does the body detect decreased blood pressure, and what will it do as a result?
A: The body detects this situation by the baroreceptors, and will initiate the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Q: What is the V/Q ratio?
A: This examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is gaining access to the alveoli.

Q: What is pathophysiology?
A: This is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular disease.

Q: What is normal physiologic pH?
A: This is normally between 7.35 and 7.45 pH.

Q: What is sodium bicarbonate?
A: This is an alkaline and helps to buffer or neutralize the acidic waste products of the cells.

Q: What is lactic acid?
A: This is the metabolic end product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (AKA anaerobic respiration).

Q: What is the endocrine system?
A: This is a complex message and control system that uses hormones to stimulate the body.

Q: In a healthy adult, what percent of total body weight is delivered as fluid daily to the gastrointestinal tract?
A: About 7% of this is delivered. If significant vomiting or diarrhea occurs for more than 2 or 3 days, the person will lose a substantial portion of body composition and become severely ill.

Q: What are enzymes?
A: These are substance catalysts designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.

Q: What are hormones?
A: These are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. They regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature.

Q: What is bile?
A: This is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and emptied as needed into the duodenum. Its major function is the digestion of fat.

Q: What is chyme?
A: This is ingested food converted in the stomach into a thoroughly mixed semisolid mass.

Q: How much saliva is produced daily?
A: Approximately 1.5 litres of this is produced daily.

Q: What is the average stroke volume (SV) of an adult heart?
A: This is 70 to 80 mL each on average.

Q: What is the average cardiac output (CO) of an adult?
A: This is 5 to 6 litres.

Q: What are the two electrical processes associated with the mechanical contraction of the heart?
A: These are:
1) depolarization, when the electrical charge on the muscle cell surface changes from positive to negative.
And,
2) repolarization, when the heart returns to its resting state and positive charge is restored to the surface.

Q: What is the path of the electrical impulse that produces the a smooth flow of electricity through the heart?
A: This begins high in the atria at the sinoatrial node, then travels to the atrioventricular node bundle of His, and moves through the Purkinje fivers to the ventricles.

Q: What is the chordae tendineae?
A: These are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.

Q: What is the tunica media?
A: This is the middle layer of the artery, and is where the smooth muscles are found that can contract and dilate to change the diameter of the blood vessels.

Q: What are the coronary arteries?
A: These supply the heart.

Q: What are the carotid arteries?
A: These supply the head.

Q: What are the hepatic arteries?
A: These supply the liver with blood.

Q: What are the renal arteries?
A: These supply the kidneys with blood.

Q: What are the mesenteric arteries?
A: These supply the digestive system with blood.

Q: What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
A: This is the resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels.

Q: How much blood is in the spleen at any one time?
A: Approximately 450 mL of blood is in this organ at any one time. Virtually all the blood in the body passes through here during the day, where it is filtered.

Q: What is blood plasma composed of?
A: This is composed of:
92% water,
7% proteins such as albumin which regulates oncotic pressure,
and
the final 1% is oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, nutrients, cellular wastes, and other cellular products.

Q: How much blood does a child have in their body?
A: This group has approximately 2 to 3 litres, depending on their age and size.

Q: How much blood does an infant have in their body?
A: This group has only about 300 mL in their body.

Q: How much blood is in the heart, arteries, and capillaries versus the veins and venules?
A: The ratio is approximately 30% in the former group, and 70% in the later group.

Q: What is interstitial space?
A: This is the space between cells.

Q: What are alpha-adrenergic receptors?
A: These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause constriction of blood vessels.

Q: What are beta-adrenergic receptors?
A: These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.

Q: What are the three parts of the brain stem?
A: These are:
1) the midbrain,
2) the pons,
and 3) the medulla oblongata.

Q: What is the parasympathetic nervous system?
A: This is the other half of the autonomic nervous system and generally slow down the body.

Q: What are the 2 layers of the skin?
A: These are:
1) The epidermis; at its base is the germinal layer, which continuously produces new cells.
2) The dermis; the sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, hair follices, blood vessels, and specialized nerve endings are located here.

Q: How long does it take for cells produced in the germinal layer to rise to the stratum corneal layer?
A: This journey takes about 4 weeks.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)?
A: For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes inspiration when stimulated.
Timing: Normal, resting respirations; rhythmic, mechanical pattern.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)?
A: For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes expiration or inspiration.
Timing: Speech, increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the Pneumotaxic (pontine) center?
A: For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the apneustic center?
A: For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration, decreases rate.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex (stretch reflex)?
A: For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects lung expansion to a point and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex?
A: For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects potential lung collapse and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the adrenal gland?
A: For this gland:
Location: Above the kidneys.
Function: Stress response, fight or flight.
Hormones produced: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the ovary?
A: For this gland:
Location: Female pelvis.
Function: Regulates sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Estrogen and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pancreas?
A: For this gland:
Location: Retroperitoneal space.
Function: Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions.
Hormones produced: Insulin and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the parathyroid?
A: For this gland:
Location: Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)
Function: Regulates serum calcium.
Hormones produced: Parathyroid hormone.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pituitary gland?
A: For this gland:
Location: Base of skull.
Function: Regulates all other endocrine glands.
Hormones produced: Multiple, controls other endocrine glands.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the testes?
A: For this gland:
Location: Male scrotum.
Function: Regulate sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Testosterone and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the thyroid?
A: For this gland:
Location: Neck (over the larynx).
Function: Regulates metabolism.
Hormones produced: Thyroxine and others.

