What are the solid organs in the abdominal cavity? Liver, spleen, pancreas, kidneys, and women (in women). 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are the hollow organs in the abdominal cavity? Gallbladder, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and urinary bladder. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What does the liver do? Assists in digestion by secreting bile, filters toxic substances, creates glucose stores, and produces substances necessary for blood clotting and immune functions 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What does the gallbladder do? Acts as a reservoir for bile. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are the three sections of the small intestines? duodenum, jejunum, ileum 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What does the pancreas do? Aids digestion by secreting juice that contains enzymes that help break down starches, fats, and protein. Also releases amylase. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is amylase? It is responsible for breaking down starches into sugars and is present in saliva and the duodenum. Where does amylase come from and go into? It comes from the pancreas and goes into the duodenum. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is bicarbonate? It is an alkali and is part of the buffering system that neutraizes stomach acids in the duodenum. It also comes from the pancreas. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is insulin? It regulates the amount of glucose in the bloodstream, and is produced in the pancreas. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is the jejunum? It is the second part of the small intestine and pays a major role in the absorption of digestive products. It comprises much of the surface area of the small intestine. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What kind of environment does the jejunum and ileum have? They have a mostly pH-neutral environment for absorption. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is the ileum? The ileum is the third part of the intestine, and is where soluble molecules are absorbed into the blood, and where proteins, fats, and starches are reduced to amino acids, fatty acids, and simple sugars. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is peristalsis? It is a rhythmic movement that moves waste matter through the intestines. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is the spleen? It is located is located in the abdomen but has no digestive function. It is part of the lymphatic system, assists in filtering blood, developing red blood cells and antibodies, and serves as a blood reservoir. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What do the kidneys do?
They play an important role in the regulation of acidity and blood pressure, and remove sodium chloride from the body and therefore excess fluid.
16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic How much of the output of blood from the heart passes through the kidneys each minute?  Nearly 20% of the heart's output passes through them. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is the renal pelvis? It is a cone-shaped collecting area that connects the ureter and the kidney. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where is the urinary bladder? It is located immediately behind the pubis symphysis. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic How much urine does the average adult form each day? They form 1.5 to 2L of it each day. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic How much blood circulates through the kidneys daily? c. 1,500 L of blood flows through them daily. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What lines the abdominal cavity? The parietal peritoneum lines it. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What lines the organs themselves? The visceral peritoneum lines them. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is peritonitis? This is irritation of the peritoneum. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is ileus? This is paralysis of the muscular contractions that normally propel material through the intestines. It can lead to abdominal distention. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is emesis? Vomiting caused by paralysis in the intestines. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic How do you gauge the degree of distention in a patient? To do this, simply look at the patient's abdomen. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What else is also associated with peritonitis? It is also associated with a loss of body fluid into the abdominal cavity. This fluid shift decreases the volume of circulating blood and may lead to decreased blood pressure or even shock. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic If a patient has peritonitis that has progressed, what will they present with? In this case, they will present with tachycardia and hypotension. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What can parietal peritoneum nerves sense? They can sense pain, touch, pressure, heat, and cold, and can easily localize pain. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What can visceral peritoneum sense? "It can not localize sensation, so the patient will describe such pain as a ""deep"" pain." 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is referred pain? It is the result of connections between somatic and autonomic nervous system, so that pain may be perceived at a distant point of the body. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might acute cholecystitis (AKA inflammed gallbladder) cause referred pain? It may cause pain in the right shoulder, because the autonomic nerves serving the gallbladder lie near the spinal cord, at the same anatomic level as the spinal sensory nerves that supply the skin of the shoulder. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might appendicitis cause pain? It causes pain in the right lower quadrant (direct), around the navel (referred), and rebounding pain (pain felt on the rebound after palpation) 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might an ulcer cause pain? It might cause pain at the upper mid-abdoman or upper part of back. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might diverticulitis cause pain? It might cause pain in the lower left quadrant. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might an abdominal aortic aneurysm, A.K.A., an A.A.A., cause pain? This condition might cause pain in the lower part of the back, or the lower quadrants. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might cystitis, A.K.A. inflamed bladder, cause pain? It might cause pain in the lower mid-abdomen, or retropubic area. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might a kidney infection cause pain? It might cause pain in the costovertebral angle, which is the acute angle formed on either side of the human back between the twelfth rib and the vertebral column. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might kidney stones cause pain? It might cause pain in the right or left flanks, radiating to the genitalia. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might pancreatitis cause pain? It might cause pain in the upper abdomen (both quadrants) and the back. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might pneumonia cause pain? It might cause pain in the upper abdomen (referred pain). 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might a hernia cause pain? It might cause pain anywhere in the abdominal area. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might peritonitis cause pain? It might cause pain anywhere in the abdominal area. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Why does early abdominal pain tend to be vague and poorly localized? It tends to be vague and poorly localized because visceral peritoneum is usually irritated first. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? The protective layer is eroded, allowing the acid to eat into the organ itself over the course of weeks, months, or even years. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What causes most peptic ulcers? Most are caused by an infection of the stomach with Heliocobacter pylori. Another major cause is chronic use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), as well as alcohol and smoking. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What do patients experience with peptic ulcers? They experience a classic sequence of burning or gnawing pain in the stomach that subsides or diminishes immediately after eating and then reemerges 2 to 3 hours later. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where might a peptic ulcer cause pain? It might cause pain in the upper abdomen, but sometimes may be found below the sternum. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are common symptoms of a peptic ulcer? Nausea, vomiting, belching, and heartburn are common symptoms of it. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are gallstones? They form and block the outlet from the gallbladder, causing pain and inflammation. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is cholecystitis? A condition in which the wall of the gallbladder becomes inflammed. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic How does cholecystitis present? The condition presents as a constant, severe pain in the right upper or midabdominal region, and may refer to the right upper back, shoulder area, or flank. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are common symptoms of cholecystitis? Symptoms include general gastrointestinal distress such as nausea and vomiting, indigestion, bloating, gas, and belching. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic When does cholecystitis produce symptoms? It commonly produces symptoms about 30 minutes after a particularly fatty meal and usually at night. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What causes pancreatitis? It can be caused by an obstructing gallstone, alcohol abuse, and other diseases that cause inflammation of the pancreas. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is appendicitis? It is inflammation or infection in the appendix. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are symptoms of appendicitis? Symptoms are initially generalized and dull pain near the umbilical area. The pain later localizes to the right lower quadrant. A classic symptom is rebound tenderness. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is esophagitis? It occurs when the lining of the esophagus becomes inflammed by infection or from the acids in the stomach (gastrophageal reflux disease). 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What causes esophageal varices? They occur when the amount of pressure within the blood vessels surrounding esophagus increases. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What causes Mallory-Weiss syndrome? It occurs when the junction between the esophagus and the stomach tears, causing severe bleeding and eventually death. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is the principal symptom of Mallory-Weiss syndrome? The principal syndrome is vomiting. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is acute gastroenteritis? It comprises a family of conditions revolving around a central theme of infection combined with diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What causes diverticulitis? It is caused when a lack of fiber leads to hard stool which requires more intestinal contractions, subsequently increasing pressure within the colon. In this environment, small defects within the colonic wall that would otherwise never pose a problem now fail, resulting in bulges in the wall. These small outcroppings eventually turn into pouches, called diverticula. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are the symptoms of diverticulitis? Symptoms are abdominal pain in the left side of the lower abdomen, fever, malaise, body aches, chills, nausea, and vomiting, as well as constipation. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is cystitis? It is bladder infammation. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is another name for cystitis? Another name for it is urinary tract infection (UTI). 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Where do patients with UTI tend to have pain? They have pain in their lower abdominal quadrants. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is uremia? It is when a patient's kidneys fail, and the patient loses the ability to excrete waste from the body, and the urea remains in the blood instead of going into the urine. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is another name for kidney stones? Renal Calculi is another name for it. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic Can acute renal failure be reversed? It can be reversed with prompt diagnosis and treatment. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What should you always consider with a woman with lower quadrant pain or tenderness? You should always consider that she may have a problem with her ovaries. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is a cause of abdominal aoritc aneurysm (AAA)? It is caused when in older people, the wall of the aorta develops weak areas that swell. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is a common complaint of AAA? Back pain is a common complaint with it. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is a hernia? It is a protrusion of an organ or tissue through a hole or opening into a body cavity where it does not belong. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What causes hernia? Causes of it include: A congenital defect, as around the umbilicus; a surgical wound that has failed to heal properly; a natural weakness in an area such as in the groin. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is a reducible hernia? It is a hernia that can disappear back into the body cavity in which it belongs. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is an incarcerated hernia? It is a hernia that cannot be pushed back into the body cavity. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is strangulation? It is when a hernia is incarcerated, and its contents may become seriously compressed by the surrounding tissue, compromising the blood supply. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is an important question to ask a patient with possible gastrointestinal issues regarding bleeding? Ask them if they have blood in their vomit (hematemesis) or black, tarry stool (melena). 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic If a patient has drawn up their right knee, what condition might this be? This stance may indicate appendicitis. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic If a patient is curled up to one side, what condition may this be? This stance may indicate pancreatitis. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is guarding? It is a broadlike muscle spasm, and can be seen with major problems, such as a perforated ulcer or pancreatitis. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is one way to decrease nausea? Providing a patient low-flow oxygen often decreases it. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What happens if a patient misses a dialysis treatment? If this happens, weakness and pulmonary edema can be the first in a series of conditions that can become progressively more serious. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What are some adverse affects of dialysis? They include hypotension, muscle cramps, nausea and vomiting, hemorrhage from the access site, and infection at the access site. 16 emergencies gastrointestinal urologic What is the endocrine system? It is a complex message and control system that includes a network of glands that produce and secrete hormones. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are endocrine glands? They secrete and release chemicals that are used inside the body. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is a hormone? It is a substance produced by a gland that has special regulatory effects on other organs and tissues. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is homeostasis? It is the maintaining of stability in the body's internal environment. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What can cause endocrine disorders? Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of a gland can cause it. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic How much of the population does diabetes affect? It affects about 7% of the population. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is glucose? It is one of the basic sugars used in the body and, in conjunction with oxygen, is the primary fuel for cellular metabolism. It is also called dextrose. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is the full name of diabetes? "Its full name is diabetes mellitus, which means ""sweet diabetes""." 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is type 1 diabetes? When patients do not produce insulin. It typically developments during childhood. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is type 2 diabetes? When patients produce inadequate amounts of insulin, or what is produced does not function effectively. It is more common than type 1 diabetes, and on the rise due to obesity. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are some medications that treat diabetes? Chlorpropamide (Diabinese), tolbutamide (Orinase), glyburide (Micronase), glipizide (Glucotrol), metformin (Glucophage), and rosiglitazone (Avandia) are some of these types of muscles. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What kind of problem is type 1 diabetes considered? It is considered an autoimmune problem, because the body becomes allergic to, and, therefore, destroys the insulin-producing cells of the endocrine glands in the pancreas. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is the normal level of blood glucose levels? The normal amount is 80 to 120 mg/dL 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic "What are the ""3 Ps"" of uncontrolled diabetes symptoms?" They are polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (frequent drinking and thirst), and polyphagia (excessive eating). 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What happens when the body can't use glucose to supply energy for cells? When this happens, fat is used as an immediate energy source, which produces ketones and fatty acids as waste products and are hard for the body to excrete. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is acidosis? It is a condition caused by an accumulation of ketones in the blood and tissue. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? It is a type of hyperglycemic crisis. It a form of acidosis seen in uncontrolled diabetes. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are the signs and symptoms of DKA? They are weakness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, a weak and rapid pulse, and Kussmaul respirations 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are Kussmaul respirations? They are a type of deep, rapid breathing seen during DKA. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is often a result of type 2 diabetes? A common result is HHNC, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic How do diabetes lead to dehydration? The body tries to get rid of the excess sugar in the urine. The fluid follows the sugar, causing dehydration. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What occurs with prolonged hyperglycemia? It results in diabetic ketoacidosis. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What occurs with prolonged hypoglycemia? It progresses to unresponsiveness and eventually hypoglycemic crisis. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are common signs of both hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia? Staggering and an intoxicated appearance or unresponsiveness are signs of both. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is hyperglycemic crisis? It is a state of unconsciousness resulting from several problems, including ketoacidosis, hyperglycemia, and dehydration. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are some symptoms of hyperglycemic crisis? "Some symptoms of Kussmaul respirations, dehydration, sweet or fruity odor on the breath, a rapid thready pulse, normal or slightly low blood pressure, weakness, nausea, and the ""3 Ps""." 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is a hypoglycemic crisis? It occurs when the patient has taken too much insulin, not eaten enough food, or had an unusual amount of physical activity. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia? Symptoms include normal to shallow or rapid respirations, pale clammy skin, sweating, a rapid pulse, normal to low blood pressure, anxious or combative behavior, hunger, weakness on one side of the body, and rapid changes in mental status. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic How many grams of glucose does one tube contain? It contains 15 grams of glucose. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What are the contraindications to oral glucose? They are an inability to swallow and unconsciousness, because aspiration can occur. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is hematology? It is the study and prevention of blood-related diseases. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What percentage of blood volume is red blood cells (erythrocytes)? 47% in males and 42% in females is made up of it. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is the scientific term for white blood cells? They are also called leukocytes. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is sickle cell disease? It is an inherited blood disorder that affect the red blood cells. The cells are poor oxygen carriers, so patients may experience hypoxia. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic How often do normal red blood cells live compared to hemoglobin S in sickle cell disease? Normal red blood cells live about 120 days. Hemoglobin S cells live only 16 days. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is thrombosis? The development of a blood clot. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is thrombophilia? It is the tendancy to develop blood clots, and affects approximately 5% to 7% of the Caucasian population of European descent in the United States. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic What is hemophilia? It is a genetic disorder usually inherited from the mother, in which the blood is not able to control bleeding. It occurs mostly in males, in approximately 1 in every 5 to 10 thousand births. 17 emergencies endocrine hematologic How many Americans die of allergic reactions every year? At least 1,000 Americans die every year. 18 emergencies immunologic What is immunology? It is the study of the body's immune system. 18 emergencies immunologic What is the immune system? It is the system that protects the human body from substances and organisms that are foreign to the body. 18 emergencies immunologic What is an allergic reaction? It is an exaggerated immune response. It is a reaction by the body's immune system, which releases chemicals to combat the stimulus. 18 emergencies immunologic What are some chemicals released by the immune system? Histamine and leukotrienes are two of them. 18 emergencies immunologic What is anaphylaxis? It is an extreme allergic reaction that is life threatening and involves multiple organ systems. 18 emergencies immunologic What is one of the most common signs of anaphylaxis? Wheezing is one of the most common signs of it. 18 emergencies immunologic What is urticaria? It consists of smalls areas of generalized itching or burning that appear as multiple, small, raised areas on the skin. 18 emergencies immunologic What is envenomation? It is when an insect or animal bites you and injects the bite with its venom. 18 emergencies immunologic What are five general catagories of allergens? Insect bites and stings, medications, plants, food, and chemicals. 18 emergencies immunologic How many species of bees, wasps, and hornets are there? There are more than 100,000 species of them. 18 emergencies immunologic What is a wheal? It is a raised, swollen, well-defined area of the skin. 18 emergencies immunologic What is a special consideration for honeybee stings? Their stingers remain in the wound for up to 20 minutes and continue to inject venom. 18 emergencies immunologic What are some actions you should take with insect stings? Position the injection site slightly below the level of the heart, and apply ice or cold packs to the area, but not directly on the skin. Don't use tweezers to remove the barb as squeezing it might release more venom. 18 emergencies immunologic What position should you place an insect sting position in? Place them in the shock position, and give oxygen if needed. 18 emergencies immunologic What percentage of the population are allergic to the venom of the bee, hornet, yellow jacket, and wasp? Approximately 5% are allergic. 18 emergencies immunologic How many people die each year from reactions to stings? About 200 people a year die from this. 18 emergencies immunologic What are some common symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to stings? Patients may experience generalized itching and burning, widespread urticaria, wheals, swelling about the lips and tongue, bronchospasm and wheezing, chest tightness and coughing, dyspnea, anxiety, abdominal cramps, and hypotension. 18 emergencies immunologic When do most terminal anaphylactic patients die? Two-thirds of them die within the first half hour, so speed is essential. 18 emergencies immunologic What is the definitive treatment for anaphylactic shock? It is epinephrine. 18 emergencies immunologic What is stridor? It is a harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sound, and occurs when swelling in the upper airway (near the vocal cords and throat) closes off the airway and can eventually lead to total obstruction. 18 emergencies immunologic What vital signs should you assess and reassess during reassessment? Pulse, respirations, blood pressure, skin, pupils, and oxygen saturation. 18 emergencies immunologic What is a useful method for assessing an allergic patient's perfusion status? Pulse oximetry is a useful method for this. 18 emergencies immunologic What kind of chemical is epinephrine? It is a sympathomimetic, which means it mimics the sympathetic (flight or fight) response. 18 emergencies immunologic How does epinephrine work? It has various properties that cause the blood vessels to constrict, which reverses vasodilation and hypotension. This, in turn, elevates the diastolic pressure and improves coronary blood flow. It also increases cardiac contractility and relieves bronchospasm in the lungs. 18 emergencies immunologic How much epinephrine do auto-injectable syringes contain? The adult EpiPen system delivers 0.3 mg of  it via an automatic needle and syringe system; the infant-child system delivers 0.15 mg.
The Twinject auto-injector contains two doses of it and is also available in two strengths, 0.15 mg for those weighing 33 to 66 lbs., and 0.3 mg for those who weigh 66 lbs. or more.
18 emergencies immunologic What are antihistamines? These are agents that block the effect of histamines. They work relatively slowly, within several minutes to 1 hour. 18 emergencies immunologic What is one thing you should do with all patients with suspected anaphylaxis? They should be given high-flow, high-concentration oxygen. 18 emergencies immunologic What are some common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions regarding the respiratory system? They are shortness of breath (dyspnea), sneezing or an itchy runny nose, tightness in the throat or chest, irritating dry cough, hoarseness, respirations that become rapid, labored, or noisey, and wheezing and/or stridor (progressing to a silent chest with anaphylaxis). 18 emergencies immunologic What are some common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions regarding the cardiovascular system? They are a decrease in blood pressure as blood vessels dilate (hypotension), an increase in pulse rate (tachycardia), pale skin as the vascular system fails, and loss of consciousness and coma. 18 emergencies immunologic What are some common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions regarding the skin? They are flushing, itching, or burning skin, especially common over the face and upper part of the chest, urticaria over large areas of the body (internal or external), swelling (especially of the face, neck, hands, feet, and or tongue), swelling and cyanosis or pallor around the lips, and a warm, tingling feeling in the face, mouth, chest, feet, and hands. 18 emergencies immunologic What are some additional common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions? They are anxiety, abdominal cramps, headache, itchy, watery eyes, dizziness, and a decreasing mental status. 18 emergencies immunologic How many children and adult suffer acute poisoning each year? Approximately 5 million each year suffer from this. 19 toxicology What are opoids? They are medicines with actions similar to morphine. 19 toxicology What is toxicology? It is the study of toxic or poisonous substances. 19 toxicology What is a poison? It is any substance whose chemical action can damage body structures or impair body function. 19 toxicology What is substance abuse? It is the misuse of any substance to produce a desired effect. 19 toxicology What is overdose? It is when a patient takes a toxic dose of a drug. 19 toxicology What should you do if you have even the slightest suspicion that a patient has taken a poisonous substance? If you suspect this, you should notify medical control and begin emergency treatment at once. 19 toxicology What does the presence of injuries such as burning or blistering around the mouth suggest? It strongly suggests the ingestion of a poison, such as lye. 19 toxicology What are some questions you can ask a patient you think might have ingested poison? "In this case, you can ask: ""What substances did you take? When did you take it/ were you exposed to it? How much did you ingest? What actions have been taken? How much do you weigh?""" 19 toxicology What should you do if a possibly poisoned patient vomits in the ambulance? If this occurs, you should try to collect the vomitus in a separate plastic bag so that it can be analyzed at the hospital. 19 toxicology What is the telephone number for the Poison Help hotline? The number is 1(800) 222.1222. 19 toxicology What should you do if you believe that a patient has been poisoned? If you think this has happened, you should immediately provide the poison center with all relevant information. 19 toxicology In general, what is the most important treatment you can perform for a patient you believed poisoned? In this situation, the most important treatment you can perform in general is to dilute and/or physically remove the poisonous agent. 19 toxicology What are the four avenues through which poison can get into a patient's body? They are: Inhalation, absorption (surface contact), ingestion, and injection 19 toxicology What are some examples of inhaled poisons? Some examples are natural gas, sewer gas, certain pesticides, carbon monoxide, chlorine, and other gases. 19 toxicology What might have to happen if the patient is found inside a toxic environment? In this case, patients may need to be decontaminated by specially trained personnel after they are removed from the environment. The patient's clothing should be removed in this process because it may contain trapped gases that can be released. You cannot administer emergency care until this step has been completed and there is no danger of the poison contaminating you. 19 toxicology What are some signs and symptoms of inhalation of chlorine or other irritant toxics? Symptoms of this include: burning eyes, sore throat, cough, chest pain, hoarseness, wheezing, respiratory distress, dizziness, confusion, headache, or stridor in severe cases. The patient may also have seizures or an altered mental status. 19 toxicology What are some products that are very destructive on contact? Acids, alkalis, and some petroleum (hydrocarbon) products are very destructive. 19 toxicology What should you do when a large amount of material has been spilled in the eyes? In this case, flooding the eyes for at least 20 minutes may be the fastest and most effective treatment. 19 toxicology What should you not do to chemical burns? In this case, do not spend time trying to neutralize substances on the skin with additional chemicals. This action may actually be more harmful. 19 toxicology What should you do if you suspect that toxic or hazardous materials are present? In this case, you should call for specialized resources such as the Hazardous Materials Team. 19 toxicology When should you not irrigate the contact area with water? When a patient has been contaminated with a poison that reacts violently to water, such as phosphorus or elemental sodium. Instead, brush the chemical off the patient, remove contaminated clothing, and apply a dry dressing to the burn area. 19 toxicology What percentage of all poisonings are by mouth? Approximately 80% are through ingestion. In the event of gastrointestinal poisoning, what is an EMT's goal? In such an event, an EMT's goal is to remove as much of the poison as possible from the gastrointestinal tract. Why are injected poisons so dangerous? They are so dangerous because they are impossible to dilute or remove as they are usually absorbed quickly into the body or cause intense local tissue destruction. What is tolerance? When a person who routinely uses a substance needs increasing amounts of it to achieve the same result. What are some signs and symptoms of opiods? Some examples are hypoventilation or respiratory arrest, pinpoint pupils, sedation or coma, and hypotension. 19 toxicology What are some signs and symptoms of sympathomimetics? Some symptoms are hypertension, tachycardia, dilated pupils, agitation or seizures, and hyperthermia. 19 toxicology What are some signs and symptoms of sedative-hypnotics? Some examples are slurred speech, sedation or coma, hypoventilation, hypotension. 19 toxicology What are some signs and symptoms of anticholinergics? Some examples are tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, dilated pupils, dry skin and mucous membranes, sedation, agitation, seizures, coma, or delirium, and decreased bowel sounds. 19 toxicology What are some signs and symptoms of cholinergics? Some examples are excess defecation or urination, muscle fasciculations, pinpoint pupils, excess lacrimation or salivation, airway compromise, nausea or vomiting. 19 toxicology How many people dies from alcohol every year? 200,000 people die from this each year. 19 toxicology What is the most common long-term effect of alcohol consumption? It is liver damage, with estimates that up to 90% of heavy drinkers will develop some level of hepatitis and 10% to 20% will develop cirrhosis. Atrophy of the cerebrum is another long-term effect. 19 toxicology What is alcohol? It is a powerful Central Nervous System (CNS) depressant, a sedative, and a hypnotic (it induces sleep). 19 toxicology What happens to a patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal? They may experience hallucinations or delirium tremens (DTs), which may develop 1 to 7 days after a person stops drinking. 19 toxicology What are some symptoms of alcohol withdrawal besides DTs? They are agitation and restlessness, fever, sweating, tremors, confusion and/or disorientation, delusions, and seizures. 19 toxicology What is a trade name of hydrocodone? Vicondin 19 toxicology What is a trade name of hydromorphone? Dilaudid 19 toxicology What is a trade name of meperidine? Demerol 19 toxicology What is a trade name of methadone? Dolophine 19 toxicology What is a trade name of oxycodone? Percocet 19 toxicology What is a trade name of oxycodone hydrochloride? OxyContin 19 toxicology What are signs and symptoms of opiod patients? They are sedated or unconscious, cyanotic, and (most telling) pinpoint pupils. 19 toxicology What treatment should EMTs provide to opioid paitent? Treatment includes supporting the airway and breathing. You may try to arouse patients by talking loudly to them or shaking them gently. Always open the airway, give supplemental oxygen, and be prepared for vomiting. 19 toxicology What position should you put opioid patients in? In this situation, place them in the supine position; this will help compensate for likely hypotension. 19 toxicology What should you NOT attempt to do with opioid patients? In this situation, do NOT use home remedies, such as forcing milk or applying ice to the groin. 19 toxicology How quickly with naloxone (Narcan) work? It will work within two minutes. 19 toxicology What is the only effective antidote to reverse the symptoms of opioid overdose? The only one are certain narcotic antagonists such as naloxone (Narcan). 19 toxicology "What is an example ""date-rape"", ""knock out"", or ""Mickey Finn"" drugs?" One example is flunitrazepam (Rohypnol). 19 toxicology What is a trade name for phenobarbital? Luminal 19 toxicology What is a trade name alprazolam? Xanax 19 toxicology What is the trade name of diazepam? Valium 19 toxicology What is a trade name of flunitrazepam? Rohypnol 19 toxicology What is a trade name of lorazepam? Ativan 19 toxicology What is a trade name of carisoprodol Soma 19 toxicology What is a trade name of chloral hydrate? """Mickey Finn""" 19 toxicology What is ethyl alcohol? This is drinking alcohol. 19 toxicology What is isopropyl alcohol? This is rubbing alcohol. 19 toxicology What is an important precaution when dealing with patients who inhaled halogenated hydrocarbon solvents? Patients who have used these have hearts that are hypersensative to the patient's own adrenaline, putting the patient at high risk for sudden cardiac death because of ventricular fibrillation; even the action of walking may release enough adrenaline to cause a fatal ventricular arrhythmia. 19 toxicology What is a stimulant? It is an agent that produces an excited state. 19 toxicology What are cholinergic agents? These agents overstimulate normal body functions that are controlled by the parasympathetic nerves, resulting in salivation, mucous secretion, urination, crying, and an abnormal heart rate. 19 toxicology What does DUMBELS stand for? Defecation