Q: AAA
A: abdominal aortic aneurysm

Q: abd
A: abdomen

Q: An [...] is an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications.
A: advanced EMT (AEMT)

Q: [...] are advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.
A: Advanced life support (ALS)

Q: The [...] is a comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.
A: Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)

Q: An [...] is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and deliver the appropriate electrical shock to the patient.
A: automated external difibrillator (AED)

Q: A [...] is a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.
A: certification

Q: [...] is a healthcare model in which experience paramedics recieve advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or condition, and patient advocacy.
A: Community paramedicine

Q: [...] is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.
A: Continuous quality improvement (CQI)

Q: [...] is a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.
A: Emergency medical dispatch (EMD)

Q: An [...] is the first trained professional, such as police officer, firefighters, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance.
A: emergency medical responder (EMR)

Q: [...] is a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.
A: Emergency medical services (EMS)

Q: An [...] is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, used of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications.
A: emergency medical technician (EMT)

Q: HIPAA stands for [...]
A: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

Q: [...] is federal legislation passed in 1996. It's main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information andp enalizing violations of patient privacy.
A: HIPAA

Q: [...] is the delivery of medication direction into a vein.
A: Intravenous (IV) therapy

Q: [...] is the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
A: Licensure

Q: [...] are physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (offline/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.
A: Medical control

Q: The [...] is the physican who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field.
A: medical director

Q: [...] is a method delivering health care which involves providing healthcare withing the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital.
A: Mobile integrated healthcare (MIH)

Q: The [...] is a document created by the NHTSA that outlines the skills perfored by various EMS providers.
A: National EMS Scope of Practice Model

Q: A [...] is an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.
A: paramedic

Q: [...] are efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occuring.
A: Primary prevention

Q: The [...] is the designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital.
A: primary service area (PSA)

Q: [...] is focused on examining that health needs of entire popilations with the goal of preventing health probelms.
A: Public health

Q: A [...] is a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services.
A: public safety access point

Q: [...] is the responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care stadards are met by EMTS on each call.
A: Quality control

Q: [...] are efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.
A: Secondary prevention

Q: [...] are reactions to stress that occur during a stressful reaction.
A: Acute stress reactions

Q: [...] is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust.
A: Airborne transmission

Q: [...] are pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and HIV.
A: Bloodborne pathogens

Q: The [...] is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US. It is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services.
A: Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

Q: A [...] is a disease taht can be spread from one person to another.
A: communicable disease

Q: [...] is the use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
A: Concealment

Q: [...] is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such  as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
A: Contamination

Q: [...] is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.
A: Cover

Q: [...] is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.
A: Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)

Q: [...] are prolonged or excessive stress.
A: Cumulative stress reactions

Q: [...] are reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.
A: Delayed stress reactions

Q: The [...] is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues.
A: designated officer

Q: [...] is exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact
A: Direct contact

Q: [...] is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.
A: Exposure

Q: [...] is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.
A: Foodborne transmission

Q: [...] is the body's respnose to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.
A: General adaptation syndrome

Q: [...] is inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.
A: Hepatitis

Q: A [...] is the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent.
A: host

Q: [...] leads to acquired immunodeficiency symdorme, which damaged the cells in the bodys immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.
A: Human immunodeficieny virus (HIV)

Q: [...] is the bodys ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.
A: Immunity

Q: [...] is exposure or trasmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.
A: Indirect contact

Q: [...] is the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by oranisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites with or without signs or symptoms or disease.
A: Infection

Q: [...] are procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.
A: Infection control

Q: An [...] is a medical condition caused by the growtha nd spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
A: infectious disease

Q: The [...] is the federal regulatory and compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace.
A: Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Q: A [...] is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host.
A: pathogen

Q: [...] is protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or hazardous material.
A: Personal protective equipment (PPE)

Q: [...] is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or morer unresolved issues concerning the inciden, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
A: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Q: [...] is the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles or by vectors.
A: Transmission

Q: [...] are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potention exposure risks of communicable disease.
A: Standard precautions

Q: [...] is the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.
A: Vector-borne transmission

Q: [...] is the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring car to antoher medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
A: Abandonment

Q: [...] is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a [...] or [...]
A: Advanced directive; living will; health care directive.

Q: [...] is the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
A: Applied ethics

Q: [...] is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
A: Assault

Q: [...] is unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
A: Battery

Q: [...] is the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.
A: Bioethics

Q: [...] is the disclosure of information without proper authorization.
A: Breach of confidentiality

Q: [...] is a process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting a certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.
A: Certification

Q: [...] are damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
A: Compensatory damages

Q: Someone who is [...] is able to make rational decisions about personal well-being.
A: competent

Q: [...] is the permission to render care.
A: Consent

Q: [...] is a legal defence that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
A: Contributory negligence

Q: [...] is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.
A: Credentialing

Q: [...] is the ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
A: Decision-making capacity

Q: [...] is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.
A: Defamation

Q: [...] is blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloation of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
A: Dependent lividity

Q: [...] are oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
A: Depositions

Q: [...] is the phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain info from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. It includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
A: Discovery

Q: [...] are written documentation by a physcian giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
A: do not resuscitate (DNR) orders

Q: A [...] is a type of advanced directive executed by  a compettent adult that appoints anotheri ndividual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behald, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity.
A: durable power of attorney

Q: A [...] is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care.
A: duty to act

Q: An [...] is a serious situation, usch as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention.
A: emergency

Q: [...] is the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.
A: Emergency doctrine

Q: [...] is immediate care or treatment.
A: Emergency medical care

Q: [...] is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
A: Ethics

Q: [...] is a type of consent in which a patient fives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
A: Expressed consent

Q: [...] is the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.
A: False imprisonment

Q: [...] is the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
A: Forcible restraint

Q: [...] are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willfull negligence.
A: Good samaritan laws

Q: [...] is the legal doctrine that can protect and EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by government entities.
A: Governmental immunity

Q: [...] is the conduct that constitutes a willfull or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
A: Gross negligence

Q: A [...] is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a [...]
A: health care directive; living will.

Q: [...] are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a [...]
A: Health care proxies; power of attorney.

Q: [...] is the type of consent that a patient who is unable to give consent  is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
A: Implied consent

Q: [...] is permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment are explained.
A: Informed consent

Q: [...] is the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
A: In loco parentis

Q: [...] are written wuestions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
A: Interrogatories

Q: [...] is the seizing, confining, abducting or carrying away of another person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without their consent.
A: Kidnapping

Q: [...] is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
A: Libel

Q: [...] is the process were a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
A: Licensure

Q: [...] is a term relating to medical, law, or forensic medicine.
A: Medicolegal

Q: [...] is a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character conduct and conscience.
A: Morality

Q: [...] is the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
A: Negligence

Q: [...] is a theory that may be used when the conduct of a person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statue.
A: Negligence per se

Q: [...] is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding their health care.
A: Patient autonomy

Q: [...] is when a person who have a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
A: Proximate causation

Q: [...] are damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
A: Punitive damages

Q: [...] is the decompisition of body tissues; this is a definitive sign of death.
A: Putrefaction

Q: [...] is when the EMT is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
A: Res ipsa loquitor

Q: [...] outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient; this is defined by state law.
A: Scope of practice

Q: [...] is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.
A: Slander

Q: [...] is the written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
A: Standard of care

Q: A [...] is a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit.
A: tort

Q: The [...] is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and reciever that is located in a fixed place.
A: base station

Q: A [...] is a low power portable radio that communicates through interconnected series of repeater stations called "cells"
A: cell phone

Q: A [...] is an assign frequency that is used to carry voice and or data communications.
A: channel

Q: [...] is the transmission of information to another person.
A: Communication

Q: [...] is when one person imposes his or her believes on another because they believe their ideals are superior.
A: Cultural imposition

Q: A [...] is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a [...]
A: dedicated line; hotline.

Q: [...] is the recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction that becomes part of the patients permanent medical record.
A: Documentation

Q: A [...] is the ability to transmit and recieve simultaneously.
A: duplex

Q: [...] is when a person considers their own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
A: Ethnocentrism

Q: The [...] is the federal gency that has jusidiction over interstate and international phone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity.
A: Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

Q: An [...] is a communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.
A: interoperable communications system

Q: [...] are VHF and UHF channels that the FCC has designed exclusively for EMS use.
A: MED channels

Q: A [...] is a small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly recieves data from the dispatch center.
A: mobile data terminal (MDT)

Q: [...] is the ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.
A: Multiplex

Q: [...] is anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.
A: Noise

Q: [...] is the use of radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted hrough pagers or desktop monitor radios.
A: Paging

Q: A [...] is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as [...].
A: patient care report (PCR); prehospital care reports

Q: A [...] is a trusting relationship that you build with your patient.
A: rapport

Q: A [...] is a special base station radio that recieves messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
A: repeater

Q: A [...] is a radio reciever that seraches or scans across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated.
A: scanner

Q: A [...] is a single-frequency radio, transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only recieve, and the party that is tranmitting is unable to recieve.
A: simplex

Q: [...] are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called [...]
A: Standing orders; protocols.

Q: [...] is a process which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; which can be transmitted by radio or phone to a reciever with a decoder at the hospital.
A: Telemetry

Q: [...] is the telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequences.
A: Trunking

Q: [...] are verbal and non verbal communication techniques that encourage patient to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
A: Therapeutic communications

Q: [...] are radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.
A: UHF (ultra high frequency)

Q: [...] are radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz and is divided into high and low bands.
A: VHF (very high frequency)

Q: [...] is the motion of a limb away from the midline.
A: Abduction

Q: [...] is the motion of a limb toward the midline.
A: Adduction

Q: The [...] is the pointed extremity of a conical strructure.
A: apex

Q: [...] means further from the trunk of the body.
A: Distal

Q: [...] means closer from the trunk of the body.
A: Proximal

Q: [...] is the straightening of a joint.
A: Extension

Q: [...] is the bending of a joint.
A: Felxion

Q: Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline are [...] or inner structures.
A: medial

Q: [...] is the forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.
A: Palmar

Q: [...] is the bottom surface of the foot.
A: Plantar

Q: The [...] is the part of a term that changes the meaning of the term.
A: prefix

Q: [...] is the position where a patient is lying face down.
A: Prone

Q: When something is [...] it is on the anterior side of the body.
A: ventral

Q: The [...] is the main part of a term that contains the primary meaning of the term.
A: word root

Q: The [...] is the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis.
A: abdomen

Q: The [...] is the depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly.
A: acetabulum

Q: The [...] is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the [...]
A: adams apple; thyroid cartilage.