Urination
Miosis (constriction of the pupils)
Bronchorrhea (discharge of mucus from the lungs)
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
19 toxicology What is the most important consideration in caring for a patient who has been exposed to an organophosphate insecticide or some other cholinergic agent. The most important consideration is to avoid exposure yourself. 19 toxicology What are the most common antidotes to nerve agents? They are the Mark I kit and the DuoDote kit. The kits consist of an auto-injector of atropine and one of 2-PAM chloride (pralidoxime chloride). 19 toxicology What is a trade name for phenothiazines? Thorazine 19 toxicology What is a trade name for tetrahydrozoline? Visine 19 toxicology What are the two types of food poisoning? One type, the organism causes disease; in the other type, the organism produces toxins that cause disease 19 toxicology What is Salmonella? It is an organism that produces directs effects of food poisoning. It is characterized by severe gastrointestinal symptoms within 72 hours of ingestion, including nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. 19 toxicology What is Staphylococcus? It is a bacteria that is quick to grow and produce toxins in foods that have been prepared in advance and kept too long, even in the refrigerator. It results in sudden gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Symptoms usually start within 2 to 3 hours after ingestion, up to 8 to 12 hours. 19 toxicology What is one of the most severe forms of food poisoning? It is botulism, which results from eating improperly canned food, in which spores of Clostridium bacteria have grown and produced a toxin. 19 toxicology What are the symptoms of botulism? They are neurologic: blurring of vision, weakness, and difficulty in speaking and breathing. It can also cause muscle paralysis and is typically fatal once it reaches respiratory muscles. 19 toxicology When do symptoms of botulism first develop? They develop as long as 4 days after ingestion, or as early as the first 24 hours. 19 toxicology How many caes of poisoning from plants occur each year? Several thousand cases of this occur each year. 19 toxicology What is the scientific name for hemlock? Conium maculatum 19 toxicology What is the scientific name for lily of the valley? convallaria majalis 19 toxicology What is the scientific name for oleander? Nerium oleander 19 toxicology What is the scientific name for mistletoe? Phoradendron 19 toxicology What is another name for azalea? Rhododendron 19 toxicology What is the scientific name for nightshade? Solarium nigrum 19 toxicology What is the emergency treatment of diffenbachia? This includes maintaining an open airway, giving oxygen, and transporting the patient promptly to the hospital for respiratory support. 19 toxicology What is dieffenbachia? "This is also called ""dumbcane"". It causes irritation of skin and mucous membranes. When chewed, a single leaf (""elephant ears"") may irritate the lining of the upper airway." 19 toxicology What is the third leading cause of death in the States? It is stroke, after heart disease and cancer. 15 emergencies neurologic What are the statistics regarding gender and strokes? Men have more, but they are more likely to be fatal in women. 15 emergencies neurologic What ethnicities have a higher risk for stroke? African Americans, Hispanics, and Asians have a higher risk for this. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some of the causes of seizures? They may occur as a result of a recent or an old head injury, a brain tumor, a metabolic problem, or simply a genetic disposition. 15 emergencies neurologic What does A.M.S. stand for? It stands for Altered Mental Status. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some possible causes of AMS? Some possible causes are intoxication, head injury, hypoxia, stroke, metabolic disturbances, among others. 15 emergencies neurologic What does TIA stand for? It stands for Transient Ischemic Attack. 15 emergencies neurologic What are the 3 major parts of the brain? The cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the brain stem. 15 emergencies neurologic What does the brain stem control? It controls the most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and pupil constriction. 15 emergencies neurologic What does the cerebellum control? It controls muscle and body coordination. 15 emergencies neurologic How many cerebrum hemispheres are there, and what do they do? There are two, and they each control the opposite side of the body. 15 emergencies neurologic What does the front part of the cerebrum control? It controls emotion and thought. 15 emergencies neurologic What does the middle part of the cerebrum control? It controls touch and movement. 15 emergencies neurologic What does the back part of the cerebrum control? It controls sight. 15 emergencies neurologic How many cranial nerves are there? There are twelve, running to the eyes, ears, nose, and face. 15 emergencies neurologic Where and what are spinal nerves? They are located at each vertebra, and branch out from the spinal cord and carry signals to and from the body. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a possible sign that the primary problem of a patient is in the brain? If the patient has signs and symptoms affecting only one side of the body, it may be because of this. 15 emergencies neurologic How do the brain and skull feel pain? They do not actually sense pain because neither contains pain receptors. 15 emergencies neurologic What are meninges? They are membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some possible life-threatening causes of headaches? They can be caused by a stroke, tumor, infection of the central nervous system, or hypertension. 15 emergencies neurologic What might a situation with more than one patient reporting a headache tell you? It might signify carbon monoxide. 15 emergencies neurologic What is the most common type of headache? Tension headaches are the most common types. 15 emergencies neurologic What causes tension headaches? They are caused by muscle contractions in the head and neck are attributed to stress. 15 emergencies neurologic What is the second most common type of headache? Migraine headaches are the second most common. 15 emergencies neurologic What causes migraines? They are caused by changes in the blood vessel size in the base of the brain. 15 emergencies neurologic What causes sinus headaches? They are caused by pressure that is the result of fluid accumulation in the sinus cavities. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a possible sign of a hemorrhagic stroke? A sudden, severe headache, often described as the worst pain the patient has ever had. 15 emergencies neurologic What causes the pain in a hemorrhagic stroke? The blood from a ruptured blood vessel irritates the tissues of the brain and can cause increased intracranial pressure, resulting in this. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some signs of increased intracranial pressure? They are headache, vomiting, AMS, and seizures. 15 emergencies neurologic What is bacterial meningitis? It is an inflammation of the meninges caused by a bacterial infection, and is a central nervous system infection in which the patient may complain of a headache, stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light. 15 emergencies neurologic What is another name for a stroke? Another name for it is a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). 15 emergencies neurologic What is a CVA? It is an interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function. 15 emergencies neurologic What is ischemia? It is a lack of oxygen that causes the cells not to function properly. 15 emergencies neurologic What are the two types of strokes? The two types are ischemic and hemorrhagic. 15 emergencies neurologic What causes an ischemic stroke? It is caused by a direct blockage of blood flow through the cerebral arteries. 15 emergencies neurologic What causes a hemorrhagic stroke? It is caused by a blood vessel rupturing, which causes increased pressure in the brain and subsequent brain damage. 15 emergencies neurologic What is thrombosis? It is when a clot forms at the site of blockage. 15 emergencies neurologic What is embolus? It is when a clot forms in a remote area, and then travels to the site of blockage. 15 emergencies neurologic What percentage of strokes are ischemic? More than 80% of all strokes are caused by this. 15 emergencies neurologic What is atherosclerosis? It is a disorder in which calcium and cholesterol build up, forming a plaque inside the walls of the blood vessels. 15 emergencies neurologic Who is most at risk for hemorrhagic stroke? People who have very high blood pressure or long-term elevated blood pressure. After many years of high pressure, the blood vessels in the brain weaken. If a vessel ruptures, the bleeding in the brain will increase the pressure inside the cranium. 15 emergencies neurologic What is an aneurysm? It is a swelling or enlargement of part of an artery resulting from weakening of the arterial wall. 15 emergencies neurologic What is the likely cause of a hemorrhagic stroke in an otherwise healthy person? The likely cause is often a weakness in a blood vessel called a berry aneurysm. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a berry aneurysm? This type of aneurysm resembles a tiny balloon (or berry) that juts out from the artery. When the aneurysm is overstreched and ruptures, blood spurts into an area between two of the coverings of the brain called the subarachnoid space. These types of strokes are called subarachnoid space. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? This is when stroke symptoms go away on their own in less than 24 hours. Some patients call these ministrokes. 15 emergencies neurologic How many patients who have experienced a TIA will experience a stroke soon after? Approximately 1/3 will experience one. 15 emergencies neurologic What are the general signs and symptoms of stroke? They include: Facial drooping, sudden weakness or numbness in the face, arm, leg, or one side of the body, loss of movement and sensation on one side of the body, ataxia, sudden loss of vision in one eye, difficulty swallowing, decreased or increased level of responsiveness, dysphasia, expressive aphasia, dysarthria, receptive aphasia, decreased or absent movement in one or more extremities, sudden or severe headache, sudden loss of balance or trouble walking, confusion, dizziness, weakness, combativeness, restlessness, tongue deviation, coma. 15 emergencies neurologic What is aphasia? It is an inability to produce or understand speech. It may be caused by a stroke in the left cerebral hemisphere. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some signs that a patient's right cerebral hemisphere is not getting enough oxygen? In this situation, patients will understand langauge and be able to speak, but their words may be slurred and hard to understand. If you ask the patient to life their left arm and they cannot, they will lift their right arm instead; they seem to have forgotten that the left arm even exists (neglect). 15 emergencies neurologic What might high blood pressure be a result of regarding a cerebral hemorrhage? High blood pressure can cause the bleeding, but many times the high blood pressure is a compensatory response to the bleeding itself. 15 emergencies neurologic What happens when bleeding occurs inside the brain? When this happens, the pressure inside the skull increases. 15 emergencies neurologic What are three conditions may appear to be a stroke? The three conditions are hypoglycemia, a postictal state, and subdural or epidural bleeding that presses on the brain. 15 emergencies neurologic Why would a hypoglycemic patient present as someone having a stroke? This is because oxygen and glucose are both needed for the brain's metabolism. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a lucid interval? It is the period between injury and deterioration (minutes to hours) during an epidural hemorrhage. 15 emergencies neurologic How many EMS 911 calls involve a patient with a stroke? As many as 30% of them involve this. 15 emergencies neurologic How many people are estimated to have epilepsy? c. 4 million people in the US have it. 15 emergencies neurologic What is the leading cause of death in the United States among people under 40? Traumatic Injuries are the leading cause of death for this group. 22 emergencies overview trauma What causes trauma emergencies? They occur as a result of physical forces applied to the body. 22 emergencies overview trauma What are the three concepts of energy typically associated with injury (exluding thermal)? They are potential energy, kinetic energy, and work. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is Newton's first law? Newton's first law states that objects at rest tend to stay at rest and objects in motion tend to stay in motion, unless acted on by some force. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is Newton's second law? It is that Force (F) equals Mass (M) times acceleration (A), that is: F=M(A) 22 emergencies overview trauma What is Newton's third law? It is that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is work? It defined as force acting over a distance. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is kinetic energy? It is the energy of a moving object. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is the equation for kinetic energy? The equation is:
KE=m/2 x v2
22 emergencies overview trauma What is relation between energy and speed regarding  energy available to cause injury? Notice that the energy available to cause injury doubles when an object's weight doubles, but quadruples when an object's speed doubles. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is potential energy? It is the product of mass, force of gravity, and height, and is mostly associated with the energy of falling objects. 22 emergencies overview trauma What are some examples of significant MOIs? They include multi-system trauma, falls from heights, motor vehicle and motorcycle crashes, car versus pedestrian, gunshot wounds, and stabbings. 22 emergencies overview trauma What are the two types of traumas? They are blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is blunt trauma? It is the result of force (or energy transmission) to the body that causes injury without penetrating the soft tissues or internal organs and cavities. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is penetrating trauma? It is caused by objects that primarily pierce and penetrate the surface of the body and cause damage to soft tissues, internal organs, and body cavities. 22 emergencies overview trauma What are the five classifications of car crashes? They are classified as frontal (head-on), rear-end, lateral (T-bone), rollovers, and rotational (spins). 22 emergencies overview trauma What are the three collisions in a typical vehicular impact? They are: The collision of the car against another car, a tree, or another object; The collision of the passenger against the interior of the car; and the collision of the passenger's internal organs against the solid structures of the body. 22 emergencies overview trauma What are some common passenger injuries in a vehicular crash? They include lower extremity fractures (knees into the dashboard), flail chest (rib cage into the steering wheel), and head trauma (head into the windshield). 22 emergencies overview trauma What is coup-contrecoup brain injury? It is a result of trauma to the head that causes a compression injury (or bruising) to the anteior portion of the brain and streching (or tearing) of the posterior portion of the brain. 22 emergencies overview trauma What should you suspect if you see a contusion on the patient's forehead and the windshield is starred? In this situation you should strongly suspect an injury to the brain. 22 emergencies overview trauma What should you always suspect whenever there is a significant impact to the head? In this situation, you should also suspect a spinal injury. 22 emergencies overview trauma If one or more of the passengers in a vehicular crash are dead, what action must be taken? In this situation, you should suspect that the other passengers have sustained serious injuries. 22 emergencies overview trauma What should you initially determine when investigating a frontal crash? In this event, you should determine whether the passenger was restrained by a full and properly applied three-point restraint, as well as whether the airbag deployed. Identifying the types of restraints used and whether the airbags were deployed will help you identify injury patterns related to the supplemental restraint systems. 22 emergencies overview trauma "Where should children shorter than 4'9"" sit in a car." This kind of person should ride in the rear seat or, in the case of a pickup truck or other single-seated vehicle, the air bag should be turned off. 22 emergencies overview trauma Where are seatbelts designed to be worn? They are designed to be worn over the iliac crest of the pelvis in order to distribute the force over the bony surface. 22 emergencies overview trauma What type of injuries are associated with rear-end impacts? This type of impact is known to cause whiplash-type injuries, particularly when the passenger's head and/or neck is not restrained by an appropriately placed headset. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is one type of injury to be aware of in a lateral (T-bone) collision? In this type of collision, the car is typically struck above its center of gravity and begins to rock away from the side of the impact. This results in the passenger sustaining a lateral whiplash injury. The cervical spine has little tolerance for lateral bending. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is the most common life-threatening event in a rollover? In this event, the most common life-threatening event is ejection or partial ejection of the passenger from the vehicle. 22 emergencies overview trauma What should the first step be when evaluating the MOI in a car-versus-pedestrian collision? In this event, your first step should be to estimate the speed of the vehicle that struck the patient; next determine whether the patient was thrown through the air and at what distance or whether the patient was pulled under the vehicle. 22 emergencies overview trauma What should you presume in a bicycle collision? In this event, you should presume that the patient has sustained an injury to the spinal column, until proven otherwise at the hospital. 22 emergencies overview trauma What are the four types of motorcycle impacts? The four types are head-on collision, angular, ejection, and controlled crash. 22 emergencies overview trauma At what height should a fall be considered significant? More than 15' or 3 times the patient's height is considered significant. 22 emergencies overview trauma What is something to consider in older patients who have suffered a fall? In this situation, remember that the patient may have osteoporosis, and may have actually sustained a fracture before the fall. 22 emergencies overview trauma What does the CNS (Central Nervous System) include? It includes the brain and the spinal cord, including the nuclei and cell bodies of most nerve cells, and long nerve fibers that link these cells to the body's various organs through openings in the spinal column. 27 chest injuries What is the cerebrum? It contains about 75% of the brain's total volume, and controls a wide variety of activities, including most voluntary motor functions and conscious thought. 27 chest injuries What is the brain stem? It controls virtually all the functions that are necessary for life, including the cardiac and respiratory systems and nerve function transmissions. It is deep inside the cranium and is the best-protected part of the CNS. 27 chest injuries What is grey matter composed of? This is composed of neural cell bodies and synapses, which are connections between nerve cells. 27 chest injuries What does white matter consist of? This consists of fiber pathways. 27 chest injuries What is the skull covered by? It is covered by layers of muscle, superficial fascia, and thick skin. 27 chest injuries What protects the CNS? It is protected by the meninges, three distinct laters of tissue that suspend the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal.. 27 chest injuries What is the outer layer of the meninges? It is the dura mater, a tough fibrous layer that closely resembles leather. 27 chest injuries What are the two inner layers of the meninges? They are the arachnoid and the pia mater. They contain the blood vessels that nourish the brain and spinal cord. 27 chest injuries Where is CSF (Cerebral Spinal Fluid) produced? This is produced inside a chamber in the brain, called the third ventricle. 27 chest injuries Where is cerebral spinal fluid, A.K.A. CSF, located? This is located in the subarachnoid space below the arachnoid. 27 chest injuries How much CSF is in the brain at any one time? There is approximately 125 to 150 ml of this in the brain at any one time. 27 chest injuries What is the primary purpose of CSF? The primary purpose of this is to act as a shock absorber for the brain. 27 chest injuries How many anatomic parts does the peripheral nervous system have? It has two parts: 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. 27 chest injuries How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? There are 31 pairs of these. 27 chest injuries What do the spinal nerves do? They conduct sensory impulses from the skin and other organs to the spinal cord. 27 chest injuries What does the brachial plexus control? This controls the arms. 27 chest injuries What does the lumbosacral plexus control? This controls the legs. 27 chest injuries How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? There 12 pairs of these. 27 chest injuries What are cranial nerves? These emerge from the brain stem and transmit information directly to or from the brain. For the most part, they perform special functions in the head and face, including sight, smell, taste, hearing, and facial expressions. 27 chest injuries What are the two major types of peripheral nerves? They are the sensory nerves and motor nerves. 27 chest injuries What do the sensory nerves do? These carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. 27 chest injuries What do the motor nerves do? These carry information from the CNS to the muscles. 27 chest injuries What are connecting nerves? These, found only in the brain and spinal cord, connect the sensory and motor nerves with short fibers, which allow the cells on either end to exchange simple messages. 27 chest injuries What are voluntary activities? These are actions which are consciously perform, in which sensory input determines the specific muscular activity. 27 chest injuries What are involuntary activities? These are actions that are not under a person's conscious control, such as breathing. 27 chest injuries What part of our nervous system controls our voluntary activities? This is called the somatic or voluntary nervous system. 26 head injuries spine What part of our nervous system controls many of our body's vital organs, over which the brain has no voluntary control? This is called the autonomic nervous system. 26 head injuries spine What are the names of the two parts of the autonomic nervous system? They are called the sympathetic and the parasympathetic. 26 head injuries spine What is the name of the groups of bones that compose the skull? They are called the cranium, which protects the brain, and the facial bones. 26 head injuries spine What is the cranium occupied by? It is occupied by 80% brain tissue, 10% blood supply, and 10% CSF. 26 head injuries spine What are the four major bones that make up the cranium? These are the occiput in the posterior, temple or temporal regions at the lateral portions, the parietal regions between the occiput and temporal regions, and forehead anteriorly. 26 head injuries spine What is the body's central supporting structure? It is the spinal column. 26 head injuries spine How many bones or vertebrae does the spinal column have? It has 33 bones or vertebrae. 26 head injuries spine What are the five sections of the spinal column, and how many vertebrae in each? They are the cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (5), and coccygeal (4). 26 head injuries spine What connects and separates the vertebrae? They are connected by ligaments and separated by cushions known as intervertebral disks. 26 head injuries spine How many people in the US experience head injuries each year? Approximately 4 million people experience this. 26 head injuries spine How many death occur annually as a result of head injury? 52,000 of these occur annually. 26 head injuries spine What percentage of traumatic deaths are a result of head injuries? 50% of all traumatic deaths result from this. 26 head injuries spine What are closed head injuries? These are injuries in which the brain has been injured but there is no opening into the brain. 26 head injuries spine What is an open head injury? This is an injury in which an opening from the brain to the outside world exists. 26 head injuries spine What percentage of people involved in motor vehicle crashes experience a head injury? More than 2/3s of people in motor vehicle crashes experience this. 26 head injuries spine What are the general signs and symptoms of a head injury? The general signs and symptoms of this are:
Lacerations, contusions, or hematomas to the scalp;
Soft area or depression on palpation;
Visible fractures or deformities of the skull;
Decreased mentation;
Irregular breathing pattern;
Widening pulse pressure;
Slow heart rate;
Ecchymosis about the eyes or behind the ear over the mastoid process;
Clear or pink CSF leakage from a scalp wound, the nose, or the ear;
Failure of the pupils to respond to light;
Unequal pupil size;
Loss of sensation and/or motor function;
A period of unconsciousness;
Amnesia;
Seizures;
Numbness or tingling in the extremities;
Irregular respirations;
Dizziness;
Visual complaints;
Combative or other abnormal behavior;
Nausea or vomiting;
Posturing (decorticate or decerebrate)

26 head injuries spine Where is a skull fracture diagnosis usually made? This is usually made in a hospital with a computed tomographic, or CT, scan. 26 head injuries spine What are some signs of a skull fracture? Some signs of this are ecchymosis (bruising) that develops under the eyes (aka raccoon eyes) or behind one ear over the mastoid process (aka battle's sign). 26 head injuries spine What % of skull fractures are linear skull fractures (aka nondisplaced skull fractures)? Appromixately 80% of all skull fractures are these kind. 26 head injuries spine What causes compressed skull fractures? These result from high-energy direct trauma to the head with a blunt object (such as a baseball bat to the head). 26 head injuries spine What are basilar skull fractures? These are associated with high-energy trauma, and usually occur following diffuse impact to the headj (e.g. falls, motor crashes). These injuries generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with radiography (X-ray). 26 head injuries spine What are the signs of a basilar skull fracture? Signs of this include CSF drainage from the ears (a risk for bacterial meningitis), which indicates rupture of the tympanic membrane in the ear. Other signs include raccoon eyes or battle's sign. 26 head injuries spine What is a traumatic brain injury (TBI)? "These are defined as ""a traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes"" (from the National Head Injury Foundation)." 26 head injuries spine What are the two broad catagories of TBI? These are primary (direct) injuries and secondary (indirect) injuries. 26 head injuries spine What are primary (direct) injuries? These are injury to the brain and its associated structures that results instantaneously from impact to the head. 26 head injuries spine What are secondary (indirect) brain injuries? These refer to a multitude of processes that increase the severity of a primary brain injury and therefore, negatively impact the outcome. 26 head injuries spine What are the two most common causes of secondary injuries to the brain? The two most common causes of this are hypoxia and hypotension. 26 head injuries spine What are some causes of secondary injuries to the brain? These may be caused by cerebral edema, intracranial hemorrhage, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia, infection, and hypoxia and hypotension (the two most common causes). 26 head injuries spine How long after a TBI can secondary brain injuries occur? They can occur anywhere from a few minuters to several days following the injury. 26 head injuries spine What is coup-contrecoup injury? This is when the brain strikes the front and back of the skull due to rapid deceleration. 26 head injuries spine What is cerebral edema? This is swelling of the brain, and may not develop until several hours after the initial injury. 26 head injuries spine What aggravates and improves cerebral edema? This is aggravated by low oxygen levels in the blood, and improved by high ones. This is especially true if the patient is unconscious. 26 head injuries spine Why is it not uncommon for a patient with a head injury to have a seizure? This is not uncommon for a patient with a head injury as a result of excessive excitability of the brain, caused by direct injury or the accumulation of fluid within the brain (edema). 26 head injuries spine What can lead to a rapid increase in intracranial pressure? This can be caused by an accumulation of blood within the skull or swelling of the brain. 26 head injuries spine What are the signs and symptoms of a mild elevation of intracranial pressure? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Increased blood pressure and decreased pulse rate;
Pupils that are still reactive;
Cheyne-Strokes respirations (respirations that are fast and then become slow, with intervening periods of apnea);
Patient initially attempts to localize and remove painful stimuli, followed by withdrawal and extension;
[EFFECTS ARE REVERSIBLE WITH PROMPT TREATMENT]
26 head injuries spine What are the signs and symptoms of moderate elevation in intracranial pressure? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Widened pulse pressure and bradycardia;
Pupils that are sluggish or nonreactive;
Central neurogenic hyperventilation (deep, rapid respirations);
Decerebrate posturing;
[SURVIVAL IS POSSIBLE BUT NOT WITHOUT PERMANENT NEUROLOGIC DEFICIT]
26 head injuries spine What are the signs and symptoms of marked elevation in intracranial pressure? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Unilateral fixed and dilated pupils;
Ataxic respirations (characterized by irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea), or absent respirations;
Flaccid response to painful stimuli;
Irregular pulse rate;
Diminished blood pressure;
NB: This level of ICP indicates that the lower portion of the brain stem is involved
[MOST PATIENTS DO NOT SURVIVE THIS LEVEL OF INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE]
26 head injuries spine What is an epidural hematoma? This is an accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater. 26 head injuries spine What is a common cause of epidural hematoma? These are nearly always the result of a blow to the head that produces a linear fracture of the thin temporal bone, where the middle meningeal artery runs along and is vulnerable in the event of a fracture. 26 head injuries spine What is the patients condition immediately following an injury that causes an epidural hematoma? In this situation, the patient often loses consciousness immediately following the injury; this is often followed by a brief period of consciousness (aka lucid interval), after which the patient lapses back into unconsciousness. 26 head injuries spine What is a subdural hematoma? This is an accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain. They are more common than epidural hematomas and may or may not be associated with a skull fracture. 26 head injuries spine Why do subdural hematomas and the signs of ICP develop more gradually than epidural hematomas? These develop more gradually than epidural hematomas because these are associated with venous bleeding. 26 head injuries spine What is an intracerebral hematoma? This involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself. They have a high mortality rate. 26 head injuries spine What is a subarachnoid hemorrhage? This is when bleeding occurs into the subarachnoid space, where the CSF circulates. 26 head injuries spine What are common causes of subarachnoid hematoma? The common causes of this condition include trauma or rupture of an aneurysm. 26 head injuries spine What is a common symptom of a subarachnoid hematoma? A common symptom of this is a sudden, severe headache. Mortality rates are high, and permanent neurologic impairment is common. 26 head injuries spine What is a concussion? This is a mild TBI caused by a blow to the head or face. It is in general a closed injury with a temporary loss of alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without demonstrable physical damage to the brain. 26 head injuries spine What percentage of patients who sustain a concussion experience a loss of consciousness? Apprixmiately 10% of these patients experience a loss of consciousness. 26 head injuries spine What is retrograde amneisa? This is when the patient can remember everything but the events leading up to the injury. 26 head injuries spine What is anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia? This is when a patient is unable to remember events after the injury. 26 head injuries spine What are some additional signs and symptoms you may see in concussion patients? With these patients, you may see nausea or vomiting, ringing in the ears, slurred speech, and an inability to focus. 26 head injuries spine What should you always assume with patients with symptoms of a concussion? You should always assume that these patients have a more serious injury. 26 head injuries spine What is a brain contusion? A contusion involves physical injury to the brain tissue, and is therefore more serious than a concussion. 26 head injuries spine What often causes spinal compression injuries? These can occur as a result of a fall, regardless of whether the patient landed on his or her feet, coccyx, or on top of the head. 26 head injuries spine What is a distraction? This is when the spine is pulled along its length. 26 head injuries spine What is subluxation? This is an incomplete dislocation of a joint. 26 head injuries spine What is the best way to protect a patient with a spinal injury's airway? The best way to do this is to use advanced airway techniques employed by AEMT and paramedics. 26 head injuries spine What does the absence of pain and/or the ability to move and feel extremities tell you about spinal injuries? This does NOT rule out spinal injuries. 26 head injuries spine What does a gradual and progressive deterioration in the patient's response to stimuli indicate? This usually indicates serious brain injury that may need surgical treatment; physicians at the hospital will need to know when a loss of consciousness occurs. 26 head injuries spine What is another name for Cushing's triad? Another name for this is herniation syndrome. 26 head injuries spine What are the signs of Cushing's triad? The signs of this are: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations (for example Cheyne-Stokes respirations), central neurogenic hyperventilation, and Biot respirations (irregular rate, pattern, and depth of breathing). 26 head injuries spine What is Cushing's triad / herniation syndrome? This is when the intracranial pressure is so great that it forces the brain stem and the midbrain through the foramen magnum. 26 head injuries spine What is the prime concern for the patient when you perform the four-person log roll? The prime concern in this situation is to ensure that the head, torso, and pelvis move as a unit, with your teammates controlling the movement of the body. 26 head injuries spine What should you do with a patient wandering around after an accident whom you suspect of having a skull or spinal injuries? In this situation, you should NOT have them lie down; immobilize them with a long backboard in the upright position. 26 head injuries spine When should a helmet be left on an injured trauma patient? This should always be left on provided: There are no impending airway or breathing problems; it does not interfere with assessment and treatment of airway or ventilation problems; and you can properly immobilize the spine. 26 head injuries spine When should a helmet be removed? This should be removed from a trauma patient if:
1) It makes assessing or managing airway problems difficult and removing of the face guard is not possible.