Q: [...] is the nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.
A: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Q: The [...] are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
A: adrenal glands

Q: [...] is a term pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradreniline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
A: Adrenergic

Q: The [...] is metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.
A: aerobic metabolism

Q: [...] are abnormal breathing patterns characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients with cardiac arrest.
A: Agonal gasps

Q: [...] are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause condtriction of blood vessels.
A: Alpha-adrenergic receptors

Q: The [...] are the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place.
A: alveoli

Q: [...] is the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.
A: Anarobic metabolism

Q: The [...] is the position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side with the palms of the hands forward.
A: anatomic position

Q: The [...] is the main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body.
A: aorta

Q: The [...] is the portion of the skeletal system that comprimises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle.
A: appendicular skeleton

Q: The [...] is a small tubular structure that is attaached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen.
A: appendix

Q: The [...] are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries.
A: arterioles

Q: [...] is apearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surgaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
A: Articular cartilage

Q: The [...] is one of the two upper chambers of the heart.
A: atrium

Q: The [...] is the part of the nervous sustem that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating that are not controlled voluntarily.
A: autonomic nervous system

Q: The [...] is the part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage.
A: axial skeleton

Q: A [...] is a joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending.
A: ball and socket joint

Q: [...] are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
A: Beta-adrenergic receptors

Q: The [...] is the largemu scle that covers the front of the humerus.
A: bicep

Q: The [...] are the ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine.
A: bile ducts

Q: [...] is the pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
A: Blood pressure

Q: The [...] is the major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arms.
A: brachial artery

Q: The [...] is the controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions to the environment, emotional responses, and judgment.
A: brain

Q: The [...] is the area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration.
A: brain stem

Q: The [...] are the tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood.
A: capillary vessels

Q: [...] is heart muscle.
A: Cardiac muscle

Q: [...] is the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. Its calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.
A: Cardiac output

Q: The [...] is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain.
A: carotid artery

Q: The [...] is the smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones.
A: cartilage

Q: The [...] is the first part of the large intenstine into which the ileum opens.
A: cecum

Q: The [...] consists of the brain and spinal cord.
A: central nervous system (CNS)

Q: The [...] is one of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements.
A: cerebellum

Q: [...] is the fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.
A: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Q: The [...] is the largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter; it's made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality.
A: cerebrum

Q: The [...] is the portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertabrae that lie in the neck.
A: cervical spine

Q: The [...] are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.
A: chordaw tendineae

Q: [...] is the substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all the eaten foods with added stomach acids.
A: Chyme

Q: The [...] is the complez arrangement of connected tubes that move blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide and cellular waste through the body.
A: circulatory system

Q: The [...] is the collar bone,it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula.
A: clavicle

Q: The [...] is the last three of four vertabrae of the spine; the tail bone.
A: coccyx

Q: The [...] is an imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts.
A: coronal plane

Q: The [...] is the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; it contains the brain.
A: cranium

Q: The [...] is a firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx.
A: cricoid cartilage

Q: The [...] is a thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx.
A: cricothyroid membrane

Q: [...] is any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange such as the trachea and bronchi.
A: Dead space

Q: The [...] is the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels.
A: dermis

Q: The [...] is a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, serparating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of this and the chest wall muscles brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs.
A: diaphragm

Q: [...] is the relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.
A: Diastole

Q: [...] is the movement of gas from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
A: Diffusion

Q: [...] is the processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.
A: Digestion

Q: The [...] is the artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals.
A: dorsal pedis artery

Q: The [...] is the complex mesage and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones.
A: endocrine system

Q: [...] are substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.
A: Enzymes

Q: The [...] is the outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a water tight protective covering for the body.
A: epidermis

Q: The [...] is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering.
A: epiglottis

Q: [...] is a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.
A: Epinephrine

Q: The [...] is a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contractions propel food and liquids through it to the stomach.
A: esophagous

Q: [...] is the amount of air that can be exhaled following a nromal exhalation.
A: Expiratory reserve volume

Q: [...] are long slender tubes the extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through with the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.
A: Fallopian tubes

Q: The [...] is the major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It suppplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genetalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area.
A: femoral artery

Q: The [...] is the proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint.
A: femoral head

Q: The [...] is the thigh bone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body.
A: femur

Q: The [...] is the large opening at the base of the skill through which the brain connects to the spinal cord.
A: foramen mgnum

Q: The [...] si the portion of the cranium that forms the forehead.
A: frontal bone

Q: The [...] is a sac on the undersurgace of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharfes it into the dudenum through the common bile duct.
A: gallbladder

Q: The [...] is the reproductive system in men and women.
A: genital system

Q: The [...] is the deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed.
A: germinal layer