2) It prevents you from properly immobilizing the spine.
Or 3) It allows excessive head movement.
Remember to always remove in the event of cardiac arrest, and, most importantly:
ALWAYS CONSULT WITH MEDICAL CONTROL IF YOU DECIDE TO REMOVE THIS.
26 head injuries spine What is an additional consideration for children with helmets and skull or spinal injuries? In this situation, they may require additional padding to maintain the in-line neutral position due to their smaller airways and larger heads. 26 head injuries spine How many emergency department visits are due to chest traumas in the US annually? More than 700,000 of these are due to them each year. 27 chest injuries How many deaths are cuased by chest trauma in the US annually? More than 18,000 deaths are caused by this annually. 27 chest injuries What are the intercostal muscles? These muscles extend between the ribs, and are innervated from the spinal nerves originating in the cervical region C6 and C7, and allow the chest to expand on contraction and allow for the active portion of ventilation to occur. 27 chest injuries What is belly breathing? This occurs when a patient is breathing entirely with their diaphragm, and is considered a clinical or positive diagnostic finding that indicates cord damage at or above the C6 or C7 level. 27 chest injuries What is a closed chest injury? This is an injury in which the skin is not broken, and is generally caused by blunt trauma. These types of injuries often cause significant contusions in both the cardiac muscle and lung tissues (pulmonary contusions), impairing the function of these organs. 27 chest injuries What is an open chest injury? This is when some object penetrates the chest wall itself. 27 chest injuries What kills almost 1/3 of all people who die immediately in car crashes. 1/3 of these patients die as a result of traumatic rupture of the aorta. 27 chest injuries What are the signs and symptoms of chest injury? Signs and symptoms of these are:
Pain at the site of injury;
Pain localized at the site of injury that is aggravated by or increasing with breathing;
Bruising to the chest wall;
Crepitus with palpation of the chest;
Any penetrating injury to the chest;
Dyspnea;
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood);
Failure of one or both sides of the chest to expand normally with inspiration;
Rapid, weak pulse and low blood pressure;
Cyanosis around the lips or fingernails
27 chest injuries What kind of breathing do chest trauma patients often have? Patients with this injury often have tachypnea and shallow respirations, as it hurts to take a breath. 27 chest injuries What is pleuritic pain or pleurisy? This is irritation of or damage to the pleural surfaces, which causes a characteristic sharp or sticking pain with each breath when these normally smooth surfaces slide on one another. 27 chest injuries In a patient with chest trauma, what does dyspnea indicate? This indicates many things, including airway obstruction, damage to the chest wall, improper chest expansion because of the loss of normal control of breathing, or lung compression because of accumulated blood or air in the chest cavity. 27 chest injuries What does hemoptysis in a chest trauma patient indicate? This indicates that the lung itself or the air passages have been damaged. 27 chest injuries What is paradoxical motion? This is an abnormality associated with multiple fractured ribs, in which one segment (often referred to as a flail segment) of the chest wall moves opposite the remainder of the chest; that is, out with expiration and in with inspiration. 27 chest injuries What is occlusive dressing? This is a dressing made of Vaseline-impregnated gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that protects a wound from air and bacteria. 27 chest injuries What should you remember when treating a chest trauma patient with positive-pressure ventilation? In this situation, it is important to remember that you are overcoming normal physiologic functions, and if your patient has pneumothorax, you can easily exacerbate the injury. 27 chest injuries What are the Deadly Dozen Chest Injuries that must be detected and managed during primary assessment? These are:
1. Airway obstruction
2. Bronchial disruption
3. Diaphragmatic tear
4. Esophageal injury
5. Open pneumothorax
6. Tension pneumothorax
7. Massive hemothorax
8. Flail chest
9. Cardiac tamponade
[SECONDARY ASSESSMENT]
10. Thoracic aortic dissection
11. Myocardial contusion
12. Pulmonary contusion
27 chest injuries What should you always be alert for in elderly trauma patient? With these patients, reduced bone density may cause a number of fractures to the rib cage. 27 chest injuries What is the difference between hypoxia and hypoxemia? The first is a decrease in available oxygen; the second is a decreased number of red blood cells that can carry oxygen. 27 chest injuries What is an open pneumothorax? This is an open or penetrating wound to the chest that  is also called a sucking chest wound. You can actually hear a sucking sound as the patient inhales and a rushing sound as they exhale. 27 chest injuries Past what percentage of collapse will you start to hear dimished breath sounds on a side of the lungs? You will hear this after 30% to 40% of collapse. 27 chest injuries What should you do and in what order when faced with an open pneumothorax? In this true emergency situation, you should:
1. Clear the airway;
2. Maintian airway;
3. Provide oxygen;
4. Rapidly seal the wound with a sterile occlusive dressing.
27 chest injuries What is a flutter valve? This is a one-way valve that allows air to leave the chest cavity but not return. Careful obervation is required after the placement of this dressing. 27 chest injuries What should you do if signs of a tension pneumothorax develop? If this develops, it is suggested that the occlusive dressing be partially removed to allow the chest to vent. 27 chest injuries What is the weakened area of the lung called? This area is called a bleb. 27 chest injuries What is spontaneous pneumothorax? This event is not related to any major injury but simply happens with normal breathing or may occur during times of strenous physical activity such as exercise or coughing forcefully. 27 chest injuries What is simple pneumothorax? This condition is any pneumothorax that does not result in major changes in the patient's physiology. 27 chest injuries What is a tension pneumothorax? This conditions occurs when there is significant ongoing air accumulation in the pleural space. This air gradually increases the pressure in the chest, first causing the complete collapse of the affected lung and then pushing the mediastinum (the central part of the chest containing the heart and great vessels) into opposite pleural cavity. This prevents blood from returning through the venae cavae to the heart, ultimately leading to shock and death. 27 chest injuries What are common signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax? Common signs and symptoms of this are: increasing respiratory distress, altered level of consciousness, distended neck veins, deviation of the trachea to the side of the chest opposite, and decreased breath sounds on the side of the injury. 27 chest injuries What is the most common cause of tension pneumothorax? The most common cause of this is closed, blunt injury to the chest in which a fractured rib lacerates a lung or bronchus. 27 chest injuries What is hemothorax? This is a condition in which blood collects in the pleural space of the thorax. 27 chest injuries What is hemopneumothorax? This condition is the presence of air and blood in the pleural space of the thorax. 27 chest injuries What is cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade)? This condition occurs more commonly in the presence of penetrating chest trauma, when the protective membrane around the heart (pericardial sac) fills with blood or fluid (pus from an infection). As the fluid amount increases, the heart is less able to fill with blood during relaxation, so the heart cannont pump an adequate amount of blood. 27 chest injuries What are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade)? The signs and symptoms of this are referred to as Beck's triad, and include: distended or engorged jugular veins seen on both sides of the trachea, a narrowing pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diasystolic), and muffled heart sounds. 27 chest injuries What is the Frank-Starling mechanism? This is the mechanism that streches the heart to create a good contraction to pump blood out of the heart's ventricles. 27 chest injuries What does crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) indicate in a chest trauma patient? This condition indicates that air escaping from a lacerated lung is leaking into the chest wall. 27 chest injuries What is flail chest? This condition is when three or more ribs are fractured in two or more places, or if the sternum is fractured along with several ribs, and a segment of the chest wall may detach from the rest of the thoracic cage. This seriously interferes with the body's normal ventilation mechanics and must be addressed quickly. 27 chest injuries How should you treat a patient with a flail chest? In this situation, you should maintain the airway, provide respiratory support if necessay, give supplemental oxygen, and perform ongoing assessments for possible pneumothorax or other respiratory complications. Treatment may also include positive-pressure ventilations with a bag-mask device. You can also immobilize the patient with a pillow that the patient can hold against the chest wall. 27 chest injuries What is a pulmonary contusion? This the injuring or bruising of lung tissue that results in hemorrhage. 27 chest injuries When should you suspect pulmonary contusion, and what should you provide? You should always suspect this in patients with flail chest, and should provide respiratory support and supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate ventilation. 27 chest injuries What is traumatic asphyxia? This is result of a sudden, severe compression of the chest, which produces a sudden increase in intrathoracic pressure, and results in a characteristic appearance, including distended neck veins, cyanosis in the face and neck, and hemorrhage into the sclera of the eyes. 27 chest injuries How should you treat traumatic asphyxia? This condition is severe and you should provide ventilatory support with supplemental oxygen and monitor the patient's vital signs as you provide IMMEDIATE transport. 27 chest injuries What is myocardial contusion? This is the bruising of the heart muscle. Provide supplemental oxygen and transport immediately. 27 chest injuries What is commotio cordis? This is a blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest over the heart that occurs during the critical portion of a heartbeat, possibly resulting in immediate cardiac arrest. The blunt force causes a lethal abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular fibrillation. 27 chest injuries How should you treat commotio cordis? In this situation, the ventricular fibrillation that occurs from this injury responds well to early defibrillation if provided in the first 2 minutes after injury. 27 chest injuries What are the large blood vessels in the chest? These are the superior vena cava, the inferior vena cava, the pulmonary arteries, four main pulmonary veins, and the aorta. 27 chest injuries What percentage of deaths due to blunt trauma include a transection of the aorta? 20% of deaths due to blunt trauma include this. 27 chest injuries How many people die every year as a result of aortic or great vessel rupture? 5,000 to 8,000 people die a year as a result of this. 27 chest injuries What bone contains the brain? This is the cranium, or skull, which connects to the spinal cord through the foramen magnum. 25 face injuries neck What are the major bones of the face? The major bones of this are the:
1) nasal bone
2) the two maxillae (upper jawbones)
3) the two zygomas (cheekbones)
4) the mandibles
25 face injuries neck What is the orbit of the eye composed of? This is composed of the lower edge of the frontal bone of the skull, the zygoma, the maxilla, and the nasal bone. 25 face injuries neck How much of the nose is formed by bone? Only the proximal third of this is formed by bone; the rest is composed of cartilage. 25 face injuries neck What is the external, visible part of the ear called? This is called the pinna. 25 face injuries neck What is the small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the canal? This is called the tragus. 25 face injuries neck Where can the superficial temporal artery be palpated? This can be palpated just anterior to the tragus. 25 face injuries neck What is mastoid process? "This is a prominent bony mass at the base of the skull, about 1"" posterior to the external opening of the ear." 25 face injuries neck How many teeth are in the human mouth? There are 32 of these in the mouth. 25 face injuries neck What is the cervical spine? This is the first seven vertebrae in the spinal column (C1 through C7). 25 face injuries neck Where are the carotid arteries found? These are found on either side of the trachea, along with the jugular veins and several nerves. 25 face injuries neck What is between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage in the middle of the neck? Between these two is the cricothyroid membrane, a thin sheet of fascia. 25 face injuries neck Where can the carotid arteries be easily palpable? These can be easily palpated in a groove 1 to 2 cm lateral to the larynx. 25 face injuries neck What are the sternocleidomastoid muscles? These are muscles that originate from the mastoid process of the cranium and insert into the medial border each collarbone and the sternum at the base of the neck; they allow movement of the head. 25 face injuries neck How big is the eye? "This is approximately 1"" in diameter." 25 face injuries neck How much of an adult eye globe is protected by the orbit? 80% of this is protected by the orbit. 25 face injuries neck What is the conjunctiva? This is a membrane which covers the exposed surface of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. 25 face injuries neck What are the lacrimal glands? These are tear glands that keep the eye moist. 25 face injuries neck What is the sclera? This is the white of the eye, an extremely tough fibrous tissue. 25 face injuries neck What is the cornea? This is a clear, transparent membrane which allows light to enter the eye. 25 face injuries neck What is the iris? This is a circular muscle that lies behind the cornea with an opening in its center that allows light to enter. It is pigmented. 25 face injuries neck What is the pupil? This is the opening in the center of the iris. 25 face injuries neck What is anisocoria? This is a congenitial condition in which people are born with unequal pupils. 25 face injuries neck What is the lens? This is behind the iris, and focuses images on the retina. 25 face injuries neck What is the retina? This is in the back of the globe, and has numerous nerve endings which respond to light. 25 face injuries neck What is retinal detachment? This is a condition when the retina detaches from the underlying choroid and sclera, thus its nerve endings are not nourished, and the patient experiences blindness. 25 face injuries neck What is an important consideration for face and neck injury patient's airway? In this situation, bleeding from the injuries can be very heavy and produce large clots in the upper airway. In addition, the injuries may cause loosened teeth or dentures to become dislodged into the throat. 25 face injuries neck What is a hemotoma? This is a blunt injury that deos not break the skin but causes a break in a blood vessel, lead blood to collect under the skin. 25 face injuries neck What are the signs of a mandibular fracture? The signs of this include:
a misalignment of the teeth,
numbness of the chin,
and an inability to open the mouth.
25 face injuries neck When treating a soft-tissues injury to the face and neck, what is important to remember regarding bleeding and the airway? In this situation, remember that blood draining into the throat can produce vomiting and airway obstruction; therefore, the patient may need frequent suctioning. 25 face injuries neck What should you do with an injury that exposes the brain, eye, or other structures? With this injury, cover the exposed parts with a moist, sterile dressing to protect them from further damage. 25 face injuries neck What should you do if you find portions of avulsed skin that have become separated? With this injury, you should wrap them in a sterile dressing, place them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool. 25 face injuries neck What is conjunctivitis? This is when a small foreign object produces severe irritation, making the conjunctiva inflamed and red. Use a normal saline solution to gently irrigate the eye. 25 face injuries neck When irrigating the eye, what should you remember? When doing this, remember to always flush towards the outside, to avoid flushing material into the other eye. 25 face injuries neck What should you never do if an object is stuck in the cornea? In this situation, never attempt to remove the object. 25 face injuries neck What should you do when you see or suspect an impaled object in the eye? In this situation, bandage both eyes with soft bulky dressings to prevent further injury. 25 face injuries neck What should you do if an eye was burned by an alkali or strong acid? In this situation, you hsould irrigate the eye continuously for 20 minutes. 25 face injuries neck What can cause superficial light burns on the eye? These can be caused by ultraviolet rays from an arc welding unit, light from prolonged exposure to a sunlamp, or reflected light from a bright snow-covered area. These injuries often become painful 3 to 5 hours after exposure. 25 face injuries neck What are the 3 important guidelines to follow when treating penetrating eye injuries? The 3 guidelines for this situation are:
1) Never exert pressure on or manipulate it in any way.
2) If any part of the eye is exposed, gently apply a moist, sterile dressing to prevent drying.
3) Cover the injured eye with a protective metal eye shield, cup, or sterile dressing.
25 face injuries neck What should you do if the eyeball is displaced out of its socket? In this situation, do NOT attempt to reposition it. Simply cover it and stabilize it with a moist, sterile dressing. 25 face injuries neck What is a hyphema? This is bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye that obscures part or all of the eye; common in blunt trauma. 25 face injuries neck What is a blowout fracture, and how should you treat it? This is a fracture of the orbit, particularly of the bones that support the globe. Pain, double vision, and/or decreased vision are symptoms. Protect the eyes, cover, and promptly transport. 25 face injuries neck What is epistaxis? This is another name for nosebleeds. 25 face injuries neck When should you remove contact lense? The ONLY time you should remove these is in the case of chemical burns in the eye. 25 face injuries neck What eye findings should alert you to the possibility of a head injury? These findings are:
One pupil larger than the other;
The eyes not moving together or pointing in different directions;
Failure of the eyes to follow the movement of your finger as instructed;
Bleeding under the conjunctiva, which obscures the sclera;
Protrusion or bulging of one eye.
25 face injuries neck What are turbinates? These are layers of bone which are covered with a moist lining. Both chambers have a superior, middle, and inferior. 25 face injuries neck What is the external auditory canal? This is the ear canal, and leads into the tympanic membrane, or eardrum. 25 face injuries neck What is the tympanic membrane? This is also called the eardrum, and lies between the external and middle ear. 25 face injuries neck What bones are in the middle ear? The three bones here are called:
1) the hammer
2) the anvil
3) the stirrup
25 face injuries neck What is the eustachian tube? This is the internal auditory canal, which connects the middle ear to the nasal cavity. 25 face injuries neck How many days after an injury can surgeons repair facial deformities? These damages can usually be reversed if treated within 7 to 10 days. 25 face injuries neck What should you remember when dealing with an avulsed tooth? With this injury, remember to handle it by the crown and not by the root. 25 face injuries neck What is subcutaneous emphysema? This is the presence of air in the soft tissues which produces a characteristic crackling sensation. If you feel this sensation, maintain airway and prodive immediate transport. 25 face injuries neck What is exsanguination? This is the the bleeding out of the body. 25 face injuries neck What is an air embolism? This often occurs if a vein has been punctured, causing air to be sucked in through to the heart; cardiac arrest is a serious threat. 25 face injuries neck What are the signs and symptoms of larynx injuries? The signs and symptoms of this include:
respiratory distress;
hoarseness;
pain;
difficulty swallowing (aka dysphagia);
cyanosis;
pale skin;
sputum in the wound;
subcutaneous emphysema;
bruising on the neck;
hematoma;
and bleeding
25 face injuries neck What is a result of larnygeal injuries? When this happens, the larynx becomes crushed against the cervical spine, resulting in soft-tissue injury, fractures, and/or separation of the fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. 25 face injuries neck How should you treat laryngeal injuries? With these injuries, provide oxygenation and ventilation. Always suspect cervical spine injury, so apply immobilization but avoid the use of rigid collars, as they may cause further damage to the soft tissues. 25 face injuries neck What causes barotrauma injuries? These injuries occur from sudden or extreme changes in air pressure. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the leading form of injury? This is soft-tissue trauma. 24 injuries soft-tissue How many ED (Emergency Department) visits each year are open wound related? Approximately 6.5 million visits are a result of these. 24 injuries soft-tissue How many ED visits each year are a result of contusions? Approximately 5 million visits are a result of these. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the largest organ in the body? It is the skin. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the epidermis? This is the tough, external layer that forms a watertight covering for the body. It is itself composed of several layers. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the dermis? This is the inner layer of the skin. It lies below the germinal cells of the epidermis. It contains the structures that give the skin its characteristic appearances: hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are mucous membranes? These are membranes that cover the openings in the body (mouth, nose, anus, vagina) and also provide a protective barrier against bacterial invasion. 24 injuries soft-tissue What functions does the skin serve? This serves several functions, including:
protecting the body from foreign pathogens;
and
assisting in body temperature regulation.

24 injuries soft-tissue What are the three types of soft tissue injuries? The three types are:
1) Closed injuries
2) Open Injuries
3) Burns
24 injuries soft-tissue What are closed injuries? These are when soft-tissue damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface of the skin or membrane remains intact. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are open injuries? These are when there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membranes, exposing deeper tissues to potential contamination. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are burns? These are when the soft tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation. 24 injuries soft-tissue What does histamine do during inflammation? "During inflammation, this causes dilation of blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the injured area and resulting in a reddened, warm area immediately around the site. It also makes capillaries more permeable, and swelling may occur as fluid seeps out of these ""leaky"" capillaries." 24 injuries soft-tissue What is collagen, and what does it do during the wound healing process? This is a tough, fibrous protein found in scar tissue, hair, bones, and connective tissue. In the last stage of wound healing, it provides stability to the damaged tissue and joins wound borders, thereby closing the open tissue. 24 injuries soft-tissue At what temperature can thermal burns occur? These can occur when skin is exposed to temperatures higher than 111 F (44 C). 24 injuries soft-tissue Why do solids typically cause a more significant burn than gases? This is because solids generally have higher heat content than gases. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a contusion (bruise)? This is an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin but does not break the skin. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is ecchymosis? This is the buildup of blood which produces a characteristic blue or black discoloration. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a hematoma? This is blood that has collected within damaged tissue or in a body cavity; it occurs whenever a large blood vessel is damaged and bleed rapidly. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a crushing injury? This occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is crush syndrome? This is when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours and arterial blood flow is compromised; this is a significant metabolic derangement that can lead to renal failure and death. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is compartment syndrome? This is a condition when the cells that are injured leak watery fluid into the spaces between the cells. The pressure of the fluid may become great enough to compress the tissue and cause further damage. This is especially true if the blood vessels become compressed, cutting off blood flow to the tissue. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is contamination? This is the presence of infectious organisms (pathogens) or foreign bodies, such as dirt, gravel, or metal, in the wound. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are the four types of open sot-tissue wounds? These are:
1) Abrasions
2) Lacerations
3) Avulsions
and
4) Penetrating wounds
24 injuries soft-tissue What is an abrasion? This is a wound of the superficial layer of the skin, caused by friction when a body part rubs or scrapes across a rough or hard surface. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a laceration? This is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or a blunt force that tears the tissue. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is an incision? This is a sharp, smooth cut. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is an avulsion? This is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue (usually between the subcutaneous layer and fascia) so that they become either completely detached or hang as a flap. 24 injuries soft-tissue What should you never do with avulsions? In this situation, NEVER remove the skin flap, regardless of size. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is an amputation? This is an injury in which part of the body is completely severed. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a penetrating wound (puncture wound)? This is an injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object, such as a knife, ice pick, splinter, or bullet. 24 injuries soft-tissue What should you consider any time you observe bruising, swelling, or deformity, or the patient is reporting pain? In these situations, always consider the possibility of a closed injury. 24 injuries soft-tissue What does RICES stand for when treating soft-tissue injuries? When treating these, it stands for:
R.est
I.ce
C.ompression
E.levation
S.plinting
24 injuries soft-tissue When should you clean an open wound? Never; only hospital personnel should clean this. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a way to better control bleeding? You can often better control this by splinting the extremity, even if there is no fracture. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is evisceration, and what should you do when faced with it? This is when organs protrude through a wound. Do not touch or move the exposed organs; cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile saline solution and secure with an occlusive dressing; if you do not suspect spinal injury, flex the uninjured legs to relieve pressure. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the only exception to the rule of never removing an impaled object? The only exception to this rule is when it interferes with CPR. 24 injuries soft-tissue How many deaths a year are attributed to burns? These account for more than 10,000 deaths a year. 24 injuries soft-tissue Why are burns to the airway of significant importance? These are of significant importance because the loose mucosa in the hypopharynx can swell and lead to complete airway obstruction. 24 injuries soft-tissue What five factors will help you determine the severity of a burn? These are:
[MOST IMPORTANT]
1) What is the depth of the burn?