Q: The [...] is a bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint.
A: greater tochanter

Q: [...] are small organs that produce hair.
A: Hair follicles

Q: The [...] is a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body.
A: heart

Q: [...]is the number of heartbeats during a specific time.
A: Heart rate (HR)

Q: [...] are joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.
A: Hinge joints

Q: [...] are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions including metabolism, growth and body temperature.
A: Hormones

Q: The [...] is the supporting bone of the upper body.
A: humerus

Q: [...] is the pressure of water against the walls of its container.
A: Hydrostatic pressure

Q: The [...] is the backup system to control respiration; senses drop in the oxygen level in the blood.
A: hypoxic drive

Q: The [...] is one of three bones the fuse to form the pelvic ring.
A: ilium

Q: The [...] is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and abdominal organs to the heart.
A: inferior vena cava

Q: The [...] is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalationl the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume.
A: inspiratory reserve volume

Q: The [...] is the space in between the cells.
A: interstitial space

Q: The [...] is one of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
A: ischium

Q: [...] is the place where two bones come into contact.
A: Joint articulation

Q: A [...] is the fibrous sac that encloses a joint.
A: joint capsule

Q: The [...] are two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content.
A: kidneys

Q: [...] is the use of muscles of the chest, back and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.
A: Labored breathing

Q: [...] is a metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anerobic metabolism).
A: Lactic acid

Q: The [...] is the portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste.
A: large intestine

Q: The [...] is the projection on the medial superior portion of the femur.
A: lesser trochanter

Q: A [...] is a band of fibrous tissue that connects the bones to bones. it supports and strengthens a joint.
A: ligament

Q: The [...] is a large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the disphragm; it produces biles, stores flucose for immediate use by the body and produces many substances that help regular immune responses.
A: liver

Q: The [...] is the lower back of the back formed by the lowest five nonfused vertabrae; also called the dorsal spine.
A: lumbar spine

Q: [...] are tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
A: Lymph nodes

Q: The [...] is the bone of the lower jaw.
A: mandible

Q: The [...] is the upper quarter of the sternum.
A: manubirum

Q: The [...] are the upper jaw bones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palae and hold the upper teeth.
A: maxillae

Q: The [...] is nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descenging nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing.
A: medula oblongata

Q: The [...] also known as [...] are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells.
A: metabolism; cellular respiration

Q: The [...] is the part of the brain that is respondible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness.
A: midbrain

Q: The [...] plane or [...] is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves.
A: midsagittal; midline

Q: [...] is the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute. You can calculate it by multiplying the tidal volune and respiratory rate. This is also called minute ventilation.
A: Minute volume

Q: [...] carry information from the CNS to the muscles of the body.
A: Motor nerves

Q: [...] are the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
A: Mucous membranes

Q: [...] is the water secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricate the body openings.
A: Mucus

Q: The [...] consist of the bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
A: musculoskeltal system

Q: The heart muscle is called the [...]
A: myocardium.

Q: The [...] is the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth.
A: nasopharynx

Q: The [...] is the systen that controls virtually all activities of body, both voluntary and involuntary.
A: nervous system

Q: [...] is a neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.
A: Norepinephrine

Q: The [...] is the most posterior portion of the cranium.
A: occiput

Q: [...] is the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.
A: Oncotic pressure

Q: The [...] is the eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma.
A: orbit

Q: The [...] are female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs).
A: ovaries

Q: The [...]is a flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin.
A: pancreas

Q: The [...] is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary function, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through teh chemical acetylcholine.
A: parasympathetic nervous system

Q: The [...] are the bones thatl ie between the temporal and occpital regions of the cranium.
A: parietal bones

Q: The [...]is the knee cap; and lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle.
A: patella

Q: [...] is the study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.
A: Pathophysiology

Q: [...] is the circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells curent needs.
A: Perfusion

Q: The [...] is the part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves.
A: peripheral nervous system (PNS)

Q: [...] is the wavelike contraction of smooth muscles by whichthe ureters of other tubular organs propel their contents.
A: Peristalsis

Q: [...] is a stick, yellow like fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.
A: Plasma

Q: [...] are tiny disc shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the intial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.
A: Platelets

Q: The [...] are serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as pleural space.
A: pleura

Q: [...] is the potential space between the parietal pleural and the visceral pleura; described as "potential" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.
A: Pleural space

Q: The [...] is an organ that lies below th midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration and the medullary respiratory center.
A: pons

Q: The [...] is the artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot.
A: posterior tibial artery

Q: The [...] is a small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladdar; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid.
A: prostate gland

Q: [...] is a hard bony and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.
A: Pubic symphysis

Q: The [...] is one of the three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
A: pubis

Q: The [...] is the major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; carries oxygen-poor blood.
A: pulmonary artery

Q: [...] is the flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.
A: Pulmonary circulation

Q: The [...] are the four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.
A: pulmonary veins

Q: A [...] is the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries.
A: pulse

Q: The [...]  is the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side.
A: radial artery

Q: Teh [...] is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm.
A: radius

Q: Th [...] is the lowermost end of the colon.
A: rectum

Q: [...] carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.
A: Red blood cells

Q: The [...] is a cone shapped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder.
A: renal pelvis

Q: [...] is the air that ramines in the lungs after maximal expiration.
A: Residual volume

Q: [...]  is the inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.
A: Respiration

Q: [...] is the inability of the body to move gas efficiently.
A: Respiratory comprimise

Q: The [...] consists of all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts.
A: respiratory system

Q: The [...] is located  in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal.
A: reticular activating system

Q: The term retropetitoneal means [...]
A: behind the peritoneum.

Q: The [...] is the connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column.
A: sacroiliac joint

Q: The [...] is one of three bones that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertabrae.
A: sacrum

Q: The [...] or [...] is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts.
A: sagittal plane; lateral plane

Q: The [...] are the glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist.
A: salivary glands

Q: The [...] is the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair.
A: scalp

Q: The [...] is the shoulder blade.
A: scalpula

Q: [...] are glands that produce an oily substance called sebum which discharges along the shaft of the hairs.
A: Sebaceous glands

Q: [...] are storage sacs for sperm which empty into the urethra at the prostate.
A: Seminal vesicles

Q: [...] are the nerves that carry sensations form the body to the CNS.
A: Sensory nerves

Q: [...] is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as [...]
A: Shock; hypoperfusion.

Q: The [...] is the proximal portion of the upper extremities made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus.
A: shoulder girdle

Q: [...] is msucle that is attached to vones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.
A: Skeletal muscle

Q: The [...] is the framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also deisgned to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs.
A: skeleton

Q: The [...] is the portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
A: small intestine

Q: [...] is involuntary muscle; it constitutes the build of the GI tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.
A: Smooth muscle

Q: The [...] is the part of the nervous system that regualr activites over which there is voluntary control.
A: somatic nervous system

Q: [...] are muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diametes of tubes; found in the rectum, bladder and blood vessels.
A: Sphincters

Q: The [...] is an extension of the brain, comoposed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. IT lies inside of an is protected by the spina canal.
A: spinal cord

Q: The [...] is the breast bone.
A: sternum

Q: The [...] is the outermost or dead layer of the skin.
A: stratum corneal layer

Q: [...] is the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.
A: Stroke volume (SV)

Q: The [...] is tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body.
A: subcutaneous tissue

Q: The [...] is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart.
A: superior vena cava

Q: [...] are the glands that secrete sweat, located i the dermal layer of the skin.
A: Sweat glands

Q: [...] is type of joint that has growth together to form a very stable connection.
A: Symphysis

Q: [...] is the lining of a joint that secretes synovial fluid into the joint space.
A: Synovial fluid

Q: [...] is the portion of the circulatory system outside of the body.
A: Systemic circulation

Q: [...] is the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move withing the blood bessels; related to the amount of dilation or constrictions in the blood vessel.
A: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

Q: [...] is the contraction, or period of contraction of the heart especially that of the ventricles.
A: Systole

Q: The [...] is the lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples.
A: temporal bones

Q: The [...] are the fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to the bone.
A: tendons

Q: The [...] is the chest or rib cage
A: thoracic cage

Q: The [...] is the 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attach to each side of these vertebrae.
A: thoracic spine

Q: The[...] is the chest cavity taht contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessels.
A: thorax

Q: The [...] is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the adams apple.
A: thyroid cartilage

Q: The [...] is the shin bone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg.
A: tibia

Q: [...] is the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath.
A: Tidal volume

Q: [...] are the superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.
A: Topographic anatomy

Q: The [...] is the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs.
A: trachea

Q: The [...] or [...] is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts.
A: transverse plane; axial plane

Q: The [...] are the muscles in the back of the upper arm.
A: triceps

Q: The [...] is the middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand.
A: tunica media

Q: The [...] is the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb.
A: ulna

Q: A [...] is a small, hollow, tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
A: ureter

Q: The [...] is the canal that conveys urine from the bladder to the outside the body.
A: urethra

Q: The [...] is a sac behind the pubis symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine.
A: urinary bladder

Q: The [...] are the organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine.
A: urinary system

Q: The [...] is the spermatic duct of the testicles; also called the vas deferens.
A: vasa deferentia

Q: [...] is the movement of air between the lungs and the environmet.
A: Ventilation

Q: A [...] is one of two lower changers of the heart.
A: ventricle

Q: The [...] are the 33 bones that make up the spinal column.
A: vertebrae

Q: [...] is a measurement that examies how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.
A: V/Q ratio

Q: The [...] is the narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum.
A: xiphoid process

Q: The [...] is the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, and zygomaticp rocess of the temporal bone and the great winfs of the sphenoid bone.
A: zygomas

Q: An [...] is a young person age 12 to 18 years.
A: adolescent

Q: [...] is a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque which eventually leads to a partial ro complete blockage of blood flow.
A: Atherosclerosis

Q: [...] is an injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example too much pressure in the lungs.
A: Barotrauma

Q: [...] is a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approbal from peers and society.
A: Conventional reasoning

Q: An [...] is a young adult age 19 to 40 years.
A: early adult

Q: [...] are areas where the neonates or infants skull haas not fused together; usually disappear at appx 18 months of age.
A: Fontaelles

Q: An [...] is young child age 1 month to 1 year.
A: infant

Q: [...] is the average nnumber of years a person can be expected to live.
A: Life expectancy