2) What is the extent of the burn?

3) Are any critical areas involved?
4) Does the patient have any preexisting medical conditions or other injuries?
5) Is the patient younger than 5 or older than 55?
24 injuries soft-tissue What are the 3 types of burns? They are:
1) Superficial (1st degree) burns
2) Partial Thickness (2nd degree) burns
3) Full Thickness (3rd degree) burns
24 injuries soft-tissue What are superficial (1st degree) burns? These involve only the top layer of skin (epidermis). The skin turns red but does not blister or actually burn through (ie sunburn). 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a partial-thickness burn? These involve the epidermis and some portion of the dermis. These burns do not destroy the entire thickness of the skin, nor is the subcutaneous tissue injured. Typically, the skin is moist mottled and white to red. Blisters are present. They cause intense pain. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a full-thickness burn? These extend through all the skin layers and may involve subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, or internal organs. The burned area is dry and leathery and may appear white, dark brown, or even charred. The burn area may be painless due to the death of nerve endings. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the rule of nines? This is a method to estimate burn surface area, using the patient's palm, which is equal to roughly 1% of the patient's total body.
Chest=18%
Legs=18% each
Arms=9% each
Genitals=1%
Back=18%
Head=9%
24 injuries soft-tissue How long should you flood a chemical burn for? You should do this for with gallons of water for 15 to 20 minutes after the patient says the burning pain has stopped. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is an insulator? This is any substance that prevents an electrical circuit between a source and the ground from being completed. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a conductor? This is any substance that allows a current to flow through it. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is amperage? This is a measurement of the magnitude of current. 24 injuries soft-tissue When an electric current enters the body, where is it burned? It is burned at the entrance wound as well as anywhere along the path until the current grounds and exits the body. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is important to remember about electrical burns? These are always more severe  than the external signs indicate. 24 injuries soft-tissue What a danger regarding electric currents and the chest? These can cross the chest and cause cardiac arrest. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are thermal burns? These are burns caused by heat. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are flame burns? These are often very deep burns, particularly if a person's clothing catches fire. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is a scald burn? These are commonly seen in children and handicapped adults. They often cover a large surface area of the body because liquids spread easily. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are flash burns? These are thermals burns caused by an explosion, as well as lightening strikes. 24 injuries soft-tissue What should you do if your patient shows signs of edema such as hoarse voice, singed nasal hairs, singed facial hairs, burns of the face, or carbon particles in the sputum? In these situations, consider requesting for ALS intercept, and apply a cool mist or aerosol therapy (apply ice pack to throat if no mister is available). 24 injuries soft-tissue What are occlusive dressings? These are dressing made of vaseline gauze, aluminium foil, or plastic, which prevent air and liquids from entering or exiting the wound. They are used to cover sucking chest wounds, abdominal eviscerations, and neck injuries. 24 injuries soft-tissue Why should you always check a limb distal to a bandage for circulation? You should do this because any improperly applied bandage that impairs circulation can result in additional tissue damage or even the loss of a limb. 24 injuries soft-tissue What should you never do just because a patients skin is not cherry red? In this situation, you should never rule out CO intoxication. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is HCN? This is hydrogen cyanide; it is colorless and has the smell of bitter almonds. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are the signs and symptoms of HCN poisoning? Signs and symptoms of this involve the central nervous, respiratory, and cardiovascular systems of the body, and include faintness, anxiety, abnormal vital signs, headache, seizures, paralysis, and coma. 24 injuries soft-tissue Since 1944, how many significant radiation exposures  involving more than 3,000 people have there been? There have been more than 400 of these incidents since 1944. 24 injuries soft-tissue What are the three types of ionizing radiation? These are:
1) Alpha
2) Beta
3) Gamma
24 injuries soft-tissue What can block beta radiation? Simple protective clothing designed for this task can stop this form of radiation. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is radiation measured in? It is measured in absorbed dose (rad), aka R.adiation E.quivalent in M.an (r.e.m.) 24 injuries soft-tissue How many rad equal 1 gray (Gy)? 100 rad equals this. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the average human exposure from background radiation per year? This is 0.36 rem 24 injuries soft-tissue At what level can mild radiation sickness be expected? This can be expected at exposure between 1 and 2 Gy. 24 injuries soft-tissue At what level can moderate radiation sickness be expected? This can be expected at exposure between 2 and 5 Gy. 24 injuries soft-tissue At what level can severe radiation sickness be expected? This can be expected at exposure between 4 and 6 Gy. 24 injuries soft-tissue What happens when exposed to more than 8 Gy of radiation? This level of exposure is immedaitely fatal. 24 injuries soft-tissue How should you manage radiation burns? In this situation, make sure the patient is decontaminated (ie no debris); irrigate open wounds; antidotes may help bind an isotopem enhance its elimination from the body, or reduce the toxic effects on other organs. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is the most common cause of shock following trauma? Bleeding is the most common cause of this after trauma. 23 bleeding How long can cells in the brain, spinal column, and heart live without blood? These can only survive for no more than a few minutes without blood. 23 bleeding How long can cells in organs such as the kidneys and lungs survive without blood? These cells can survive for almost an hour without blood. 23 bleeding How long can skeletal muscle cells survive without blood? These can survive for 2 hours without blood. 23 bleeding What are the 3 main parts of the cardiovascular system? These 3 parts are:
1) The pump (heart)
2) Containers (blood vessels that reach every cell in the body)
3) Fluid (Blood and body fluids)
23 bleeding What does the heart and its muscles absolutely need at all times to function? This requires a rich and well-dsitributed blood supply to function. 23 bleeding From where does blood enter the right atrium? Blood enters here from the vena cava. 23 bleeding Where does the blood go as the right ventricle contracts? From there, the blood flows into the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary circulation. 23 bleeding Through what does oxygenated blood return to the left atrium? The blood returns to here through the pulmonary veins. 23 bleeding Why is the left side of the heart more muscular than the right? This side of the heart is more muscular because it must pump blood into the aorta and on to the arteries throughout the body. 23 bleeding Which chamber is responsible for providing 100% of the body with oxygen-rich blood? The left ventricle is responsible for all of this. 23 bleeding What are the five types of blood vessels? These are:
1) Arteries
2) Arterioles
3) Capillaries
4) Venules
5) Veins
23 bleeding Where does blood pass into as it leaves the left ventricle? It passes into the aorta, the largest artery in the body. 23 bleeding What are arterioles? These are smaller vessels that connect the arteries and capillaries. 23 bleeding What are capillaries? These are small tubes, with the diamter of a single red blood cell, that pass among all the cells in the body, linking the arterioles and the venules. 23 bleeding What are venules? These are small, thin-walled vessels that connect the capillaries with the veins. 23 bleeding What are veins? These are blood vessels that return blood to the heart (usually through the vena cava) 23 bleeding What are platelets? These are found in the blood and are responsible for forming blood clots. 23 bleeding What is fibrinogen? This is a substance in the body that reinforces clumping red blood cells, helping to form a clot. 23 bleeding What is one thing the autonomic nervous system does during emergencies? This automatically redirects blood away from other organs to the heart, brain, lungs, and kidneys. 23 bleeding How fast must blood pass through the cardiovascular system? This must pass through the system at a speed that is fast enough to maintain adequate circulation throughout the body and slow enough to allow each cell time to exchange oxygen and nutrients for carbon dioxide and other waste products. 23 bleeding When does one require a minimal blood supply? When one is asleep is a good example of this. 23 bleeding When does the gastrointestinal tract require a high flow of blood? It requires a high flow after a meal. 23 bleeding When may an organ or tissue be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion? In this situation, considerably colder temperatures may help resist damage. 23 bleeding What is hemorrhage? This another word for bleeding. 23 bleeding What are some signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock? These signs include:
Rapid, weak pulse;
Changes in mental status (AMS);
Cool, clammy skin;
cyanosis;
low blood pressure (late sign).
23 bleeding Up to what percentage of total blood volume loss can the body tolerate? The body can not tolerate an acute loss of this greater than 20%. 23 bleeding How much blood does the average person have per kilogram of body weight? The average person has 70ml of this per kilogram. 23 bleeding Appromixately how much blood does a person weighing 80 kg (175 lbs.) have A person weighing this much has approximately 6 L (10-12 pints) of blood. 23 bleeding At what level of blood loss will a typical adult experience significant changes in vital signs, including increasing heart rate, increasing respiratory rates, and decreasing blood pressure? A typical adult will experience these changes if they lose more than 1 L (2 pints) of blood. 23 bleeding How much total blood volume does a 1 year old infant have? They have a total blood volume of only 800 mL. 23 bleeding At what level of blood loss will significant symptoms appear in 1 year old infants? Significant symptoms will occur in them after only 100 to 200 mL of blood loss (a soft drink can holds 355 mL) 23 bleeding How much is 1 unit of blood? This is 500 mL of blood. 23 bleeding What are the characteristics of arterial bleeding? Typically, this kind of bleeding results in brighter red blood (high in oxygen) and spurts in time with the pulse. 23 bleeding What are the characteristics of venous bleeding? This kind of bleeding results in blood that is darker (lower in oxygen) and flows slowly or severely, depending on the size. 23 bleeding On its own, how quickly does manageable bleeding stop itself? On its own, internal mechanisms can stop this within about 10 minutes. 23 bleeding What is vasoconstriction? This is a narrowing of blood vessels, a possible response to bleeding. 23 bleeding What is coagulation? This is a process whereby clots form and seal injured portions of the blood vessel. 23 bleeding What can interfere with clotting? A number of medications, including aspirin, can interfere with this. 23 bleeding What is one common cause of severe internal blood loss? Broken bones, and especially broken ribs, may cause this. 23 bleeding What can easily result in the loss of 1 L or more of internal bleeding? A broken femur can result in this amount of internal bleeding into the thigh. 23 bleeding What are some of the only signs of internal bleeding? Sometimes the only signs of this are local swelling and bruising. 23 bleeding What is one way to assist the body's clotting process? Keeping the patient's body as still and quiet as possible will aid in this process. 23 bleeding At least how long should you hold uninterrupted pressure on an external wound to stop the bleeding? You should hold uninterrupted pressure here for at least 5 minutes. 23 bleeding What are some methods to control external bleeding? These methods are:
Direct, even pressure and elevation;
pressure dressings and/or splints;
tourniquets
23 bleeding What blood pressure should alert you to the presence of hypoperfusion? A systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mm Hg with a weak, rapid pulse should suggest this to you. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a fall from a ladder striking the head? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head injury and hematoma. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a fall from a ladder striking the extremities? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are possible fractures or the possibility of chest injury 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a child struck by a car? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head trauma, chest and abdominal pain, or leg fractures. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a fall on an outstreched arm? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are possible broken bones or joint injury. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a child thrown or falling from a great height? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head injury, owing to their top-heaviness. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an unrestrained driver in a head-on collision? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head and neck, chest, abdomen injuries, as well as knee, femur, hip, and pelvis injuries. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an unrestrained front-seat passenger in a side impact collision with intrusion into the vehicle? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are broken humeruses exposing the chest wall (possible flail chest) and pelvis and acetabulum injuries. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an unrestrained driver crushed against the steering column? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are chest and abdomen injuries, ruptured spleen, and neck trauma. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a bike injury? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are fractured clavicles, road rash, and head trauma (esp. if not helmet is present). 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an abrupt motorcycle stop? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are fractured femur and head and neck injuries. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for diving into the shallow end of a swimming pool? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head and neck injuries. 23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an assault or fight?
A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are punching or kicking injury to the chest, the abdomen, or the face.
23 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a blast or explosive?
A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are injury from direct strike with debris, indirect and pressure wave in enclosed space; external injuries are dependent upon the anatomic area of the body injured. Internally, air-containing organs such as the middle of the ears and lungs are the most susceptible to injury.
23 bleeding What is a good rule of thumb when entering a scene where you suspect there are multiple patients with bleeding? In a situation such as this, place several pairs of gloves in your pocket for easy access. 23 bleeding What is hemoptysis? This is the coughing up of bright red blood. 23 bleeding What are the later signs of hypoperfusion that suggest internal bleeding? These signs include:
tachycardia;
weakness, fainting, or dizziness at rest;
thirst;
nausea and vomiting;
cold, moist skin;
shallow, rapid breathing;
dull eyes;
slightly dilated pupils that are slow to respond to light;
capillary refill of more than 2 seconds infants and children;
weak, rapid pulse;
decreasing blood pressure;
altered level of consciousness.
23 bleeding What is hematemesis? This is vomited blood. 23 bleeding What is melena? This is a black, tarry stool that contains digested blood. 23 bleeding What are some of the common causes of nontraumatic internal bleeding? These include bleeding ulcers, bleeding from the colon, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, and aneurysms. 23 bleeding What are some possible signs of internal bleeding? These include abdominal tenderness, guarding, rigidity, pain, and distention. 23 bleeding What is the second leading cause of trauma death in the United States? Penetrating trauma is the second leading cause of this in the United States. 22 trauma What is a proijectile's trajectory? This is the path the projectile takes, and may be difficult to determine, as medium and high-velocity projectiles may flatten out, tumble, or even ricochet within the body. 22 trauma What is temporary cavitation? This is caused by the acceleration of the bullet and causes a streching of the tissues. 22 trauma What is permanent cavitation? This is caused by the bullet path and remains once the projectile has passed through the tissue. 22 trauma What is drag? This is another term for air resistance, and over distance will slow the projectile, decreasing the depth of penetration and thus reducing damage to the tissues. 22 trauma What is one reason that exit wounds are often many times larger than entrance wounds? One reason for this is that, much like a boat moving through water, the bullet disrupts not only the tissues that are directly in its path but also those in the wake. 22 trauma The abdomen contains organs from which systems? This contains the organs for the digestive, urinary, and genitourinary systems.  28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What percentage of all significant trauma involves the abdomen? Eight percent of all significant trauma involves this. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What percentage of all trauma patients have some form of genitourinary tract injury? 10% to 20% of all trauma patients have some form of this. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What organs are commonly found in the upper right quadrant? The liver, gallbladder, duodenum, and a small portion of the pancreas are commonly found here. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What organs are commonly found in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen? The stomach and the spleen are commonly found here. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What organs are commonly found in the lower left quadrant? The descending colon, part of the transverse colon, and parts of the small intestine are commonly found here. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What organs are commonly found in the lower right quadrant? The distal end of the large intestines (aka the appendix), the ascending large intestines, and part of the small intestines are commonly found here, 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the peritoneal cavity? This is another name for the abdominal cavity. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are the three parts of the large intestines? The three parts of this are the cecum, the colon, and the rectum. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the intestinal mesentery? This is a fold of tissue that contains a web of vessels, both arteries and veins, as well as nerves and lymphatic tissues, that connects the small intestines to the posterior of the abdominal wall. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the Cullen sign? This is periumbilical ecchymosis. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is found in the retroperitoneal region? The kidneys, bladder, ureters, a majority of the pancreas, the last portion of the colon, as well as the abdominal aorta and the inferior vena cava are found here. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are closed abdominal injuries? These are in juries in which blunt force trauma results in injury to the abdomen without breaking the skin. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are some common MOI for closed abdominal injuries? Common MOI for this include:
Motorcycle collisions
Falls
Blast injuries
Pedestrian injuries
Compression
Deceleration
28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is a clasp-knife injury? This is a pattern of compression injury that is caused by a poorly placed lap belt. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries Why can pain in the abdomen frequently be deceiving? In the abdomen, this can be deceiving because it is often diffuse in nature and may be referred from the site of injury to another location in the body. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the Kehr sign? This is often found in patients with liver and spleen injuries, in whom there is bleeding into the peritoneal space; pain is referred to the shoulder. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries When a patient reports pain that is tearing and reports it as going from the abdomen posteriorly, what is a frequent cause? If the patient is reporting this kind of pain, he or she is often describing symptoms of an abdominal aneurysm that is undergoing dissection. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is a possible cause of pain that is following the angle from the lateral hip to the midline of the groin? This kind of pain may be a result of damage to the kidneys or the ureters. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What can pain located in the lower right quadrant indicate? This kind of pain can indicate an inflamed or ruptured appendix. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries Where can pain from an injured or inflammed gallbladder be found? Pain from this can be found just under the margin of the ribs on the right side or between the shoulder blades. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is guarding? This is intentional or unintentional stiffening of the abdomen muscles, most often the rectus abdominis muscles. This is a natural attempt to splint the area to prevent unnecessary movement. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is often the cause of abdominal distention or swelling between the xiphoid process and the groin? The cause of this is often free fluid, blood, or organ contents spilling into the peritoneal cavity. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries How long might it take for the contusions or hematomas of a closed abdominal injury to become present on the surface? It might take several minutes to hours after the injury for these to become present on the surface. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries Where should a seatbelt properly be worn on the body? This should be worn below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is a concern for women in the later stages of pregnancy regarding seatbelts? For these patients, the gravid uterus has displaced the bladder to the anterior. This anatomic change allows the normally protected bladder to become more susceptible to injuries from impacts and the seatbelt. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are open abdominal injuries? These are injuries in which a foreign object enters the abdomen and opens the peritoneal cavity to the outside; they are also known as penetrating injuries. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are some observations to make for hospital personnel regarding vehicle accidents? In these situations, be thorough in documenting whether the airbags deployed and the condition of the exterior and steering column. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are the 3 kinds of open abdominal injuries? The three kinds of this are:
Low-velocity injuries (knives)
Medium-velocity injuries (low-caliber handguns and shotguns)
High-velocity injuries (high-powered rifles and handguns)
28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What should you assume anytime you have a patient with an injury at or below the xiphoid process? Anytime you have a patient with this, you should assume that the thoracic and peritoneal cavity have both been violated. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is one very common sign of significant abdominal injury? One very common sign of this is tachycardia, because the heart is increasing its pumping action to compensate for blood loss. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are flanks? These are the posterior region below the lower margin of the rib cage. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is Gary Turner sign, and what may it suggest? This is bruising in the upper right quadrant, left lower quadrant, or flank, and may suggest injury to the liver, spleen, or kidney, respectively. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What can air in the peritoneal cavity cause? This can produce pain, irritate the tissues it contacts and can cause tissue ischemia and infarction. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What will air in the peritoneal cavity typically do when a patient changes position? This seeks the most superior space or void, and thus will change position as a patient it re-positioned. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the largest organ in the abdomen? This is the liver. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries When is the spleen often injured? This is often injured during motor vehicle collisions (especially in the cases of improperly placed seatbelts or from steering wheels) falls from heights or onto sharp objects, and bicycle and motorcycle accidents where the patient hits the handlebars on impact. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are dysbarism injuries? These are the signs and symptoms related to changes in barometric pressure. 30 emergencies environmental At what age do infants gain the ability to shiver in order to regulare their temperature at birth? Infants do no gain this ability until about 12 to 18 months of age. 30 emergencies environmental Why are the elderly frequently cold? They are frequently in this condition because they have lost subcutaneous tissues, reducing the amount of insulation they have. 30 emergencies environmental What is an important catalyst for much of our body's metabolism? Water is an important catalyst for this. 30 emergencies environmental At what temperature do many hypothermia cases occur? Many of these cases occur at temperatures between 30 and 50 F. 30 emergencies environmental At what temperature do most heat stroke cases occur? Most of these cases occur when the temperature is 80 F and humidity is 80%. 30 emergencies environmental What is hypothermia? This condition is when the entire (core) body temperature falls. 30 emergencies environmental What are the five ways the body loses heat? They are:
Conduction
Convection
Evaporation
Radiation
Respiration
30 emergencies environmental What is conduction? This is the direct transfer of heat from one part of the body to a colder object by direct contact; heat passes directly from the body to the colder object. 30 emergencies environmental What is convection? This occurs when heat is transferred to ciculating air, such as when cool air moves across the body surface. 30 emergencies environmental What is evaporation? This is the conversion of any liquid to a gas, a process that requires energy, or heat. 30 emergencies environmental What is radiation? This is the transfer of heat by radiant energy, a type of invisible light that transfers heat. 30 emergencies environmental What three ways can modify the rate and amount of heat loss or gain by the body? These three are:
Increase or decrease heat production (shivering or movement)
Move to an area where heat loss is decreased or increased
Wear insulated clothing
What kind of clothes provide good insulation? Layers of clothes that trap air, as well as wool, down, and synthetic fabrics that have small pockets of trapped air are good for this. 30 emergencies environmental What is core temperature? This is the temperature of the heart, lungs, and vital organs. 30 emergencies environmental What does the body normally do to protect itself against heat loss? The body normally constricts blood vessels in the skin to protect against this, resulting in the appearance of blue lips and/or fingertips. 30 emergencies environmental How should you assess a patient's general temperature? To do this, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on the patient's skin at the abdomen. 30 emergencies environmental What are the characteristics of mild hypothermia (93 to 95° Fahrenheit / 34 to 35° Celsius)? At this stage, shivering and foot stamping occurs; vasoconstriction and tachycardia are common responses; and patient appears withdrawn. 30 emergencies environmental What are the characteristics of moderate hypothermia (89 to 92F/ 32 to 33C)? At this stage, loss of coordination and muscle stiffness presents; respiration and pulse slows; and patient appears confused and lethargic. 30 emergencies environmental What are the characteristics of severe hypothermia (80 to 88F/ 27 to 31C)? Patient is comatose and unresponsive; pulse is weak, respirations are very slow, and arrhythmias are present; cardiac arrest likely. 30 emergencies environmental What is frostnip? This is when exposed parts of the body become very cold but not frozen. 30 emergencies environmental What are some factors to consider in determing the severity of a local cold injury? Some underlying factors to consider include:
Exposure to wet conditions
Inadequate insulation from cold or wind
restricted circulation from tight clothing or shoes or ciculatory disease
Fatigue
Poor nutrition
Alcohol or drug abuse
Hypothermia
Diabetes
Cardiovascular disease
Older age
30 emergencies environmental What is immersion foot? This is also called trench foot, and occurs after prolonged exposure to cold water. 30 emergencies environmental What are some possible mechanisms of damage from frostbite? Though the exact causes are not known, the presence of ice crystals within the cells may cause physical damage, or the change in the water content may change the concentration of electrolytes. 30 emergencies environmental What is gangrene? This is cell death, and may require amputation. 30 emergencies environmental What are some signs and symptoms of frostbite? Signs and symptoms of this are:
Hard or waxy tissue
Red, purple, white, mottled or cyanotic skin
30 emergencies environmental What is the difference between superficial and deep frostbite? In the second, more serious condition, the deeper tissues are frozen as well. Note that you will be unable to tell the difference in the field; even an experienced surgeon in a hospital setting may not be able to tell until several days have gone by. 30 emergencies environmental What kind of oxygen (if available) should you use on patients with hypothermia. If available, use warmed and humidified oxygen in this situation. 30 emergencies environmental Why might pulse oximetry often be inaccurate with hypothermic patients? Pulse oximetry will often be inaccurate in these kinds of patients due to the lack of perfusion in the extremities. 30 emergencies environmental What kind of clothing should you never remove from a patient's skin. Never remove this if it's frozen to their skin. 30 emergencies environmental What should you not allow hypothermic patients to do when treating them? With these patients, you should not allow the patients to eat, use any stimulants, such as coffee, tea, or cola, or to smoke or chew tobacco. Do not message the extremities. 30 emergencies environmental What can you do to patients with mild cases of hypothermia? In this situation, you can give warm fluids by mouth, assuming that the patient can swallow without a problem. 30 emergencies environmental What should you never do with patients with moderate or severe hypothermia? In these cases, you should never try to actively rewarm the patients, as this may cause a fatal cardiac arrhythmia that requires defibrillation. For this reason, passive rewarming is also best delivered at an appropriate facility. 30 emergencies environmental What should you do if prompt hospital care is not available and medical control instructs you to begin rewarming a hypothermic or frostbitten patient in the field? In this situation, use a warm-water bath with a temperature of between 100 and 105F (38 and 40.5C). 30 emergencies environmental What is ambient temperature? This is the temperature of the surrounding environment. 30 emergencies environmental What is hyperthermia? This is a high core body temperature, usually 101F (38.3 C) or higher. 30 emergencies environmental How much water should a person drink a day when exertion or heat is involved? In this situation, a person should consume 3 L of water. 30 emergencies environmental During vigorous exercise, how much sweat can lose an hour? During this situation, the body can lose more than 1 L sweat 30 emergencies environmental What are the three forms of illness from heat exposure? The three forms are:
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion
Heatstroke
30 emergencies environmental Who are the persons at greatest risk for heat illnesses? The people at greatest risk for these are:
Geriatric patients,
Newborns,
Infants,
patients with heart disease,
C.O.P.D.,
Diabetes,
Dehydration,
Obesity,
and patients with limited mobility.
30 emergencies environmental What are heat cramps? These are painful muscle spasms that occur after vigorous exercise. Their exact cause is not understood, and may be related to a loss of essential electrolytes from the cells. 30 emergencies environmental What should you suspect with a patient with a sudden onset of abdominal cramps? In this situation, you should suspect heat cramps. 30 emergencies environmental What is heat exhaustion? This is the most common serious illness caused by heat, and is also called heat prostration; it is caused by hypovolemia as the result of the loss of water and electrolytes from heavy sweating. 30 emergencies environmental What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Dizziness
Weakness
Fainting
Muscle cramping
Nausea and vomiting
Headache
Cold, clammy skin with ashen pallor
Dry tongue and thirst
Rapid and weak pulse
Low diastolic blood pressure
30 emergencies environmental What is heatstroke? This is the least common but most serious illness caused by heat exposure. It occurs when the body is subjected to more heat than it can handle and normal mechanisms are overwhelmed. Untreated, it always results in death. 30 emergencies environmental What are some signs and symptoms of heat stroke? Some signs and symptoms of this are:
A body temperature that may rise to 106F (41C)
A patient CAN still be sweating
A change in behavior
Decreasing consciousness, followed by unconsciousness
Increased respiratory rate.
30 emergencies environmental Can you treat heat cramps with hydration? In this situation, you can treat with water or a diluted elctrolyte solution. 30 emergencies environmental What does moist, pale, cool skin indicate? This indicates excessive fluid and salt loss. 30 emergencies environmental What does hot, dry or hot, moist skin indicate? This indicates that the body is unable to regulate core temperature. 30 emergencies environmental What are some examples of non-ionized radiation? Some examples of this are cell phones, microwave ovens, and UV sunlight. 30 emergencies environmental How long can it take for sunlight to burn unprotected skin? This can burn in as little as 30 minutes. 30 emergencies environmental What is drowning? This is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion/immersion in liquid. 30 emergencies environmental According to the CDC, how many unintentional drownings occur a day? According to the CDC, 10 of these occur per day. 30 emergencies environmental What percentage of drownings are children younger than 14? 25% of these are younger than 14. 30 emergencies environmental What is laryngospasm? This occurs when very small amounts of either fresh or salt water can severely irritate the larynx. 30 emergencies environmental In what percentage of drowning cases is there significant amounts of water in the lungs of the victim? In these situations, 85% to 90% of cases have these. 30 emergencies environmental When should you assume a drowning patient has a spinal injury? You should assume this when:
The submersion has resulted from a diving mishap or long fall.
The patient is unconscious, and no information is available to rule out the possibility of a mechanism causing neck injury.
The patient is conscious but complains of weakness, paralysis, or numbness in the arms or legs.
You suspect the possibility of spinal injury despite what witnesses say.
30 emergencies environmental What does SCUBA stand for? This stands for Self-contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus. 30 emergencies environmental How do you stabilize a suspected spinal injury in water? In order to do this:
1. Turn the patient supine (always roate the entire upper half of the body as a single unit)
2. Restore the airway and begin ventilation
3. Float a buoyant back board under the patient as you continue ventilation.
4. Secure the trunk and head to the backboard to eliminate motion of the cervical spine. Do not remove the patient from the water until this is done.
5. Remove the patient from the water on the backboard.
6. Cover the patient with a blanket, give oxygen or initiate CPR depending on pulse and breath.
30 emergencies environmental When should you give up on resuscitating a cold-water victim? You should never do this. When a person is submerged in water that is colder than body temperature, heat will be conducted from the body to the water. The resulting hypothermia can protect vital organs from the lack of oxygen. 30 emergencies environmental What is the diving reflex? This is a slowing of the heart rate caused by submersion in cold water, and may cause immediate bradycardia. Loss of consciousness and drowning may occur; however, due to the slower metabolic rate, the patient may be able to survive for an extended period of time. 30 emergencies environmental What are descent emergencies? These are usually caused by the sudden increase in pressure on the body as the person dives deeper into the water. The usual areas affected are the lungs, the sinus cavities, the middle ear, the teeth, and the area of the face surrounded by the diving mask. 30 emergencies environmental What is a special concern for a diver with a perforated tympanic membrane? If cold water enters the middle ear through this, the diver may lose his or her balance and orientation. 30 emergencies environmental What are two particularly dangerous medical emergencies that result from ascent emergencies? "These are air embolisms and decompression sickness (aka ""the bends"")." 30 emergencies environmental What is an air embolism? This is a condition involving bubbles of air in the blood vessels. They can occur on a dive as shallow as 6'. The problem starts when the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. The air pressure in the lungs remains at a high level while the external pressure on the chest decreases. As a result, the air inside the lungs expand rapidly, causing the alveoli in the lungs to rupture. 30 emergencies environmental What injuries can result from a scuba air embolism? The following injuries can result from this condition:
Air may enter the pleural space and compress the lungs (pneumothorax)
Air may enter the mediastinum
Air may enter the bloodstream and create bubbles of air in the vessels called air emboli.
30 emergencies environmental What is the mediastinum? This is the space within the thorax that contains the heart and great vessels. 30 emergencies environmental What are the signs and symptoms of an air embolism? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Blotching (mottling of the skin)
Froth at the nose and mouth
Severe pain in muscles, joints, or abdomen
Dyspnea and/or chest pain
Dizziness, nausea, and vomiting
Dysphasia (difficulty speaking)
Cough
Cyanosis
Difficulty with vision
Paralysis and/or coma
Irregular pulse and even cardiac arrest
30 emergencies environmental What is decompression sickness (aka the bends)? This occurs when bubbles of gas, especially nitrogen, obstruct the blood vessels. It results from too rapid an ascent from a dive, too long of a dive at too deep a depth, or repeated dives on the same day without the proper time intervals. During the dive, nitrogen that is being breathed dissolves in the blood and tissues because it is under pressure. When the diver ascends, the external pressure is decreased, and the dissolved nitrogen forms small bubbles within those tissues. 30 emergencies environmental What is the most striking symptom regarding decompression sickness? "The most striking symptom of this is joint pain so severe that the patient literally doubles up, or ""bends""." 30 emergencies environmental What is a danger to consider regarding decompression sickness? "In this case, even after a ""safe dive"", this can occur from driving up a mountain or flying in an unpressurized plane. The risk of this diminishes after 24 to 48 hours." 30 emergencies environmental What is the general rule regarding air embolism and decompression sickness? As a general rule, the first occurs immediately on return to the surface, the second may not occur for several hours. However, the emergency is the same for both: BLS, then recompression in a hyperbaric chamber. 30 emergencies environmental What position should you place a conscious patient you suspect of having an air embolism or decompression sickness? In this situation, you should place the patient in a left lateral recumbent position with their head down. 30 emergencies environmental What is breath-holding syncope? This is a loss of consciousness caused by a decreased stimulus for breathing. This happens to swimmers who breathe in and out rapidly and deeply before entering the water in an effort to expand their capacity to stay underwater. Whereas this technique increases the swimmer's oxygen level, the hyperventilation involved lowers the carbon dioxide level. Because an elevated level of carbon dioxide in the blood is the strongest stimulus for breathing, the swimmer may not feel the need to breathe even after using up all the oxygen in his or her lungs. 30 emergencies environmental What are the 3 kinds of high altitude sickness? These are:
1) Acute mountain sickness
2) High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)
3) High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)
30 emergencies environmental What is acute mountain sickness? This is caused by diminished oxygen pressure in the air at altitudes above 8,000', resulting in hypoxia. It strikes those who ascend too fast and those not acclimated to high altitudes. 30 emergencies environmental What are the signs and symptoms of acute mountain sickness? The signs and symptoms of this include a headache, lightheadedness, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, difficulty sleeping, shortness of breath, and swollen face. 30 emergencies environmental What is HAPE (high-altitude pulmonary edema)? With this, fluid collects in the lungs, hindering the passage of oxygen in the bloodstream. It can occur at altitudes of 10,000'. 30 emergencies environmental What are the signs and symptoms of HAPE? The signs and symptoms of this include:
Shortness of breath
Cough with pink sputum
Cyanosis
and a rapid pulse
30 emergencies environmental What is HACE (high-altitude cerebral edema)? This occurs in climbers who climb above 12,000'. It may accompany HAPE and can quickly become life threatening. 30 emergencies environmental What are the signs and symptoms of HACE? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Severe, constantly throbbing headache
Ataxia (lack of muscle coordination)
Extreme fatigue
Vomiting
Loss of consciousness
30 emergencies environmental How should you treat high altitude sickness? Treatment for this consists of providing oxygen, descending from height, and transport. 30 emergencies environmental According to the National Weather Service, how many cloud-to-ground lightning flashes are there in the US each year? There are 25 million of these each year according to the National Weather Service. 30 emergencies environmental How many documented deaths from lightning strikes are there annually in the US? This causes 60-70 documented deaths in the United States annually. 30 emergencies environmental How many documented injuries from lightning are reported in the US every year? There are about 300 of these reported each year in the US. 30 emergencies environmental What is the 3rd most common cause of death from isolated environmental phenomena? This is lightning. 30 emergencies environmental What degree of energy is typically found in lightning? This has a direct current of up to 200,000 volts and a potential of 100 million volts or more. Temperatures generated vary between 20,000 and 60,000 F. 30 emergencies environmental What are the three catagories of lightning injuries? The three catagories are:
1) Mild (loss of consciousness, amnesia, confusion, tingling, superficial burns)
2) Moderate (seizures, respiratory arrest, cardiac asystole that spontaneously resolves, superficial burns
3) Severe (cardiopulmonary arrest; survival rare)
30 emergencies environmental What is a sure sign of an immenent lightning strike, and what should you do to prevent being hit? If you suddenly feel a tingling sensation or your hair standing on end, make yourself as small as possible by squatting down into a ball, close to but not touching the ground. 30 emergencies environmental What is reverse triage? This process differs from conventional triage, which emphasizes treating patients not in cardiac arrest. Here, you should focus your efforts on those who are in respiratory or cardiac arrest. 30 emergencies environmental What may occur following a massive direct current shock? This can cause tetany (massive muscle spasms) that can result in fractures of long bones and spinal vertebrae. Therefore, always use the jaw-thrust maneuver. 30 emergencies environmental What is the black widow spider? "This spider's latin name is Latrodectus hesperus/mactans/variolus (depending on region), and the female measures approx. 2"" long. It is usually black and has a distinctive, bright red-orange marking in the shape of an hourglass on its abdomen. The female is larger and more toxic than the male. They are found in every state except Alaska." 30 emergencies environmental What are the effects of a black widow spider bite? Most of these bites cause localized pain and symptoms, including agonizing muscle spasms. In some cases, a bite on the abdomen cause muscle spasms so severe that the patient may be thought to have an acute abdominal condition, possibly peritonitis. The venom is a neurotoxic (damages to nerve tissues). Other symptoms include dizziness, sweating, nausea, vomiting, and rashes. These signs and symptoms generally subside over 48 hours. 30 emergencies environmental What is an antivenim? This is a serum containing antibodies that counteract the venom. 30 emergencies environmental How are black widow spider bites usually treated? For very severe bites, the aged or feeble, or children younger than five, the antivenim is used. Severe muscle spasms are usually treated with IV benzodiazepines. In field and if time permits, apply an ice pack to the bite area and clean the wound with soap and water. 30 emergencies environmental What is the brown recluse spider? "This spider's Latin name is loxosceles reclusa. It is dull brown and 1"" in diamter. It has a violin-shaped mark on its back. They can be found throughout the US. Its venom is cytotoxic, which means it causes local tissue damage. Bites become swollen and painful within hours." 30 emergencies environmental What are hymentoptera? This term refers to bees, wasps, ants, and yellow jackets. 30 emergencies environmental How many spider bites occur each year around the world? There are 300,000 of these in the world annually. 30 emergencies environmental How many deaths are caused by spider bites in the world annually? There are over 30 to 40,000 deaths annually attributed to this throughout the world. 30 emergencies environmental How many snakebite fatalities are reported in Southeast Asia and India each year? There are 25,000 to 30,000 of these reported each year in SE Asia and India. 30 emergencies environmental How many snakebite fatalities are reported in South America each year? There are 3 to 4,000 of these reported each year in South America. 30 emergencies environmental How many snakebites are reported annually in the States? There are 40 to 50,000 reported each year in the States. 30 emergencies environmental How many snakebite fatalities are reported in the US each year? There are 15 of these reported in the US every year. 30 emergencies environmental How many snake species are in the US, and how many are poisonous? There are 115 of these, though only 19 are poisonous. 30 emergencies environmental What is the science name for rattlesnakes? This is Crotalus. 30 emergencies environmental What is the latin name for copperheads? This is Agkistrodon contortrix. 30 emergencies environmental What is a latin name for water moccasins? This is Agkistrodon piscivorus. 30 emergencies environmental What states have major concentrations of snake bites? These states are Louisiana, Georgia, Oklahoma, North Carolina, Arkansas, West Virginia, and Mississippi. 30 emergencies environmental Why do only a third of snake bites result in significant local or systemic injuries? This is because envenomation does not always occur, as the snake has only a finite supply of venom. 30 emergencies environmental What are pit vipers? These are venomous snakes, including rattlesnakes, copperheads, and cottonmouths, that take their name from the small heat-sensing pits located just behind each nostril and in front of each eye. 30 emergencies environmental What are the physical features of rattlesnakes? These have colored diamond patterns, and can grow to 6' or more. 30 emergencies environmental What are the physical features of copperheads? These are smaller than rattlesnakes, 2' to 3' long, typically reddish coppery brown with brown or red bands. Their venom is rarely fatal; it is, however, capable of destroying extremities. 30 emergencies environmental What are the physical features of cottonmouths? These grow to about 4' in length, olive or brown with black cross-bands. Fatalities are rare, but tissue destruction may be severe. 30 emergencies environmental What are the signs of envenomation? The signs of this are:
Severe burning pain at the site
Ecchymosis
Signs are evident 5 to 10 minutes after the unjury and spread over the next 36 hours
Distal bleeding (venom interferes with clotting mechanisms)
Weakness
Vomiting and Nausea
Seizures
Fainting
Shock
30 emergencies environmental How should you treat a pit viper bite? "To treat this type of injury:
1) Calm the patient (remind them that snake bites are rarely fatal) and place them in a supine position
2) Locate the bite area and clean with a mild antiseptic (no ice); Place a constricting band 4"" to 6"" above the wound if the patient is hypotensive.
3) Place the extremity below the level of the heart
" 30 emergencies environmental What are coral snakes? These are small reptiles with red, yellow, and black bands. Their venom is highly toxic that causes paralysis of the nervous system. 30 emergencies environmental Which species of scorpion in the US is dangerous to humans? This is the Centruroides sculpturatus, A.K.A., the Arizona bark scorpion. It is the most venomous scorpion in North America, and its venom can cause severe pain, typically lasting 24 to 72 hours. Symptoms in extreme reactions include numbness, frothing at the mouth, paralysis, and what may be confused as a seizure that makes breathing difficult. Fatalities are generally limited to children, the elderly, immuno-surpressed patients, and pets. 30 emergencies environmental What are the symptoms of a Centruroides sculpturatus sting? The symptoms for this are: circulatory collapse, severe muscle contractions, excessive salivation, hypertension, convulsions, and cardiac failure. 30 emergencies environmental What are the symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Symptoms of this include nausea, vomiting, headache, weakness, paralysis, and possible cardiorespiratory failure. 30 emergencies environmental How long does it take for transmission of an infection from a tick to the host? This transmission takes 12 hours. 30 emergencies environmental What are coelenterates? These invertebrate animals include fire coral, Protuguese man-of-war, sea wasp, sea nettles, true jellyfish, sea anemones, true coral, and soft coral. They are responsible for more envenomations than any other marine animals. Their stinging cells are called nemocysts. 30 emergencies environmental What are common symptoms of nemocystic envenomation? Symptoms of this include:
headache
dizziness
muscle cramps
fainting
30 emergencies environmental How should you treat coelenterate envenomation? To treat this:
1) Keep the patient calm and reduce movement
2) Inactive the nemocysts with vinegar for at least 30 seconds, or isopropyl alcohol if vinegar is not available
3) Remove any remaining tentacles by scraping them off with the edge of a credit card or similar item.
4) Transport
30 emergencies environmental What is normal human body temperature? This is 98.6 F (37 C). 30 emergencies environmental What can happen if the diaphragm is penetrated or ruptured? If this happens, loops of bowel are likely to invade the thoracic cavity and can cause bowel sounds to be present during auscultation of the lungs. Patients will exhibit dyspnea. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is hematuria, and what might it indicate? This is blood in the urine, and may indicate the kidneys are injured. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What does blood on the urinary meatus indicate? This indicates significant trauma to the genitourinary system. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the urinary meatus? This is the opening in the urethra, situated on the glans penis in males and in the vulva in females. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is something to remember in pediatric patients regarding abdominal injury? In this situation, remember that the rib cage is so flexible that the chest can be flattened alsmot to the spine before rib fractures occur; the ribs then recoil to their normal position, and the patient is left with very few outward signs that an injury has occurred. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What can you do with patients with abdominal pain without suspected spinal injury to help alleviate pain? With these patients, you can allow the patient to stay in a position of comfort - with legs pulled up toward the abdomen. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What should you do for patients with abdominal pain who you suspect of spinal injury to alleviate pain? With these patients, place padding such as blankets or pillows under the patient's knees to help alleviate tension on the abdominal wall. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are axillae? These are armpits. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What should you report if you can't hear bowel sounds? "You should report that they are ""hypoactive""." 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries When you begin palpating the abdominal region, what should you remember to do? When you start this, remember to start palpating the quadrant farthest away from the quadrant that is exhibiting pain. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries Where are the kidneys located? These are located in the flank region of the back. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What may a patient who has a ruptured diaphragm have? A patient with this may have an abdomen with a sunken anterior wall (scaphoid abdomen) and difficulty breathing because of bowel contents in the chest cavity. These patients should receive positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-mask device. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is the biggest concern in patients with closed abdominal injuries? The biggest concern with these patients is the fact that you do not know the true extent of the injury. Therefore, expedient transport is essential. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries A patient with a blunt abdominal injury may have one or more of which injuries? A patient with this injury may have one or more of the following injuries:
Severe bruising of the abdominal wall;
Laceration of the liver and spleen;
Rupture of the intestine;
Tears in the mesentery;
Rupture of the kidneys or avulsion of the kidneys from their arteries and veins;
Rupture of the bladder;
Severe intra-abdominal hemorrhage;
Peritoneal irritation and inflammation in response to the rupture of hollow organs.
28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What position should you place a patient who has sustained a blunt abdominal injury? You should log roll this kind of patient to a supine position on a backboard. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What should you do with abdominal evisceration? With these injuries, never try to replace an organ that is protruding from an abdominal laceration; cover it with sterile gauze compresses moistened with sterile saline solution and secure with a sterile dressing; do NOT use any material that is adherent or loses its substance when wet, such as toilet paper, facial tissue, paper towels, or absorbent cotton. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are PASG (Pneumatic AntiShock Garment)? These were originally developed by the military for fighter pilots who wore them as g-suits. The military needed to increase the pilot's systolic blood pressure to keep the pilot from losing consciousness at high altitudes or while performing certain maneuvers; many studies have now shown that while the g-suit works very efficiently on healthy fighter pilots, it does not resolve shock in the typical trauma patient. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What does the urinary system do? This system controls the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood by the kidneys. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries Where does the genital system lie in the male and female? The male genitalia, except for the prostate gland and the seminal vesicles, lie outside the pelvic cavity. The female genitalia, except for the vulva, clitoris, and labia, are contained entirely within the pelvis. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is something to remember regarding penetrating and blunt kidney injuries? With these injuries, it almost always involve other organs. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries When should you suspect kidney damage? You should suspect this kind of damage if the patient has a history or physical evidence of any of the following:
An abrasion, laceration, or contusion in the flank.
A penetrating wound in the region of the lower rib cage (flank) or the upper abdomen.
Fractures on either side of the lower rib cage, the lower thoracic, or upper lumbar vertebrae,
And, A hematoma in the flank region
28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What can sudden deceleration in a crash cause in a male patient? This event can literally shear the bladder from the urethra. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What should you remember regarding injuries of the external male genitalia? With these injuries, it is important to remember that although these injuries are uniformly painful and generally a source of great concern to the patient, they are rarely considered life threatening and should not be given priority over other, more severe wounds. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries Why are injuries to the uterus particularly severe? These injuries are particularly severe because the uterus has a rich blood supply during pregnancy. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What is something important to cosider regarding the blood pressure of a patient in the last trimester of her pregnancy? With these patients, remember that that uterus may obstruct the vena cava, decreasing the amount of blood returning to the heart if the patient is placed in a supine position (supine hypotensive syndrome). The patient should instead be placed on her left side so that the uterus will not lie on the vena cava. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What should you not do regarding vaginal bleed? In this situation, do not insert instruments, gloved fingers, or a tampon in the vagina as this can cause further damage. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are some common complaints associated with genitourinary injuries? These include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, blood in the urine (hematuria), vomiting blood (hematemesis), or abnormal bowel and bladder habits such as an increase in frequency or the absence of the need to void. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What can cause lacerations of the urethra? These injuries can result from straddle injuries, pelvic fractures, or penetrating wounds of the perineum. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What can direct blows to the scrotum result in? These can result in significant accumulation of blood around the testes; you should apply an ice pack to the scrotal area while transporting the patient. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are some causes of rectal bleeding? This can be caused by sexual assault, hemorrhoids, colitis, or ulcer of the digestive track. 28 abdominal genitourinary injuries What are some general steps to follow regarding sexual assault cases? In these situations, remember to:
Take care to shield the patient from curious onlookers.
Because you may have to appear in court as much as 2 or 3 years later, you must document the patient's history, assessment, treatment, and response to treatment in detail.
Advise the patient not to wash, douche, urinate, or defecate until after a physician has examined him or her.
If the patient will tolerate being wrapped in a sterile burn sheet, this may help investigators to find any hair, fluid, or fiber from the alleged offender.
Place all articles or evidence in a paper bag, NOT plastic.
28 abdominal genitourinary injuries How many visits to physicians occur annually as a result of complaints related to the musculoskeletal system? There are almost 60 million of these every year. 29 injuries orthopaedic What percentage of Americans experience some type of musculoskeletal impairment, costing hundreds of billions of dollars a year? Approximately one in seven Americans will experience this in their lives. 29 injuries orthopaedic What percentage of all patients with multiple system trauma have one or more musculoskeletal injuries? An estimated 70% to 80% all patients with this trauma have this kind of injury. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the three types of muscles? These are:
skeletal
smooth
cardiac
29 injuries orthopaedic What are skeletal muscles (aka striated muscle)? These muscles attach to the bones and usually cross at least one joint, forming the muscle mass of the body. This type of muscle is also called voluntary muscle, because it is under direct control of the brain. 29 injuries orthopaedic What attaches skeletal muscle to the bone? This is attached to bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures known as tendons, which are extensions of fascia that covers all skeletal muscle. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is smooth muscle? This is also called involuntary muscle, because it is not under voluntary control of the brain. This type of muscle is found in the walls of most tubular structures of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract and the blood vessels. 29 injuries orthopaedic How many bones are in the human skeleton? There are 206 bones. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the functions of bones? These protect our vital organs, allow us to move, produce blood cells in the marrow, and serve as a reservoir for minerals and electrolytes. 29 injuries orthopaedic What protects the heart, lungs, and great vessels? These are protected by the thoracic cage. 29 injuries orthopaedic What protects the liver and spleen? These are protected by the lower ribs. 29 injuries orthopaedic What protects the spinal cord? The spinal canal protects this. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the pectoral girdle? This consists of two scapulae and two clavicles. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the scapula? This is a flat triangular bone held to the ribcage by powerful muscles that buffer it against injury. It is also called a shoulder blade. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the clavicle? This is a slender, S-shaped bone attached by ligaments to the sternum on one end and to the acromion process on the other. It acts as a strut to keep the shoulder propped up; however, because it is slender and very exposed, this bone is vulnerable to injury. It is also called the collarbone. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the upper extremity? This extends form the shoulder to the fingertips and is composed of the arm (humerus), elbow, forearm (radius and ulna), wrist, hand, and fingers. It joins the shoulder girdle at the glenohumeral joint. 29 injuries orthopaedic What bones make up the forearm? This is made up of the radius and ulna. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the three set of hand bones? These sets of bones are the carpals, the metacarpals, and phalanges. 29 injuries orthopaedic When are carpals vulnerable to fracture? These bones are vulnerable to fracture when a person falls on an outstreched hand. 29 injuries orthopaedic When are phalanges vulnerable to injury? These bones are vulnerable to crushing injury. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the pelvis? This supports the body weight and protects the structures within the pelvis - the bladder, rectum, and female reproductive organs. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the three bones in the pelvic girdle? The three separate bones are:
the ischium
ilium
and pubis
These together make up the innominate bone.