Q: A [...] is an adult age 41 to 60 years.
A: middle adult

Q: The [...] is an infant reflex where an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens their arms wide, spreads their fingers and seems to grab at things.
A: moro reflex

Q: A [...] is age birth to 1 month.
A: neonate

Q: [...] are the basic filtering units in the kidneys.
A: Nephrons

Q: An [...] is an adult aged 61 years or older.
A: older adult

Q: [...] is an infatn reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infants palm; the infant grasps the object.
A: Palmar grasp

Q: [...] is a type of reasoning where a child bases decisions on their conscience.
A: Postconventional reasoning

Q: [...] is a type of reasoning where a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what they want.
A: Preconventional reasoning

Q: A [...] is an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infants cheek and the infant instictively turns their head toward the touch.
A: rooting reflex

Q: A person who is 6 to 12 years of age is [...]
A: school age.

Q: The [...] is an infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when their lips are stroked.
A: sucking reflex

Q: A [...] is a young child ages 1 to 3 years.
A: toddler

Q: [...] refers to a stage of develpment form birth  to 18 months where the infant gains trust of their parenst of carefivers if their world is planned, organized and routine.
A: Trust and mistrust

Q: [...] is The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
A: Absorbtion

Q: [...] is the therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.
A: Action

Q: [...] is the process of binding or sticking to a surface.
A: Adsorption

Q: An [...] is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors.
A: agonist

Q: An [...] is a medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications.
A: antagonist

Q: [...] is a medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).
A: Aspirin

Q: [...] are conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.
A: Contraindications

Q: [...] are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.
A: Enteral medications

Q: [...] is a medication that increases heart rate, blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.
A: Epinephrine

Q: A [...] is a semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes.
A: gel

Q: The [...] is the original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or trade names); the name is not capitalized.
A: generic name

Q: The [...] are the therapeutic uses for a specific medication.
A: indications

Q: An [...] is an injection into the bone; a medication delivery route.
A: intraosseous injection

Q: A [...] is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain.
A: medication

Q: A [...] is the inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm.
A: medication error

Q: A [...] is a miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles of medication may be inhaled through the mouth and into the lungs.
A: metered-dose inhaled (MDI)

Q: A [...] is a device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril.
A: mucosal atomizer device

Q: [...] is a medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.
A: Nitroglycerin

Q: [...] is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.
A: Oral glucose

Q: [...] is a gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without it.
A: Oxygen

Q: [...] are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.
A: Parenteral medications

Q: Per os (PO) means [...]
A: take by mouth.

Q: [...] is the process by which a medication works on the body.
A: Pharmacodynamics

Q: [...] is the study of the properties and effects of medications.
A: Pharmacology

Q: [...] is the use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
A: Polypharmacy

Q: [...] are any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.
A: Side effects

Q: A [...] is a liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand.
A: solution

Q: A [...] is an injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route.
A: subcutaneous injection (SC)

Q: A [...] is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve.
A: suspension

Q: The [...] is the desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body.
A: therapeutic effect

Q: The [...] is the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication; the name is capitalized.
A: trade name

Q: Transcutaneous means [...]; a medication delivery route.
A: through the skin

Q: [...] are actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.
A: Unintended effects

Q: [...] are actions that can be harmful to the patient.
A: Untoward effects

Q: ABC
A: airway, breathing, circulation

Q: ac
A: before meals

Q: ACLS
A: advanced cardiac life support

Q: ad lib
A: as desired

Q: ADL
A: activities of daily living

Q: AIDS
A: Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome

Q: A&P
A: anatomy and physiology

Q: BS
A: blood
sugar <br> breath sounds <br> bowel sounds <br> bachelor of
science (degree)

Q: ā
A: before

Q: adduction
A: Motion of a limb toward the midline.

Q: anterior
A: The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.

Q: apex (plural apices)
A: The pointed extremity of a conical structure.

Q: bilateral
A: A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline.

Q: deep
A: Farther inside the body and away from the skin.

Q: distal
A: Further from the trunk or nearer to the free end of the extremity.

Q: dorsal
A: The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand.

Q: extension
A: The straightening of a joint.

Q: flexion
A: The bending of a joint.

Q: Fowler position
A: An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised.

Q: inferior
A: Below a body part or nearer to the feet.

Q: lateral
A: Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline; also called outer structures.

Q: medial
A: Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline; also called inner structures.

Q: palmar
A: The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.

Q: plantar
A: The bottom surface of the foot.

Q: posterior
A: The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position.

Q: prone
A: Lying face down.

Q: proximal
A: Closer to the trunk.

Q: quadrants
A: Describes the sections of the abdominal cavity, in which two imaginary lines intersect at the umbilicus, dividing the abdomen into four equal areas.

Q: superficial
A: Closer to or on the skin.

Q: superior
A: Above a body part or nearer to the head.

Q: supine
A: Lying face up.

Q: ventral
A: The anterior surface of the body.