29 injuries orthopaedic What connects the two pubic bones anteriorly? These are joined by ligaments to each other at the pubic symphasis. 29 injuries orthopaedic What do the iliac bones connect to posteriorly? These are joined by ligaments to the sacrum at the sacroliac joint. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the femur? This is a long, powerful bone that connects in the ball-and-socket joint of the pelvis and in the hinge joint of the knee. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the head of the femur? This is the ball-shaped part that fits into the acetabulum and is a common fracture point. 29 injuries orthopaedic What connects the head of the femur to the shaft? These are connected by the femoral neck, a common site for fractures, especially in the older population. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the name for the upper part of the femur? This is called the greater trochanter. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the name for the lower part of the femur? This is called the lesser trochanter. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the two bones of the lower leg? This consists of two bones, the tibia and fibula. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the tibia? This connects to the patella to form the knee joint and runs down the front of the lower leg. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the fibula? This runs behind and beside the tibia; it is much smaller. It is not a component of the knee joint, but it does make up the outer knob of the ankle joint. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the three classes of foot bones? These 3 are:
the tarsals (ankle bones)
the metatarsals (foot bones)
and the phalanges (toe bones)
29 injuries orthopaedic What is the calcaneus? This is the largest of the tarsal bones; it is also known as the heel bone, and is subject to injury when a person jumps from a height and lands on the feet. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a joint? This is formed whenever two bones come into contact. 29 injuries orthopaedic What holds joints together? These are held together in a tough fibrous structure known as a capsule, and supported by bands of fibrous tissue called ligaments. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the sternoclavicular joint? This is where the sternum and the clavicle come together. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is articular cartilage? This is a thin layer of cartilage that covers the ends of bones in moving joints; it is a pearly substance that allows the ends of the bones to glide easily. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is synovial fluid? This bathes and lubricates joints. It is also known as joint fluid. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are skull sutures? These are joints present in the first 18 months of life that fuse together during growth to create a solid, immobile, bony structure. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a fracture? This is a break in the continuity of the bone. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a dislocation? This is a disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact. The supporting ligaments are often torn, usually completely allowing the bone ends to separate completely from each other. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is fascia? This is the fibrous tissue that surrounds and supports the muscles and neurovascular structures. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a sprain? This is an injury to ligaments, articular capsule, synovial membrane, and tendons crossing the joint. After the injury, the joint surfaces generally fall back into alignment, so the joint is not significantly displaced. The most severe sprains involve actual of the ligament and may allow joint dislocation. Mild sprains are caused by ligament streching rather than tearing. The most vulnerable joints are the knees, shoulders, and ankles. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a strain? This is a streching or tearing of the muscle, causing pain, swelling, and bruising of the soft tissues in the area. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the zone of injury? This is injury to soft tissues, especially to the adjacent nerves and blood vessels, surrounding an injury to bones and joints. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the patella? This is the kneecap. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is an indirect force injury? This may cause a fracture or dislocation at a distant point, as when a person falls and lands on an outstreched hand. The direct impact may cause a wrist fracture, but the indirect force can cause dislocation of the elbow or a fracture of the forearm, humerus, or even clavicle. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a closed fracture? This is a fracture in which the skin is not broken. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is an open fracture? This is a fracture in which there is an external wound, caused either by the same blow that fractured the bone or by the broken bone ends lacerating the skin. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a nondisplaced fracture? This is a simple crack of the bone in which the bone has not moved from its normal position. It is also called a hairline fracture. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a displaced fracture? This produces actual deformity, or distortion, of the limb by shortening, rotating, or angulating it; it can be associated with crepitus. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a greenstick fracture? This is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs in children. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a comminuted fracture? This is a fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fractures. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a pathologic fracture? This is a fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoprosis or cancer, generally produced by minimal force. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is an epiphyseal fracture? This is a fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is an oblique fracture? This is a fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp angled blow to the bone. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a transverse fracture? This is a fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a spiral fracture? This is a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is an incomplete fracture? This is a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a nondisplaced partial crack. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture? This is point tenderness on palpation in the zone of injury. 29 injuries orthopaedic How long after a fracture may fluid build-up and swelling occur? This may occur several hours after a fracture. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is crepitus? This is a grating or grinding sensation that can sometimes be felt and/or heard when fractured bone ends rub together. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is flase motion? This is motion at a point in the limb where there is no joint. Also called free movement, it is a positive indication of a fracture. 29 injuries orthopaedic What does it mean when a dislocated joint spontaneously reduces? This means the joint will return to its normal position . 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the signs and symptoms of a dislocated joint? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Marked deformity
Swelling
Pain that is aggravated by any attempt at movement
Tenderness on palpation
Virtually complete loss of normal joint motion (locked joint)
Numbness or impaired circulation to the limb or digit
29 injuries orthopaedic Where do sprains occur most often? These occur most often in the knee and the ankle, though they can occur anywhere. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the signs and symptoms of a sprain? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Point tenderness can be elicited over the injured ligaments
Swelling and ecchymosis appear at the point of injury to the ligament as a result of torn blood vessels
Pain prevents the patient from moving or using the limb normally
Instability of the joint us indicated by increased motion, especially at the knee; however, this may be masked by severe swelling and guarding
29 injuries orthopaedic What should you general approach be with ankle trauama? With this, always focus on determing the MOI. 29 injuries orthopaedic When does compartment syndrome most commonly occur, and when does it develop? This most commonly occurs with a fractured tibia or forearm of children and is often overlooked, especially in patients with an altered level of consciousness. It typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after injury, usually as a result of excessive bleeding, a severely crushed extremity, or the rapid return of blood to an ischemic limb. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome? This is characterized by pain that is out of proportion to the injury, pain on passive strech of muscles within the compartment, pallor, decreased sensation, and decreased power. 29 injuries orthopaedic Why is any suspected open fracture or vascular injury considered a medical emergency? These are always considered medical emergencies, as in an extremity with anything less than complete circulation, prolonged hypoperfusion can cause significant damage. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are some examples of minor musculoskeletal injuries? Some examples of this are minor sprains and fractures or dislocations of digits. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are some examples of moderate musculoskeletal injuries? Some examples of this are open fractures of digits,
nondisplaced long-bone fractures,
nondisplaced pelvic fractures
major sprains of a major joint.
29 injuries orthopaedic What are some examples of severe musculoskeletal injuries? Some examples of this are:
Displaced long-bone fractures
Multiple hand and foot fractures
Open long-bone fractures
Displaced pelvic fractures
Dislocations of major joints
Multiple digit amputations
Laceration of major nerves or blood vessels
29 injuries orthopaedic What are some examples severe, life-threatening musculoskeletal injuries (survival is probable)? Some examples of this include:
Multiple closed fractures
Limb amputations
Fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures
29 injuries orthopaedic What are some examples of critical musculoskeletal injuries (survival is uncertain)? Some examples of this include:
Multiple open fractures of the limbs
Suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instability
29 injuries orthopaedic What does a patient with bilateral fractures of the long bones (humerus, femur, or tibia) indicate? This indicates that the patient has been subjected to a high amount of kinetic energy, which should dramatically increase your index of suspicion for serious unseen injuries. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the 6 Ps of injured limb examination? These are:
Pain,
Paralysis
Paresthesias (numbness or tingling),
Pulselessness,
Pallor,
and Pressure
29 injuries orthopaedic What should you always do before and after splinting a patient? You should always check circulation, motor function, and sensation before and after this. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the steps to follow when caring for a patient with musculoskeletal injuries? "With these types of patients, you should:
1) Remove any jewelry.
2) Completely cover any open wounds with dry, sterile dressing, and apply direct pressure to control bleeding (use a tourniquet if bleeding cannot be controlled).
3) Apply the appropriate splint, and elevate the extremity approx. 6"" to minimize swelling.
4) If swelling is present, apply cold packs to the area.
5) Prepate the patient for transport.
" 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a splint? This is a flexible or rigid device that is used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity. 29 injuries orthopaedic How is splinting useful? This is useful as it prevents:
1) movement of fracture fragments, bone ends, dislocated joints, or damaged soft tissue, reducing pain.
2) further damage to muscles, spinal cords, nerves, and blood vessels.
3) laceration of the skin by broken bone ends (one of the primary indications for this is to prevent a closed fracture from becoming an open fracture.)
4) restriction of distal blood flow resulting from pressure of the bone ends on blood vessels
and
5) paralysis of extremities resulting from a damaged spine.
29 injuries orthopaedic What are the 13 general principles of splinting? The 13 general principles of this are:
1) Remove clothing from the area so you can inspect for DCAP-BTLS
2) Take CSM
3) Cover all wounds with dry, sterile dressing
4) Do not move the patient prior to application unless there is immediate danger
5) In a suspected fracture of the shaft, be sure to stabilize the joints above and below the fracture
6) With injuries in and around the joint, be sure to stabilize the bones above and below the injured joint
7) Pad all straps
8) During application, maintain manual stabilization
9) If the fracture of a long-bone shaft has resulted in severe deformity, use constant, gentle manual traction to align the limb. This is especially important if the distal part of the extremity is cyanotic or pulseless.
10) If you erncounter resistance, perform the procedure with the limb in its deformed position
11) Stabilize all suspected spinal injuries in a neutral in-line position on a backboard
12) If the patient has signs of hypoperfusion, align the limb in the normal anatomic position, and provide transport
13) When in doubt, splint
29 injuries orthopaedic What is traction? This is the act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment. It is the most effective way to realign a fracture of the shaft of a long bone so that the limb can be splinted more effectively. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you NOT attempt to do with traction? When doing this, remember you should not attempt to reduce the fracture or force all of the bone fragments back into alignment. This is the physician's responsibility. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do before applying a traction splint? Before applying this, be sure to control any external bleeding. 29 injuries orthopaedic How much force is required for proper traction? This varies, but often does not exceed 15 lb. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the two situations in which you must splint the limb in the position of deformity? You must do this when:
1) the deformity is severe, as is the case with many dislocations,
and
2) when you encounter resistance or extreme pain when applying gentle traction to the fracture of a shaft of a long bone.
29 injuries orthopaedic What is the most commonly used formable or soft splint? The most commonly used one of these is the precontured, inflatable, clear plastic air splint. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is something to consider regarding air splints? With these, remember that significant changes in the weather affect the pressure of the air in the splint, which decreases as the environment grows colder and increases as the environment grows warmer. The same thing happens when there changes in altitude, which can be a problem with helicopter transport of patients. 29 injuries orthopaedic When are traction splints primarily used? They are used primarily to secure fractures of the shaft of the femur, characterized by pain, swelling, and deformity of the midthigh. 29 injuries orthopaedic When should you NOT use traction splints? Do not use this for any of the following conditions:
1) Injuries of the upper extremity.
2) Injuries close to or involving the knee.
3) Injuries of the hip.
4) Injuries of the pelvis.
5) Partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation.
And 6) Lower leg, foot, or ankle injury.
29 injuries orthopaedic What are pelvic binders? These are used to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain. They are easily applied by one person, and should allow access to the abdomen, perineum, anus, and groin for examination and diagnostic testing. 29 injuries orthopaedic When should you not use PASGs? Do not use this if any of the following conditions exist:
Pregnancy,
Pulmonary edema,
Acute heart failure,
Penetrating chest injuries,
Groin injuries,
Major head injuries,
And a transport time of less than 30 minutes
29 injuries orthopaedic What is a general rule for PASGs? As a general rule with these, gradually inflate the legs before inflating the abdominal portion. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are some hazards associated with the improper application of splints? The following hazards are associated with this:
Compression of nerves, tissues, and blood vessels
Delay in transport of a patient with a life-threatening injury
Reduction of distal circulation
Aggravation of the injury
Injury to tissue, nerves, blood vessels, or muscles as a result of excessive movement of the bone or joint.
29 injuries orthopaedic What is one of the most commonly fractured bone in the body? The clavicle, or collarbone, is this. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a another name for the scapula? Another name for this is shoulder blade. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the acromioclavicular (AC) joint? This is the joint between the outer end of the clavicle and the acromion process of the scapula. Dislocation of this is called an AC separation. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a sling? This is any bandage or material that helps support the weight of an injured upper extremity, relieving the downward pull of gravity on the injured site. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a swathe? This is a bandage that passses completely around the chest to stabilize the arm. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the glenoid fossa? This is the part of the scapula that joins with the head of the humerus, forming the glenhumeral joint (shoulder joint). 29 injuries orthopaedic What symptoms indicate a shoulder dislocation? The symptoms of this condition are as follows:
The shoulder joint will usually be locked, and the sholder will appear squared off or flattened. The humeral head will protrude anteriorly underneath the pectoralis major on the anterior chest wall. As a result, the anxillary nerve may be compressed, causing a numb patch on the outer aspect of the shoulder. Be sure to document this finding.
29 injuries orthopaedic Why is stabilizing an anterior shoulder dislocation difficult? This is difficult because any attempt to bring the arm in toward the chest will produce pain. You must splint the joint in whatever position is most comfortable for the patient, so if necessary, place a pillow or rolled blanket or towels between the arm and chest to fill up the space between them. 29 injuries orthopaedic Where do fractures of the humerus occur? They occur either: proximally at the midshaft, or distally at the elbow. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is another name for a fracture of the distal humerus? This is also known as a supracondylar or intercondylar fracture. 29 injuries orthopaedic What kind of fracture is common in children? Fracture of the distal humerus (supracondylar or intercondylar fracture) are common with this group. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a common deformity of a dislocated elbow? A common deformity of this is the posterior displacement of the ulna and radius, which makes the olecranon process of the ulna much more prominent. 29 injuries orthopaedic What generally causes fractures of the radial head? These are generally caused from direct or indirect forces and is often associated with lacerations and abrasions. 29 injuries orthopaedic What does a cold, pale hand or a weak or absent pulse and poor capillary refill in a patient with an elbow injury indicate? These indicate that blood vessels have likely been injured. Notify medical control immediately and provide prompt transport. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do if a limb is pulseless and significantly deformed at the elbow? In this situation, you should gently apply manual traction in line with the long axis of the limb to decrease the deformity. This may restore the pulse, but if no pulse returns after one attempt, splint in the most comfortable position for the patient. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a nightstick fracture? This is a fracture on the shaft of the ulnaas a result of a direct blow. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are Colles fractures? These are fractures of the distal radius, and are common in elderly patients with osteoporosis. 29 injuries orthopaedic "What is ""silver fork deformity""?" This is the distinctive appearance of a distal radius fracture. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is something you can do to alleviate swelling in extremity fractures? In this situation, you can elevate the injured extremity above the heart. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a common wrist injury? A common one of these is the isolated, nondisplaced fracture of a carpal bone, especially the scaphoid. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the position of function? This is a hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the retroperitoneal space? This is the space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is an important consideration regarding pelvic fractures? These types of injuries may be accompanied by life-threatening loss of blood from the laceration of blood vessels affixed to the pelvis at certain key points. Several liters of blood may drain into the pelvic space and the retroperitoneal space. You must take immediate steps to treat shock, even if there is only minimal swelling. 29 injuries orthopaedic When should you suspect a pelvic fracture? You should suspect this injury whenever a patient has sustained a high-velocity injury and complains of discomfort in the lower back or abdomen (deformity or swelling may be difficult to see). 29 injuries orthopaedic How should you palpate the pelvis? To perform this palpation:
1) Place the palms of your hands over the lateral aspect of each iliac crest, and apply firm but gentle inward pressure on the pelvic ring.
2) With the patient lying supine, place a palm over the anterior aspect of weach iliac crest, and apply firm downward pressure.
3) Use your palm to firmly but gently palpate the pubic symphysis. The area will be tender if there is injury to the anterior portion of the pelvic ring.
29 injuries orthopaedic What most commonly causes hip dislocations? These are most commonly caused by automobile accidents in which the knee meets with a direct force, such as the dashboard. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a frequent complication of posterior dislocation of the hip? A frequent complication of this is injury to the sciatic nerve. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the sciatic nerve? This is the most important nerve in the lower extremity; it controls the activity of muscles in the posterior thigh and below the knee and the sensation in most of the leg and foot. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is a sign of sciatic nerve injury? "Decreased sensation in the leg and foot, and the characteristic ""foot drop"" are signs of this." 29 injuries orthopaedic In what position do patients with posterior dislocation of the hip typically lie? This type of patient typically lie with the hip joint flexed and the thigh rotated inward toward the midline of the body over the top of the opposite thigh. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are the three types of proximal femur fractures? The three types of this injury are:
1) a fracture through the neck of the femur
2) the intertrochanteric (middle) region
and
3) across the proximal shaft of the femur (subtrochanteric fractures).
29 injuries orthopaedic What typically occurs following a femoral shaft fracture? "Following this type of injury, muscles spasm in an attempt to ""splint"" the unstable limb, causing significant deformity and shorterning of the limb." 29 injuries orthopaedic How many mL of blood can be lost as a result of a fracture of the femur shaft? As much as 500 to 1,000 mL of blood can be lost as a result of this injury. 29 injuries orthopaedic Which knee ligaments are most frequently injured? The ligaments on the medial side of this joint are most frequently injured, typically when the foot is fixed to the ground and the lateral aspect is struck by a heavy object. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do with all suspected knee ligament injuries? You should always splint all suspected injuries of this type. If you encounter resistance or pain when trying to straighten the limb, splint in the flexed position. 29 injuries orthopaedic How significant are knee dislocations? These are true emergencies that may threaten the limb. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the most common type of knee dislocations? Anterior dislocations, which results from extreme hyperextension, are the most common kind of this injury. 29 injuries orthopaedic What are some possible complications from knee dislocations? Complications of this type of injury include limb-threatening popliteal artery disruption, injuries to the nerves, and joint instability. 29 injuries orthopaedic How should you splint a knee dislocation if the knee is bent and the foot has a good pulse? In this situation, splint the joint in the bent position. 29 injuries orthopaedic What may medical control direct you to do on rare occasions with knee dislocations? In this situation, medical control may direct you realigned a deformed, pulseless limb to reduce compression of the popliteal artery, thus restoring distal circulation. 29 injuries orthopaedic What is it easy to confuse fractures about the knee with/ These can frequently be confused with ligament injuries. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do if there is an adequate distal pulse and no significant deformity with a fracture about the knee? In this situation, splint the limb with the knee straight. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do if there is an adequate distal pulse and significant deformity with a fracture about the knee? In this situation, splint the joint in the position of deformity. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do if there is no pulse below the level of the injury? In this situation, suspect possible vascular and nerve damage, and contact medical control immediately for further instructions. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you do if you suspect a fractured knee? With this injury, never use a traction splint. 29 injuries orthopaedic Where does the patella usually displace to? This usually displaces to the lateral side. 29 injuries orthopaedic How should you splint the knee with a dislocated patella? With this injury, splint the knee in which you found it often moderately flexed). 29 injuries orthopaedic How should you stabilize fractures of the tibia and fibula? With these injuries, the bones should be stabilized with a padded, rigid long leg splint, or an air splint that extends from the foot to the upper thigh. Once splinted, the affected leg should be secured to the opposite leg. 29 injuries orthopaedic How should you generally manage the wide spectrum of injuries to the ankle? Manage these types of injuries as follows:
1) Dress all open wounds
2) Assess distal neurovascular function
3) Correct any gross deformity by gently applying longitudinal traction to the heel
4) Before releasing traction, apply a splint.
29 injuries orthopaedic What bone is most commonly fractured in foot injuries? The most common fractured bone in this situation is the calcaneus. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you be aware of when a patient who has fallen from a height complains of heel pain? In this situation, be aware of back pain complaints, and check the spine for tenderness and deformity. 29 injuries orthopaedic What should you remember remember when splinting an injured foot? When doing this, remember to leave a toe exposed so you can check for a distal pulse. 29 injuries orthopaedic If you have a pediatric patient with a fracture below the elbow or knee, what might the following symptoms indicate: extreme pain, decreased pain sensation, pain on streching of affected muscles, and decreased power? In this situation, these symptoms indicate that the pressure within a fascial compartment is elevated. 29 injuries orthopaedic What indicates a strain? "This type of injury often has no deformity and only minor swelling; some patients report a ""snap"" when a muscle tears and complain of increased sharp pain with passive movement of the injured extremity." 29 injuries orthopaedic What is the general treatment of strains and sprains? Treatment of this injury includes the following:
1) Immobilize or splint the injured area
2) Ice or cold pack over the injury
3) Compression with an elastic bandage
4) Elevation
5) Reduced weight bearing
6) Pain management
29 injuries orthopaedic What usually causes sprains? These are usually caused by a sudden twisting of a joint beyond its normal range of motion that also causes a temporary subluxation. 29 injuries orthopaedic What usually characterizes a sprain? These are typically characterized by pain, swelling (edema) at the joint, discoloration over the injured joint, and point tenderness. 29 injuries orthopaedic If your patient greets you with a hoarse voice or is reported to have been in an enclosed space with a fire or intense heat source, what does this indicate? These signs indicate a significant MOI, and the airway should be carefully monitored. 24 injuries soft-tissue What is one of the first signs of hypoperfusion? One of the first signs of this is a change in mental status, such as anxiety, restlessness, or combativeness. 23 bleeding What are the later signs of hypoperfusion suggesting internal bleeding? Later signs of this include:
Tachycardia
Weakness, fainting, or dizziness at rest
Thirst
Nausea and vomiting
Cold, moist skin
Shallow, rapid breathing
Dull eyes
Slightly dilated pupils that are non-reactive to light
Capillary refill of more than 2 seconds in infants and children
Weak, rapid (thready) pulse
Decreasing blood pressure
Altered level of consciousness
23 bleeding When dealing with multiple bleeding patients, what should you remember to do? When doing this, remember to place several pairs of gloves in your pocket for easy access. 23 bleeding What does a systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mg Hg with a weak, rapid pulse suggest? This suggests the presence of hypoperfusion in a patient who may have significant bleeding. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a fall from a ladder striking the head, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is a head injury or hematoma. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a fall from a ladder striking the extremities, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is possible fractures, and also possible chest injuries. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a child striking a car, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is head trauma, chest and abdominal injuries, and leg fractures. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a fall onto an outstretched arm, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is possible bone fractures and joint injuries. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a child thrown or falls from a height, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is head injury. 23 bleeding When the MOI is an unrestrained driver in a head-on collision, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is head and neck, chest, abdominal injuries, and knee, femur, hip, or pelvis injuries. 23 bleeding When the MOI is an unrestrained front-seat passenger or side-impact collision with intrusion into the vehicle, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is a broken humerus exposing the chest wall (possible flail chest), as well as pelvic and acetabulum injuries. 23 bleeding When the MOI is an unrestrained driver crushed against the steering column, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is a chest or abdomen injury, a ruptured spleen, and neck trauma. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a fall over the handlebars of a bike, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI are a fractured clavicle, road rash, and head trauma if there was no helmet. 23 bleeding When the MOI is an abrupt motorcycle stop, and the patient went over the handlebars, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI are fractured femurs, and head or neck injuries. 23 bleeding When the MOI is diving into the shallow end of a swimming pool, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI are head and neck injuries. 23 bleeding When the MOI is an assault or fight, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is injury to the abdomen, chest, and face. 23 bleeding When the MOI is a blast or explosion, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is: injury from direct strike with debris; an indirect pressure wave in an enclosed space; and, internally, air-containing organs, such as the middle of the ears and lungs, are the most susceptible to injury. 23 bleeding With a patient with obvious external bleeding, what is the very least PPE needed? With these patients, BSI includes at the very least gloves and eye protection, and often a mask and possibly a gown. 23 bleeding What are the methods available to control external bleeding? The most commonly used method to do this include:
1) Direct, even pressure and elevation
2) Pressure dressings and/or splints
and
3) Tourniquiets
23 bleeding How long (minimum) should you hold uninterrupted pressure on an open wound to stop bleeding? You should do this for at least 5 minutes. 23 bleeding What is a pressure point? This is a spot where a blood vessel lies near a bone. 23 bleeding What is one way to assist in the body's natural clotting process? One way to do this is to keep the patient as still and quiet as possible. 23 bleeding What are the signs and symptoms of blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck? Signs and symptoms of this are: Noisy or labored breathing, and swelling of the face or neck. 22 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck? The index of suspicion of blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck is:
Significant bleeding or foreign bodies in the upper or lower airway, causing obstruction;
Be alert for airway compromise 22 overview trauma What are the signs and symptoms of significant chest wall, blunt trauma from motor vehicle crashes, car-versus-pedestrian accidents, other crashes, and penetrating trauma to the chest wall? Signs and symptoms of this are: Significant chest pain, shortness of breath, and asymmetrical chest wall movement. 22 overview trauma What are the signs and symptoms of any significant blunt force trauma from motor vehicle crashes or penetrating injury? Signs and symptoms of this are: Blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck, chest, abdomen, or groin, blows to the head sustained during motor vehicle crashes, falls, or other incidents, producing loss of consciousness, altered mental status, inability to recall events, combativeness, or changes in speech patterns, and difficulty moving extremities and headaches, especially with nausea and vomiting. 22 overview trauma What are the signs and symptoms of any significant blunt force trauma, falls from a significant height, or penetrating trauma? Signs and symptoms of this are: Severe back and/or neck pain, a history of difficulty moving extremities, and loss of sensation or tingling in the extremities. 22 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of significant chest wall, blunt trauma from motor vehicle crashes, car-versus-pedestrian accidents, other crashes, and penetrating trauma to the chest wall? The index of suspicion of this is:
Cardiac or pulmonary contusion;
Pneumothorax or hemothorax;
Broken ribs, causing breathing compromise 22 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of any significant blunt force trauma from motor vehicle crashes or penetrating injury? The index of suspicion of this is:
Injuries in these regions may tear and cause damage to the large blood vessels located in these body areas, resulting in significant internal and external bleeding.
Be alert to the possibility of bruising to the brain and bleeding in and around the brain tissue, which may cause the development of excess pressure inside the skull around the brain. 22 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of any significant blunt force trauma, falls from a significant height, or penetrating trauma? The index of suspicion of this is:
Injury to the bones of the spinal column or to the spinal cord. 22 overview trauma What are the four different mechanisms of injury in explosions? The four mechanisms of injury from this are:
1) Primary blast injuries (due entirely to the blast pressure wave itself; hollow organs are the most suseptible)
2) Secondary blast injuries (flying debris injuries)
3) Tertiary blast injuries (ground shock from impact)
4) Miscellaneous blast injuries.
How fast can shrapnel and debris from explosives travel? These can travel up to nearly 3,000 mph for conventional military explosives. What organ system is most sensitive to blast injuries? The ear is the organ system most sensitive to this. 22 overview trauma What happens to the tympanic membrane when hit by a pressure wave? This has evolved to detect minor chasnges in pressure and will rupture at pressures of 5 to 7 pounds per square inch above atmosphere pressure. 22 overview trauma What are pulmonary blast injuries? These are defined as pulmonary trauma (consisting of contusions and hemorrhages) that results from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives. 22 overview trauma What should you avoid with victims of blast injuries with suspected lung injury? With these patients, avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure (that is by demand valve), because that may simply increase the damage to the lungs. 22 overview trauma What is an arterial air embolism? This is one of the most concerning pulmonary blast injuries, and occurs on alveolar disruption with subsequent air embolization into the pulmonary vasculature. This can produce disturbances in vision, changes in behavior, changes in state of consciousness, and a variety of other neurologic signs. 22 overview trauma What are petechiae? These are pinpoint hemorrhages that show up on the skin, and are the dominant form of pathology for hollow organs injured by blast pressure waves. 22 overview trauma What are the most common causes of death from blast injuries? Neurologic injuries and head trauma are the most common causes of death from this. 22 overview trauma What can trigger instant but transient unconsciousness, with or without retrograde amnesia? This can be triggered not only by head trauma, but also by cardiovascular problems. 22 overview trauma What is something to remember about body armor in blast injury treatment? "This may limit or prevent shrapnel from entering the body, but it also ""catches"" more energy from the blast wave, possibly resulting in the victim being thrown backward, thus increasing the potential for spine and spinal cord injury." 22 overview trauma What is multisystem trauma? This is a term that describes a preson who has been subjected to multiple traumatic injuries involving more than one body system.  22 overview trauma What kind of care do most patients with multisystem trauma require? "With these patients, definitive care requires surgical intervention; therefore, on-scene time should be limited to 10 minutes or less; this is referred to as the ""platinum 10 minutes""." 22 overview trauma What can a crushing injury to the upper part of the neck cause? This injury can cause the cartilages of the upper airway and larynx to fracture. The can lead to the leakage of air into the soft tissue of the neck. 22 overview trauma What is subcutaneous crepitation? This is when air is trapped in subcutaneous tissue. 22 overview trauma What is the appropriate use of emergency air medical services for trauma patients? This medical service is appropriate for the following situations:
1) There is an extended period required to access or extricate a remote or trapped patient.
2) The distance to the trauma center is greater than 20 to 25 miles
3) The patient needs medical care and stabilizatio at the ALS level, and there is no ALS-level ground ambulance service available within a reasonable time frame.
4) Traffice conditions or hospital availability make it unlikely that the patient will get to a trauma center.
5) There are multiple patients who will overwhelm resources at the trauma center reachable by ground.
6) EMS systems require bringing a patient to the nearest hospital for initial evaluation and stabilization.
7) There is a mass-casualty incident.
22 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level I trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) 24 hour in-house coverage by general surgeons
2) Availability of care in specialties such as orthopaedic surgery, neurosurgery, anesthesiology, emergency medicine, radiology, internal medicine, and critical care
3) Should also include cardiac, hand, pediatric, and microvascular surgery and hemodialysis.
4) Provides leadership in prevention, public education, and continuing education of trauma team members.
5) Committed to continued improvement through a comprehensive quality assessment program and organized research to help direct new innovations in trauma care.
22 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level II trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) 24 hour in-house coverage by general surgeons
2) Availability of care in specialties such as orthopaedic surgery, neurosurgery, anesthesiology, emergency medicine, radiology, internal medicine, and critical care
3) Committed to trauma prevention and continuing education of trauma team members.
4) Provides continued improvement in trauma care through a comprehensive quality assessment program.
22 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level III trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) 24 hour in-house coverage by general surgeons
2) Committed to continued improvement through a comprehensive quality assessment program
3) Has developed transfer agreements for patients requiring more comprehensive care at a Level I or Level iI trauma center.
4) Committed to continuing education of nursing and allied health personnel or the trauma team.
5) Must be involved with prevention and have an active outreach program for its referring communities.
22 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level IV trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) Include basic emergency department facilities to implement ATLS protocols and 24-hour laboratory coverage.
2) Transfer to higher level trauma centers follows the guidelines outlined in formal transfer agreements.
3) Committed to continued improvement of these trauma care activities through a formal quality assessment program.
4) Involved in prevention, outreach, and education within its community.
22 overview trauma What is a trauma score? This is a way to calcualte a number from 1 to 16, that accurately evaluates the extent of trauma in a patient. 22 overview trauma In the Glasgow Coma Scale, how do you rate eye opening? For this evaluation:
4 - Spontaneous
3 - To Voice
2 - To Pain
1 - None
22 overview trauma In the Glasgow Coma Scale, how do you rate verbal response? For this evaluation:
5 - Oriented
4 - Confused
3 - Inappropriate Words
2 - Incomprehensible Words
1 - None
22 overview trauma In the Glasgow Coma Scale, how do you rate motor response? For this evaluation:
6 - Obeys Commands
5 - Localizes Pain
4 - Withdraws (pain)
3 - Flexion (pain)
2 - Extension (pain)
1 - None
22 overview trauma What is the American College of Surgeons' Criteria for a Level I Patient? Criteria for this are:
1) Confirmed blood pressure of less than 90 mg Hg at any time in adults, and age-specific hypotension in children.
2) Respiratory compromise, obstruction, and/or intubation
3) Receiving blood to maintain vital signs
4) Emergency physician's discretion
5) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than or equal to 8 with mechanism attributed to trauma
6) Gunshot wound to the abdomen, neck, or chest.
22 overview trauma What are the primary female reproductive organs? These are the ovaries. 21 emergencies gynecologic How many ovum are produced each month? Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the fallopian tube. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is the term for when the ovum is released? This is called ovulation. 21 emergencies gynecologic What are the fallopian tubes? These connect each ovary with the uterus and are the primary location for fertilization of the ovum. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is the uterus? This is the muscular organ where the fetus grows during pregnancy. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is the cervix? This is the narrowest and lowest portion of the uterus, and opens into the vagina. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is the vagina? This is the outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system and forms the lower part of the birth canal. It is about 8 to 12 cm in length. 21 emergencies gynecologic What are the labia majora and labia minora? These are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is the perineum? This is the area of skin between the vagina and the anus. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? This is an infection of the female upper organs of reproduction (uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes) that occurs almost exclusively in sexually active women. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is an ectopic pregnancy? This is a pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, most often in the fallopian tubes. 21 emergencies gynecologic What are the common presenting signs of PID? Common signs of this include:
Lower abdominal pain
Abnormal and foul-smelling vaginal discharge
Increased pain with intercourse
Fever
General Malaise
Nausea and vomiting
21 emergencies gynecologic What is chlamydia? This is a common sexually transmitted disease, affecting an estimated 2.8 million Americans each year. Symptoms include lower abdominal pain, low back pain, nausea, fever, pain during intercourse, and/or bleeding between menstrual periods. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is bacterial vaginosis? This is one of the most common conditions to afflict women. Symptoms may include itching, burning, or pain. 21 emergencies gynecologic What is gonorrhea? This is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms, which are generally more severe in men than in women, appear in approximately 2 to 10 days after exposure, and include painful urination, burning or itching, yellowish or bloody discharge, and blood associated with vaginal intercourse. 21 emergencies gynecologic What should you determine if a female patient has vaginal bleeding? If she has this, determine how many pads she is using per hour. 21 emergencies gynecologic How should you intervene if the patient has vaginal bleeding? In this situation, the patient should be treated for hypoperfusion or shock. Keep her warm, place her in a supine position with her legs elevated, and provide her with supplemental oxygen even if she is not experiencing difficulty breathing, then promptly transport. 21 emergencies gynecologic What should you remember about external genital injuries? These have a rich nerve supply, making injuries very painful. Treat any external lacerations, abrasions, and tears with moist, sterile compresses, using local pressure to control bleeding and a diaper-type bandage to hold the dressings in place. 21 emergencies gynecologic What kind of pain will a patient with PID complain about? "A patient with this kind of PID will complain of abdominal pain. The pain generally starets during or after normal menstruation. The pain may be described as ""achy"" and may be made worse by walking. Other symptoms may include vaginal discharge, fever and chills, and pain or burning on urination." 21 emergencies gynecologic What percentage of women are raped in the US? One in three are raped in their lifetimes. 21 emergencies gynecologic What percentage of women will be sexually molested in their lifetimes? One in every four will be sexually molested, often before the age of 12. 21 emergencies gynecologic What special treatment principles should be applied to patients who have been sexually assaulted? In addition to the usual treatment principles, in this situation you should also:
1). Document the patient's history, assessment, treatment, and response to treatment in detail because you may have to appear in court as long as 2 or 3 years later. Do not speculate. Record only the facts.
2) Make airway maintenance a major priority.
3) Complete the SAMPLE history objectively.
4) Follow any crime scene policy established by your system to protect the scene and any potential evidence for police, particularly that for evidence collection. If the patient will tolerate being wrapped in a sterile burn sheet, this may help investigators to find any hair, fluid, or fiber from the alleged offender.
5) Do not examine the genitalia unless there is major bleeding. If an object has been inserted into the vagina or rectum, do not attempt to remove it.
6) To reduce the patient's anxiety, make sure the EMT is the same sex as the patient, whenever possible.
7) Discourage the patient from bathing, voiding, or cleaning any wounds until the hospital staff has completed an assessment. Handle the patient's clothes as little as possible, placing articles and any other evidence in paper bags. If the patient insists on urinating, ask the patient to do so in a sterile urine container (if available). Also, deposit the toilet paper in a paper bag. Seal and mark the bag for the police. This can be critical evidence.
21 emergencies gynecologic What can cause a psychological or behavioral crisis? These can be the result of the emergency situation, mental illness, mind-alternating substances, stress, or many other causes. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is the code for a psychiatric emergency? This is referred to as a section 12. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is behavior? This is what you can see of a person's response to the environment: his or her actions. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is a behavioral crisis? This is any reaction to events that interferes with the activities of daily living or has become unacceptable to the patient, family, or community. 20 emergencies psychiatric How long a period does an abnormal or disturbing pattern last before it is regarded as a matter of concern from a mental health standpoint? This is regarded as a matter of concern from a mental health standpoint if it lasts for at least a month. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is chronic depression? This is a persistent feeling of sadness and despair, and may be a symptom of a mental or physical disorder. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is a psychiatric emergency? This is an emergency in which abnormal behavior threatens a person's own health and safety or the health and safety of another person, for example when a person becomes suicidal, homicidal, or has a psychotic episode. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is a psychiatric disorder? This is an illness with psychological or behavioral symptoms that may result in impaired functioning. 20 emergencies psychiatric According to the National Institute of Mental Health, however many Americans have some type of psychiatric disorder? According to this institute, one in five Americans has some type of psychaitric disorder. 20 emergencies psychiatric What are some underlying causes of psychiatric disorders? Some underlying causes of this include:
social and situational stress such as divorce or death of a loved one,
psychiatric diseases such as schizophrenia,
physical illnesses such as diabetic emergencies,
chemical problems such as alcohol or drug use,
or biologic disturbances such as electrolyte imbalances.
20 emergencies psychiatric What are the two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for a behavioral crisis or psychiatric emergency? A physician will diagnosis these as either organic (physical) or functional (psychological). 20 emergencies psychiatric What is organic brain syndrome? This is a temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain caused by a disturbance in the physical or physiologic functioning of the brain tissue. 20 emergencies psychiatric What are some causes of organic brain syndrome? Some causes of this include:
sudden illness
recent trauma to the head
seizure disorders
drug and alcohol intoxication, overdose, or withdrawal
and diseases of the brain, such as Alzheimer disease and meningitis.
20 emergencies psychiatric What is altered mental status? This can arise from a low level of blood glucose, lack of oxygen, inadequate blood flow to the brain, and excessive heat or cold. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is a functional disorder? This is one in which the abnormal operation of an organ cannot be traced to an obvious change in the actual structure or physiology of the organ or organ system. 20 emergencies psychiatric What are some examples of psychiatric disorders? Some examples of this include schizophrenia, anxiety conditions, and depression. 20 emergencies psychiatric What are some safety guidelines for a behavioral crisis or a psychiatric emergency? Safety guidelines for these include:
1) Be prepared to spend extra time
2) Have a definite plan of action
3) Identify yourself calmly
4) Be direct
5) Assess the scene
6) Stay with the patient
7) Encourage purposeful movement (getting dressed, packing for the hospital, etc.)
8) Express interest in the patient's story
9) Do not get too close to the patient
10) Avoid fighting with the patient
11) Be honest and reassuring
12) Do not judge
20 emergencies psychiatric When trying to determine the reason for the patient's behavioral state, what 3 major areas should be considered as possible contributors? 3 major areas to consider as possible contributors to this should be:
1) Is the patient's central nervous system functioning properly?
2) Are hallucinogens or other drugs or alcohol a factor?
3) Are psychogenic circumstances, symptoms, or illness (caused by mental rather than physical factors) involved?
20 emergencies psychiatric In geriatric patients, what should you consider as a possible cause of abnormal behavior? With these patients, you should consider Alzheimer disease as a possible cause of abnormal behavior. 20 emergencies psychiatric When dealing with psychiatric emergencies, what two primary goals does the SAMPLE assessment have? This has two primary goals: recognizing major threats to life and reducing the stress of the situation as much as possible. 20 emergencies psychiatric When assessing a patient in a psychiatric emergency or behavioral crisis, what can be very useful? In this situation, it can be very useful to gather information separately from a relative or caregiver. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is psychosis? This is a state of delusion in which the person is out of touch with reality. 20 emergencies psychiatric What are some of reasons psychotic episodes occur? These occur due to:
The use of mind-altering substances
Intense stress
Delusional disorders
Schizophrenia
20 emergencies psychiatric What are some symptoms of schizophrenia? Some symptoms of this include delusions, hallucinations, a lack of interest in pleasure, and erratic speech. 20 emergencies psychiatric What guidelines should you follow when dealing with a psychotic patient? When dealing with these patients, you should
Determine if the situation is a danger to yourself or others
Identify yourself clearly
Be calm, direct, and straightforward
Maintain an emotional distance. Do not touch the patient, and do not be overly friendly or effusively reassuring.
Do not argue.
Explain what you would like to do.
Involve people the patient trusts, such as family or friends, to gain patient cooperation.
20 emergencies psychiatric When the patient has risk factors associated with suicide, what warning signs should you be alert to? When dealing with these patients, be alert for the following warning signs:
Does the patient have an air of tearfulness, sadness, deep despair, or hopelessness?
Does the patient avoid eye contact, speak slowly or haltingly, and give off a sense of vacancy?
Does the patient seem unable to talk about the future?
Is there any suggestion of suicide?
And,
Does the patient have any specific plans relating to death?
20 emergencies psychiatric What percentage of successful suicides are preceded by at least one attempt? About 80% of these were preceded by at least one attempt. 20 emergencies psychiatric What group is particularly at risk of suicide? Men who are older than 55 and are single, widowed, divorced, alcoholic, or depressed, have an especially high risk and are very often successful if they make an attempt. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is agitated delirium? This is a condition of impairment in cognitive function that can present with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions combined with restlessness or irregular physical activity. 20 emergencies psychiatric What are some common physical symptoms of agitated delirium? Common physical symptoms include hypertension, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and dilated pupils. 20 emergencies psychiatric What does a section 35 code mean? This is code for an under-the-influence situation. 20 emergencies psychiatric Should you err on the side of treatment or refusal when dealing with patients who deny treatment? In this situation, err on the side of treatment and transport. It is far easier to defend yourself against charges of battery than it is to justify abandonment. 20 emergencies psychiatric What should you ALWAYS do before restraining a patient? Before doing this, you should ALWAYS consult medical control and contact law enforcement. 20 emergencies psychiatric How many people should be present to carry out the restraint? At least four people should be present. 20 emergencies psychiatric What percentage of violent attacks does depression account for? This accounts for 20% of violent attacks. 20 emergencies psychiatric What is a seizure? This is a temproary alteration in consciousness. What are the different types of seizures? The different types of this can be classified as generalized, partial, and status epilepticus. What is a generalized seizure? This is typically charactrerized by unconsciousness and severe twitching of all the body's muscles that last several minutes or longer. It results from abnormal discharges from large areas of the brain, usually involving both hemispheres. It was formally called a grand mal seizure. What is an absence seizure? This type does not involve any changes in motor activity and is instead a brief lapse of consciousness in which the patient seems to stare and not to respond to anyone. It is also called a petit mal. What organs make up the female reproductive system? This is made up of the ovaries, the fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, vagina, and the mammary glands. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is inside each ovary? Inside each are thousands of follicles, and each follice contains an egg. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What percentage of their eggs are females born with? Females are born with all of these that they will release in their lifetime. 31 care neonatal obstetrics During each menstrual cycle, how many follicles will be successful at maturing and releasing an egg? During each one of these, there will only be one follicle (out of 10 to 20 that attempt the process each month). 31 care neonatal obstetrics When does ovulation occur? This occurs approximately 2 weeks prior to menstruation. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is endometrium? This is the lining of the inside of the uterus, and begins to thicken during ovulation. 31 care neonatal obstetrics How long after being released from the follicle will the egg die if not fertilized? This will die 36 to 48 hours after being released. 31 care neonatal obstetrics When does the shedding of the uterine walls occur (a period)? This occurs around the 28th day of a women's cycle. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is an embryo? This is a fertilized egg in the early stages. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is a fetus? This is the developing, unborn infant. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the birth canal? This is made up of the vagina and the lower third, or neck, of the uterus (cervix). 31 care neonatal obstetrics What prevents foreign contaminants from entering the uterus during pregnancy? During pregnancy, the cervix contains a mucous plug that seals the uterine opening, preventing this. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the bloodly show? This is when the cervix dilates, causing the plug to discharge into the vagina as pink-tinged mucus. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is an episiotomy? This is an incision to the perineum to prevent the tissue from tearing or ripping. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What are the mammary glands? These produce milk that is carried through ducts to the nipples to provide nourishment to the infant. Signs of pregnancy in these include increased size and tenderness. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the placenta? This is a disk-shaped structure, attached to the inner lining of the wall of uterus and is connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the placental barrier? This consists of two layers of cells, keeping circulation of the women and fetus separated but allowing nutrients, oxygen, waste, carbon dioxide, and many toxins and most medications to pass between the fetus and women. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the umbilical cord? This is the lifeline of the fetus, connecting the woman and fetus through the placenta. It contains two arteries and one vein. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What does the umbilical vein do? This carries oxygenated blood from the woman to the heart of the fetus. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What do the umbilical arteries do? These carry deoxygenated blood from the heart of the fetus to the woman. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the amniotic sac? This is a fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. Is contains about 500 to 1,000 mL of fluid, which helps insulate and protect the floating fetus. 31 care neonatal obstetrics "When a woman's ""water breaks"", what is happening?" When this happens, the amniotic sac is rupturing, and the amniotic fluid is released, removing bacteria and lubricating the birth canal. This usually signals the beginning of labor. 31 care neonatal obstetrics How many babies are actually born on their due date? Fewer than half of babies are actually born on this day. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What do most medical models base the due date on? Most medical models base this on the first day of the last menstrual cycle. This adds approximately 2 weeks to the actual pregnancy because conception occured sometime after ovulation. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What systems normally undergo changes during pregnancy? The primary systems involved with this are the respiratory, cardiovascular, and musculoskeletal systems. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What does the reproductive system do during pregnancy? In this system, hormone levels increase to support fetal development and prepare the body for childbirth. These increased hormone levels put pregnant patients at an increased risk for complications from trauma, bleeding, and some medical conditions. 31 care neonatal obstetrics Where is the uterus by the 20th week of pregnancy? By this time, the uterus is at or above the belly button. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What effects does the enlarged uterus have on the respiratory and cardiovascular systems? During pregnancy, this has a direct effect on these systems because its enlarged size results in organs being shifted from their normal positions and an overall decreased area for all of the organs to fit. 31 care neonatal obstetrics When does rapid uterine growth occur? This occurs in the second trimester of pregnancy. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What effect does an enlarged uterus have on the diaphragm? This effects the diaphragm by pushing up on it and displacing it from its normal position. As the pregnanct continues, respiratory capacity changes, with increased respiratory rates and decreasing minute volumes. You may observe a pregnant patient's increased breathing rate and a decreased ability for deep respirations. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What changes occur during pregnancy in the cardiovascular system? During pregnancy, blood volume gradually increases throughout the pregnancy to meet the increased needs of the fetus, to allow for adequate perfusion of the uterus, and to prepare for the blood loss that will occur during childbirth. 31 care neonatal obstetrics During the third trimester, how long does it take for the woman's entire blood volume to pass through the uterus? During this time, it takes 8 to 11 minutes for the woman's entire blood volume to pass through the uterus. 31 care neonatal obstetrics By the end of a pregnancy, how much will the patient's blood volume have possibly increased? By the third trimester, this may have increased by as much as 50%. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What does the increased number of blood cells during pregnancy neccesitate? This neccesitates an increased need for iron, which is why pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements to avoid becoming anemic. 31 care neonatal obstetrics How much has the patient's heart rate increased during the third trimester? This has increased up to 20%, or about 20 more beat per minute, to accomodate the increase in blood volume during this time. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What happens to a woman's ability to clot during pregnancy? During this time, a woman's ability to clot increases, in order to protect her from excessive bleeding during delivery. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What does the increased size of the uterus do to the stomach during pregnancy? This displaces the stomach upwards, and significantly increase the chance that a pregnant trauma patient will vomit and aspirate if you are unable to clear her airway. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What happens to the musculoskeletal system during pregnancy? "During pregnancy, increased hormones affect this system by making the joints more ""loose"" or less stable." 31 care neonatal obstetrics What are the three stages of labor? These stages are:
dilation of the cervix
delivery of the infant
and
delivery of the placenta
31 care neonatal obstetrics When does the first stage of labor begin and end? This begins with the onset of contractions as the fetus enters the birth canal and ends when the cervix is fully dilated. This is frequently the longest stage of labor, lasting an average of 16 hours for a first delivery, as the cervix has to be streched thin by uterine contractions until the opening is large enough for the infant to pass through into the vagina. 31 care neonatal obstetrics As contractions become more regular, how long do they last? These last about 30 to 60 seconds each. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is a primigravida? This is a woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy. Her labor will typically last longer than a multigravida. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is a multigravida? This is a woman who has experienced previous pregnancies. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is lightening? "This is when, towards the end of the third trimester of pregnancy, the head of the fetus descends into the women's pelvis as the fetus positions for delivery. This movement is accompanied by a sensation, often described as a ""relief"" because once the fetus has moved from under their rib cage, breathing becomes easier." 31 care neonatal obstetrics When does the second stage of labor begins and end? This begins when the fetus begins to enter the birth canal and ends when the infant is born. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is crowning? This is when the top of the infants head begins to appear at the vaginal opening. The perineum will also begin to bulge significantly. 31 care neonatal obstetrics When does the third stage of labor begin and end? This begins with the birth of the infant and ends with the delivery of the placenta. 31 care neonatal obstetrics How long does delivery of the placenta take? This can take up to 30 minutes, as contractions assist with the separation process and to clamp down and close the blood vessels that were connecting the placenta to the uterine lining. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is preeclampsia? This can develop after the 30th week of gestation, and is also called pregnancy-induced hypertension. Signs and symptoms include:
Headache
Seeing spots
Swelling in the hands and feet (edema)
Anxiety
High blood pressure
31 care neonatal obstetrics What is eclampsia? This is characterized by seizures that occur as a result of hypertension. To treat, lie the patient on her left side, maintain an airway, and provide supplemental oxygen with rapid transport. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is supine hypotensive syndrome? This condition is caused by compression of the descending aorta and inferior vena cava by the pregnant uterus when the patient lies supine. Hypotension (low blood pressure) results. Patients in the third trimester should always be transported on their side except during delivery. 31 care neonatal obstetrics How many pregnancies are ectopic? About 1 in 300 pregnancies are this kind. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the leading cause of maternal death in the first trimester of pregnancy? It is internal hemorrhage into the abdomen following rupture of ectopic pregnancy. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What should heighten your suspicion of a possible ectopic pregnancy? A history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal ligation, or previous ectopic pregnancies should heighten your suspicion of this. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is a miscarriage? This is a spontaneous abortion. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What should you do with vaginal hemorrhaging? In this serious situation, call for ALS backup. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is abruptio placenta? This is when the placenta separates prematurely from the wall of the uterus, and is most commonly from hypertension in the mother and as a result of trauma. Signs and symptoms include severe pain and vaginal bleeding. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is placenta previa? This is when the placenta develops over and covers the cervix. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the difference between contractions during false labor versus true labor? In the former, contractions are not regular and do not increase in intensity or frequency; contractions come and go.