Q: AF, A-fib
A: atrial fibrillation

Q: AICD
A: automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator

Q: amb
A: ambulatory

Q: ant
A: anterior

Q: ASHD
A: arterioscleroticatherosclerotic heart disease

Q: BGL
A: blood glucose level

Q: bid/b.i.d/BID
A: twice daily

Q: BP, B/P
A: blood pressure

Q: BVM
A: bag-valve mask

Q: bx
A: biopsy

Q: CC, C/C
A: chief complaint

Q: CCU
A: coronary care unit

Q: C diff
A: Clostridium difficile

Q: cm
A: centimeter

Q: c/o
A: complaining of

Q: C02
A: carbon dioxide

Q: COLD
A: chronic obstructive lung disease

Q: CP
A: chest pain OR chemically pure OR cerebral palsy

Q: CRNA
A: certified registered nurse anesthetist

Q: CRT
A: capillary refill time OR cathode ray tube

Q: DOA
A: dead on arrival

Q: DOE
A: dyspnea on exertion

Q: DON
A: director of nursing

Q: DPT
A: diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine OR Doctor of Physical Therapy

Q: DSD
A: dry sterile dressing

Q: DtaP
A: diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine

Q: DTP
A: diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine

Q: Dx
A: diagnosis

Q: EDC
A: estimated date of confinement

Q: ENT
A: ears, nose, and throat

Q: EOC
A: Emergency Operations Center

Q: ET, ETT
A: endotracheal tube, endotracheal

Q: ETA
A: estimated time of arrival

Q: ETCO2
A: end-tidal carbon dioxide

Q: °F
A: degrees Fahrenheit

Q: Fio2
A: fraction of inspired oxygen

Q: Fe
A: iron

Q: FHR
A: fetal heart rate

Q: FHx
A: family history

Q: fl, fid
A: fluid

Q: fx
A: fracture

Q: Gl
A: gastrointestinal

Q: gtt
A: drop(s)

Q: gyn
A: gynecology

Q: h
A: hour

Q: H&P
A: history and physical

Q: HBV
A: hepatitis B virus

Q: Hct
A: hematocrit

Q: H2O
A: water

Q: hr
A: hour

Q: Hx
A: history

Q: l&O
A: intake and output

Q: ICS
A: incident command system OR intercostal space

Q: ICU
A: intensive care unit

Q: IMS
A: incident management system

Q: IO
A: intraosseous

Q: IPPB
A: intermittent positive pressure breathing

Q: kg
A: kilogram

Q: L/M, LPM
A: liters per minute

Q: MAE
A: moves all extremities

Q: MAEW
A: moves all extremities well

Q: mg
A: milligram

Q: Ml
A: myocardial infarction

Q: min
A: minute

Q: mL
A: milliliter

Q: mm
A: millimeter

Q: mm Hg
A: millimeters of mercury

Q: MOI
A: mechanism of injury

Q: MVA
A: motor vehicle accident

Q: MVC
A: motor vehicle crash

Q: NA, N/A
A: not applicable

Q: NC
A: nasal cannula

Q: NG
A: nasogastric

Q: NKA
A: no known allergies

Q: NPA
A: naso-pharyngeal airway

Q: NRB, NRBM
A: nonrebreathing mask

Q: NTG
A: nitroglycerin

Q: N/V
A: nausea and vomiting

Q: N/V/D
A: nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

Q: O2
A: oxygen

Q: OBS
A: organic brain syndrome

Q: OPA
A: oropharyngeal airway

Q: OR
A: operating room

Q: oz
A: ounce

Q: p̄
A: after

Q: Pco2
A: partial pressure of carbon dioxide

Q: PDR
A: Physicians' Desk Reference

Q: PEARL, PERL
A: pupils equal and reactive to light

Q: PEARLA
A: pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation

Q: PEARRL
A: pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light

Q: ped, peds
A: pediatric

Q: PEEP
A: positive end expiratory pressure

Q: po
A: per os (by mouth)

Q: psi
A: pounds per square inch

Q: PSVT
A: paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Q: Pt
A: patient

Q: q̄
A: every

Q: Rh
A: Rhesus blood factor OR rhodium

Q: RN
A: registered nurse

Q: Rx
A: prescription

Q: s̄
A: without

Q: Sao2
A: oxygen saturation

Q: SOB
A: shortness of breath

Q: Spo2
A: saturation of peripheral oxygen

Q: S/S, S&S
A: signs and symptoms

Q: stat
A: immediately

Q: STEMI
A: ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction

Q: subcut
A: subcutaneous

Q: SVT
A: supraventricular tachycardia

Q: sym, Sx
A: symptoms

Q: tab
A: tablet

Q: TBA
A: to be admitted OR to be announced

Q: tech
A: technician OR technologist

Q: tid/t.i.d/TID
A: three times a day

Q: Tx
A: treatment

Q: VD
A: venereal disease

Q: VRE
A: vancomycin-resistant enterococcus

Q: VT/V tach
A: ventricular tachycardia

Q: W/
A: with

Q: WMD
A: weapon of mass destruction

Q: wt
A: weight

Q: x̄
A: except

Q: AO X 4, A/O X 4
A: alert
and oriented to person, place, time, and self

Q: BPM
A: beats per minute

Q: c̄
A: with

Q: °C
A: degrees Celsius (centigrade)

Q: CA
A: cancer <br> cardiac arrest <br> chronologic age <br> coronary artery <br> cold agglutinin

Q: HA,
H/A
A: headache

Q: Hb,
Hgb
A: hemoglobin

Q: VT/V
tach
A: ventricular tachycardia

Q: yo, y/o
A: year
old