In the latter, contractions, once started, consistently get stronger and closer together; change in position does not relieve contractions.
31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the difference between pain during false labor versus true labor? "In the former, pain is in the lower abdomen; contractions start and stay in the lower abdomen.
In the latter, pains and contractions start in the lower back and ""wrap around"" to the lower abdomen.
" 31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the difference between activity during false labor versus true labor? In the former, activity or changing position will alleviate the pain and contractions.
In the latter, activity may intensifty the contractions; pain and contractions are consistent in any position.
31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the difference between bloody show during false labor versus true labor? In the former, if there is any bloody show, it is brownish.
In the latter, the bloody show will be pink or red and generally accompanied by mucus.
31 care neonatal obstetrics What is the difference between fluid leakage during false labor versus true labor? In the former, there may be some leakage of fluid, but it is usually urine and will be in small amounts and smell of ammonia.
In the latter, the amniotic sac may have broken just before the contractions started or during contractions. A moderate amount of fluid will be present and may smell sweet, and fluid will continue to leak.
31 care neonatal obstetrics What is gestational diabetes? This is diabetes that developes in many women during pregnancy. It will clear up in most women after delivery. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What should you consider if you find a pregnant patient with an altered level of consciousness? In this situation, your assessment should inlcude determining if she has a history of diabetes, and you should check the blood glucose level if local protocols permit. 31 care neonatal obstetrics Why do pregnant women have an increased risk of falls? "Pregnant women have an increased risk of this because hormonal changes ""loosen"" up the joints, and the weight of the uterus and displacement of abdominal organs can change the patients center of gravity." 31 care neonatal obstetrics What percentage of penetrating abdominal trauma in pregnant patients results in fetal injury? 70% of these results in fetal injury. 31 care neonatal obstetrics In pregnant trauma patients, when should you suspect abruptio placenta? In pregnant trauma patients, you should suspect this when the MOI is blunt trauma to the abdomen and the patient's signs and symptoms are suggestive of shock. 31 care neonatal obstetrics Where should a seatbelt properly be worn on pregnant women? With these patients, the lap belt should be placed under the abdomen and over the hip bones, and the shoulder belt should be positioned between the breasts. 31 care neonatal obstetrics When dealing with a pregnant patient and her fetus, whom should you focus on? In this situation, your focus is on the assessment and management of the woman. 31 care neonatal obstetrics When treating a pregnant trauma, what are the five guidelines to follow? With these patients, follow these five guidelines:
1) Maintain and open airway.
2) Administer high-flow oxygen.
3) Ensure adequate ventilation (listen for bilateral lung sounds).
4) Assess circulation (keep patient warm).
5) Transport on left side (tilt backboard to the left with towels), with ALS intercept.
31 care neonatal obstetrics Where is the top of the uterus at 20 weeks? By this time, the top of the uterus has grown to the level of the patient's belly button. 31 care neonatal obstetrics What PPE should be used during a field delivery? For this situation, a mask gown should be used in addition to gloves and eye protection. 31 care neonatal obstetrics In the late 1700s, what was one of the most advanced professional emergency medical patient care systems in the world? In the late 1700s, Napoleon Bonaparte had one of the world's most advanced system of this in the world. 36 operations transport When did American hospitals initiate their own professional ambulance services? These began initiating their own professional ambulance services during the late 1860s. 36 operations transport What is an ambulance? This is a vehicle that is used for treating and transporting patients who need emergency medical care to a hospital. 36 operations transport When was the first motor-powered ambulance introduced? This was first introduced in 1906. 36 operations transport What are first responder vehicles? These are vehicles whuch respond initially to the scene with personnel and equipment to treat the sick and injured until an amublance can arrive. 36 operations transport According to the National Research Council of the National Academy of Sciences, what features must a modern ambulance have? According to this organization, such a vehicle has the following features:
A driver's compartment
A patient compartment that can accommodate two EMTs and two supine patients (one on the strecher, one on the bench) positioned so that at least one the patients can receive CPR during transport.
Equipment and supplies to provide emergency medical care at the scene and during transport, to safeguard personnel and patients from hazardous conditions, and to carry out light extrication procedures.
Two-way radio communication so that ambulance personnel can speak with the dispatcher, the hospital, public safety authorities, and online medical control.
Design and construction that ensure maximum safety and comfort.
36 operations transport What is a type I ambulance design? This is a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. 36 operations transport What is a type II ambulance design? This is a standard van, forward-control integral cab-body ambulance. 36 operations transport What is a type III ambulance design? This is a specialty van, forward-control integral cab-body ambulance. 36 operations transport How do you identify vehicles as ambulances? These are identified by the six-pointed Star of Life emblem. 36 operations transport What are the nine phases of an ambulance call? The nine phases of this are:
1) preparation
2) dispatch
3) en route
4) arrival at scene
5) transfer to patient to ambulance
6) en route to receiving facility (transport)
7) delivery (at the receiving facility)
8) en route to station
9) postrun
36 operations transport What is an important part of the preparation phase? An important part of this phase is making sure that equipment and supplies are in their proper places. 36 operations transport What is a general rule regarding equipment? As a general rule, the more complex one of these is and the harder it is to use, the more likely it is to malfunction during an emergency. 36 operations transport When should new equipment be placed on an ambulance? This should only be placed on an ambulance after proper instruction on its use and consulting with the medical director. 36 operations transport How should equipment be stored in the ambulance? This should be stored here according to how urgently and how often they are used. 36 operations transport What are the kinds of supplies typically carried in an ambulance? These kinds are:
1) Basic supplies
2) Airway and ventilation equipment
3) Basic Wound Care Supplies
4) Splinting Supplies
5) Childbirth Supplies
6) Automated External Defibrillator
7) Patient Transfer Equipment
8) Medications and Other Supplies
36 operations transport What are some basic supplies found in ambulances? These include: disposable gloves and sharps, sterile sheets, blankets and towels, disposable emesis bags or basins, boxes of disposable tissue, bedpans and urinals, blood pressure cuffs, stethoscopes, disposable drinking cups, unbreakable container of water, wet wipes, cold/hot packs, sterile irrigation fluid, restraining devices, plastic bags for waste, and sets of hearing protectors. 36 operations transport What are some airway and ventilation equipment found in an ambulance? Some of these include:
Oropharyngeal airways for adults, children, and infants
Nasopharyngeal airways for adults and children
Two sets of advanced airway procedure equipment (one in the ambulance and one in the jump kit) as regulated by state and local regulations
Bag-mask devices capable of oxygen enrichment are able to supply 100% oxygen
A portable and mounted suctioning unit
36 operations transport How powerful must the suctioning units found in an ambulance be? These must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of 300 mm Hg when the tube is clamped. 36 operations transport What the minimum capacity required for the portable oxygen supply unit in an ambulance? This should have a minimum of 500 L of oxygen and be able to deliver oxygen at a variable rate between 1 and 15 L/min (NB: at least one extra canister should be kept onboard as well). 36 operations transport What's the minimum capacity required for the mounted oxygen unit in the ambulance? This should have a capacity of 3,000 L. 36 operations transport Which ambulance services should have a disposable, single-use humidifier for the mounted oxygen system? Ambulance services that often transport patients on runs lasting longer than 1 hour should have one of these. 36 operations transport What is a CPR board? This provides a firm surface under the patient's torso so that you can give effective chest compressions, as well as establishing an appropriate degree of head tilt. 36 operations transport What should you use if you don't have a CPR board? "If you don't have one of these, you can place a long or short backboard under the patient on the strecher, and use a tightly rolled sheet or towel to raise the patient's shoulders 3"" to 4"", as this will keep the patient's head in a position of maximum backward tilt." 36 operations transport What are some basic wound care supplies carried in all ambulances? These include:
trauma shears
sterile sheets
sterile burn sheets
adhesive tape in several widths
self-adhering, soft roller bandages
Sterile dressings
gauze
abdominal or laparotomy pads
sterile universal trauma dressings
sterile, occlusive, nonadherent dressings
adhesive bandages
a tourniquet
(sometimes) an adult-size pneumatic antishock garment
36 operations transport What are some splinting supplies found in an ambulance? These include:
an adult-size traction splint
a child-size traction splint
arm and leg splints
triangular bandages
roller bandages
short backboard device
long backboard
head immobilization devices
cervical collars in adjustable sizes
36 operations transport What is found inside an emergency obstetric kit? These kits include:
a pair of sugical scissors, hemostats or special cord clamps, umbilical tape or sterilized cord
a small rubber bulb syringe
towels
gauze sponges
pairs of sterile gloves
sanitary napkins
a plastic bag
baby stocking cap
baby blanket
36 operations transport When was the first prehospital use of a defibrillator? This was first used in the late 1970s in New York City, by Doctor William Grace. 36 operations transport What kind of patient transfer equipment can be found in all ambulances? These include:
A primary wheeled ambulance strecher
A wheeled stair chair for use in narrow spaces
A long backboard
A short backboard or short immobilization device
A scoop stretcher
A folding stretcher
A basket stretcher
36 operations transport What is a jump kit? This contains anything you might need in the first 5 minutes with the patient except for the semiautomated external defibrillator and oxygen cylinder. 36 operations transport What kind of equipment can be found in a jump kit? "These include:
Disposable gloves
Triangular bandages
trauma shears
adhesive tape in various widths
universal trauma dressings
self-adhering soft roller bandages, 4""x 5 yd and 2"" x 5 yd
Oropharyngeal airways in adult, child, and infant sizes
Bag-mask device with masks for adults, children, and infants
Blood pressure cuff
stethoscope
penlight
sterile gauze dressings, 4"" x 4""
sterile dressings, 6"" x 9"" or 8"" x 10""
adhesive strips
oral glucose
activated charcoal
" 36 operations transport What kind of personal safety equipment should an ambulance have at all times? These include:
Face shields
gowns, shoe covers, caps
turnout gear
helmets with face shields or safety goggles
safety shoes or boots
36 operations transport What kind of equipment for work areas should an ambulance have at all times? These include:
Warning devices that flash or have reflectors
Two high-intensity halogen 20,000 candlepower flashlights
fire extinguisher, type BC, dry powder, 5-lb minimum
hard hats or helmets with faceshields or safety goggles
portalbe floodlights
36 operations transport What are some kinds of extrication equipment every ambulance should have onboard? "These include:
A 12 inch adjustable wrench
A 12 standard square bar screwdriver
An 8 Phillips head #2 screwdriver
Hacksaw with 12"" wire blades
10"" vise-grip pliers
5-lb hammer with 15"" handle
24"" fire ax
24"" wrecking bar
51"" crowbar, pitch point
Bolt cutter with 1"" to 1 1/4 jaw opening
Folding shovel with pointed blade
Tin snips, double action, 8"" minimum
Gauntlets, reinforced
Rescue blankets
Ropes, 5,400 lb tensile strength in 50' length
Mastic knife
Spring-load center punch
Roll of duct tape
Pruning saw
Heavy-duty 2"" x 4"" and 4"" x 4"" shoring blocks
" 36 operations transport What should you check during an ambulance inspection? During this, the following should be checked:
Fuel level
Oil level
Transmission fluid level
Engine cooling system and fluid levels
Batteries
Brake fluid
Engine belts
Wheels and tires, including spares
All interior and exterior lights
Windshield wipers and fluid
Horn
Siren
Air conditioners and heaters
Ventilating system
Doors
Communication systems
All windows and mirrors.
36 operations transport How should portable oxygen tanks always be secured? These should always be secured by fixed clasps or housings. Never attempt to secure a tank to the stretcher or bench, unless using a commercially manufactured device specifically designed for such purpose. 36 operations transport What is the minimum information gathered by the dispatcher during the dispatch phase of a call? The dispatcher will gather in the following information during this phase:
The nature of the call
The name, present location, and call-back telephone number
The location(s) of the patient(s)
The number of patients and some idea of the severity of their conditions
Any other special problems or pertinent information
36 operations transport What can you report to dispatch after you arrive on scene and perform a scene size up first? In this situation, you should provide dispatch with your information, which will help them decide if en route units should continue to the scene. 36 operations transport What should you do if you are the first EMT at the scene of a mass-casualty incident? If this occurs, quickly estimate the number of patients, and communicate with the incident commander. 36 operations transport Where and how should you park the ambulance? You should park this about 100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road, in a location that will not hamper leaving the scene. Parking before the scene creates a barrier between you and oncoming traffic, and may also be a good idea. It is best to park uphill and upwind of the scene if smoke or hazardous materials are present. Always leave your warning lights or devices on. 36 operations transport When should you concern yourself with restoring the flow of traffic? You should only concern yourself with this when all patients have been treated and the emergency situation is under control. 36 operations transport How do you properly secure a patient in the ambulance so the are not injured by sudden deceleration? To prevent this, use deceleration or stopping straps over the shoulders. 36 operations transport When you are ready to leave the scene with the patient (transport phase), what info should you report to dispatch? At this point, report the number of patients, the name of the receiving hospital, and the beginning mileage of the ambulance.
Then report online medical control about your patient(s) and the nature of the problem(s).
36 operations transport What is an important thing to remember during the transport phase? During this phase, it is important to not abandon the patient emotionally. 36 operations transport What are the steps to follow to transfer the patient to the receiving hospital (delivery phase)? During this phase, follow these steps:
1) Report your arrival to the triage nurse or other arrival personnel.
2) Physically transfer the patient from the stretcher to the bed directed for your patient.
3) Present a complete verbal report at the bedside to the nurse or physician who is taking over the patient's care.
4) Complete a detailed written report, obtain the required signatures, and leave a copy with an appropriate staff member.
36 operations transport What do you need to inform dispatch about once you leave the hospital (en route to station phase)? During this phase, you need to inform dispatch as to whether you are in service and where you are going. 36 operations transport What should you do as soon as you are back at the station? At this time, you should:
1) Clean and disinfect the ambulance and any equipment that was used, if you did not do so before leaving the hospital.
2) Restock any supplies you did not get at the hospital.
36 operations transport What should you do during the postrun phase? During this phase, you should complete and file any additional written reports. You are also responsible at this time for maintaining the ambulance so that it is safe and available on a moment's notice. 36 operations transport What is cleaning? This is the process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment. 36 operations transport What is disinfection? This is the killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose to a surface or equipment. 36 operations transport What is high-level disinfection? This is the killing of pathogenic agents by the use of potent means of disinfection. 36 operations transport What is sterilization? This is a process, such as the use of heat, that removes all microbial contamination. 36 operations transport What basic steps should you follow after every call? After this, do the following:
1) Strip used linens from the stretcher immediately after use, and place them in a plastic bag or in the designated receptacle in the emergency department.
2) In an appropriate receptable, discard all disposable equipment used for care of the patient that meets your state's definition of medical waste.
3) Wash contaminated areas with soap and water.
4) Disinfect all nondisposable equipment used in the care of the patient.
5) Clean the stretcher with an EPA-registered germicidal/virucidal solution or bleach and water at 1:100 dilution.
6) If any spillage or other contamination occurred in the ambulance, clean it with the same solution.
7) Create a schedule for routine full cleaning of the ambulance.
8) Have a written policy/procedure for cleaning each piece of equipment.

36 operations transport How many ambulances are involved in crashes each year in the US? More than 6,000 of these are involved in crashes each year in the US. 36 operations transport How many fatal ambulance accidents occurred between 1991 and 2001 according to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention? In this time period, there were 300 fatal abulance accidents with 275 pedestrians and motorists killed. 82 fatalities were onboard the ambulance, of which 27 were EMS personnel. 36 operations transport What is the first rule in ambulance driving? This rule is: Speed does not save lives; good care does. 36 operations transport Studies show that what percentage of EMTs wear seatbelts in the ambulance? Studies show that fewer than half do this. 36 operations transport What are some guidelines for safe ambulance driving? Some guidelines for this are as follows:
1) Select the shortest and least congested route to the scene at the time of the dispatch.
2) Avoid routes with heavy traffic congestion; know alternative routes to each hospital during rush hours.
3) Avoid one-way streets; they may become clogged.
4) Watch carefully for bystanders as you approach the scene.
5) Park the ambulance in a safe place once you arrive at the scene. If you park facing into traffic, turn off your headlights so they do not blind oncoming drivers unless needed to illuminate the scene. If the vehicle is blocking part of the road, keep your warning lights on to alert oncoming motorists; otherwise, turn them off.
6) Drive within the speed limit while transporting patients, except in the rare extreme emergency.
7) Go with the flow of the traffic.
8) Always drive defensively.
9) Always maintain a safe following distance. Stay at least 4 seconds behind another vehicle in the same lane.
10) Try to maintain an open space or cushion in the lane next to you as an escape route.
11) Use your siren if you turn on the emergency lights, except when you are on a freeway.
12) Always assume that other drivers will not hear the siren or see your emergency lights.
13) When driving on a multilane highway, you should stay in the extreme left-hand lane.
36 operations transport How might the PA system make the situation worse when driving? This might make the situation worse because motorists may hesitate or make unexpected moves so that they can hear or follow instructions. 36 operations transport Where are the 3 blind spots on an ambulance? These 3 are:
1) The mirror itself, which can obstruct the view ahead.
2) The rear; use a spotter when backing up.
3) The side of the vehicle.
36 operations transport What is a cushion of safety? "This is keeping a safe distance (c. 4 ""seconds"") between the ambulance and other vehicles on the road." 36 operations transport What is something your partner in the rear can do to discourage tailgaters? This person can stay alert for tailgaters in the rear compartment, and can look like they are visibly writing down the license plates of any tailgating cars. 36 operations transport What is the best way to distance oneself from a tailgater? The best way to handle this situation is to slow down, NOT speed up; the other driver will likely get annoyed and speed past. 36 operations transport What kind of protection do most states offer emergency vehicles traveling beyond the speed limit in emergencies? Most states offer little or no protection against prosecution in the event of this. 36 operations transport What is important to consider regarding type I and III vehicles? It is important to remember these vehicles are wider than they look from behind the steering. 36 operations transport What factors greatly influence braking and stopping distances? A vehicle's size and weight greatly influence these. 36 operations transport What should you do if you run into unexpected traffic congestion? In this situation, remember to notify the dispatcher so that other emergency vehicles can select alternative routes. 36 operations transport At what speed can hydroplaning occur? "At speeds of greater than 30 mph, this may occur as water ""piles up"" under the tires." 36 operations transport If you are on an emergency call and are using your warning lights and siren, what are you allowed to do? In this situation, you are allowed to do the following:
Park or stand in an otherwise illegal location
Proceed through a red traffic light or stop sign, but never without stopping first
Drive faster than the posted speed limit
Drive against the flow of traffic on a one-way street or make a turn that is normally illegal
Travel left of center to make an otherwise illegal pass
[NB: These exemptions vary by state and local jurisdiction]
36 operations transport What is an emergency vehicle NEVER allowed to do? "This is NEVER allowed to pass a school bus that has stopped to load or unload children and is displaying its flashing red lights or extended ""stop arm""." 36 operations transport What are the 3 basic principles that govern the use of warning lights and sirens on an ambulance? The 3 basic principles are:
1) The unit must be on a true emergency call to the best of your knowledge.
2) Both audible and visual warning devices must be used simultaneously.
3) The unit must be operated with due regard for the safety of all others, on and off the roadway.
36 operations transport Why can using a police escort be dangerous? This can be dangerous because when other motorists hear a siren and see a police car passing, they might assume that the police car is the only emergency vehicle and not see the ambulance. This is justified only when you are in unfamiliar terrain and need a guide as much as an escort. 36 operations transport When can an emergency vehicle exceed the speed limit in a school zone. An emergency vehicle can NEVER exceed the speed limit in these zones. 36 operations transport What does MDT stand for? This stands for mobile dispatch terminals. 36 operations transport What are air ambulances? These are used to evacuate medical and trauma patients. There are two different types: fixed-wing and rotary-winged. 36 operations transport When are fixed-winged aircraft used for medievac? These are usually used for interhospital patient transfers over distances greater than 100 to 150 miles. 36 operations transport How fast do most helicopters used for emergency medical operations fly? These fly in excess of 100 mph. 36 operations transport What is a medivac? This is a medical evacuation of a patient, generally performed by helicopters. 36 operations transport Why call for a medivac? Do this if:
the transport time to the hospital by ground is too long considering the patients condition.
... ... ...
Road or environmental conditions prohibit the use of a ground ambulance.
...
The patient requires advanced care that you are unable to provide, such as medication or other specialized procedures.
...
Multiple other patients will overwhelm the hospital reachable by ground transport.
36 operations transport Who receives a medivac? These should be utilized for patients with time-dependent injuries or illnesses, such as serious spinal injury, strokes, heart attacks, scuba diving accidents, and limb replantation. 36 operations transport Whom do you call for a medivac? Generally, you call your dispatcher for one of these. You may be able to access the crew on a specially designated radio frequency once it has been initiated. 36 operations transport What are the most dangerous phases of air transport? The most dangerous phases of this are take off and landing. 36 operations transport What is the most dangerous mode of operation for a helicopter? This mode of operation for a helicopter is flying straight up and down. 36 operations transport What method of landing allows for safer operations on a helicopter? Taking off at an angle is a safer method for this. 36 operations transport When selecting and establishing a landing zone, what guidelines should be considered? In this situation, consider the following:
The area should be a hard or grassy level surface of c. 100' x 100' and no less than 60' x 60'.
The area musts be clear of all loose debris, including trashbins, flares, accident tape, medical equipment and supplies.
Survey the area for overhead or tall hazards such as powerlines, antenna, and tall trees.
Mark the site with weighted cones on positioned emergency vehicles at the corners with headlights facing inward to form an X (Do not use flares)
Move all nonessentials outside of the landing zone.
Advise on wind strength and direction, using a bed sheet secured to a tree or pole as a directional aid (Never tape).
36 operations transport What does it mean when an aircraft is hot? This means the aircraft's blades are spinning. 36 operations transport How should you enter the landing zone is you are asked to enter? If you do this, stay away from the tail rotor, and never approach from the rear, even if it is not running. 36 operations transport What should you remember about the height of the main rotor blades? On many aircraft, this is flexible and may dip as low as 4' off the ground, with wind sometimes pushing it down as well. 36 operations transport What safety guidelines should you always follow when operating at a landing zone? Always follow these guidelines when operating here:
Do not approach the aircraft unless instructed by flight crew.
Make certain that all patient care equipment is properly secured to the stretcher and that the patient is fastened as well.
Smoking, open lights or flames and flares are prohibited within 50' of the aircraft.
36 operations transport What should you never do during a night landing? In this situation, do not shine spotlights or flashlights in the air to help the pilot; they may temporarily blind the pilot. 36 operations transport When an aircraft has landed on uneven ground, how should you approach it? In this situation, approach from the downhill side only. 36 operations transport What is the maximum limit on flight elevation for helicopters? This is limited to 10,000' above sea level. 36 operations transport How much do medivac flights typically cost compared to ambulance transport? These cost in the range of $8,000 to $10,000, in comparison to $400 to $1,000 for ambulance transport. 36 operations transport How often are EMTs responsible for rescue and extrication? Generally, these are not responsible for rescue and extrication. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is some protective gear needed at dangerous scenes? Some examples of this include: turnout gear, helmets, hearing protection, and fire extinguishers. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What will you often need over your disposable gloves? You should wear a pair of leather gloves over these if you are involved with extrication. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What happens to bumpers following a front or rear-end collision? "Following this, the shock absorbers within these bumpers may be compressed or ""loaded"". Avoid standing directly in front of these, as the absorbers can release and injure you." 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are the distances you should generally maintain around non-deployed airbags? "Generally, maintain at least a 5"" clearance around side-impact, 10"" around driver-side, and 20"" around passenger side." 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is the haze sometimes visible inside vehicles in which air bags have deployed? This is cornstarch or talc used to reduce friction. It may cause a minor skin irritation, so use appropriate protective gear, including eye protection. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is extrication? This is the removal from entrapment or from a dangerous situation or position. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is entrapment? This is the term used when a person is caught within a closed area with no way out or has a limb or other body part trapped. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are the 10 phases of extrication? The 10 phases of this are:
1) Preparation
2) En route to the scene
3) Arrival and scene size-up
4) Hazard control
5) Support operations
6) Gaining access
7) Emergency care
8) Removal of the patient
9) Transfer of the patient
10) Termination
37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is one of the most important resonsibilities of scene size-up? One of the most important parts of this is determining what, if any, additional resources will be needed. These may include additional EMS units and personnel, HazMat or utility departments. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle During your initial 360 walk-around of a trauma scene, what should you look for? During this, look for the following:
The mechanism of injury
Downed electrical lines
Leaking fuels or fluid
Smoke or fire
Broken glass
Trapped or ejected patients

Evaluate the need for additional resources such as:
Extrication equipment
Fire suppression
Law enforcement
HazMat units
Utility companies
Advanced life support units
Aeromedical transport
37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is the rescue team responsible for at the crash scene? This is responsible for properly securing and stabilizing the vehicle, providing safe entrance and access to the patients, extricating any patients, ensuring that patients are properly protected during extrication or other rescue activities, and providing adequate room so that patients can be removed properly. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What does SCBA stand for? This stands for a Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Should you leave the scene of a fire as soon as the fire it out? In this situation, do not leave the scene even after the fire is out because you may need to treat a fire fighter who has been injured during salvage and overhaul. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Once you arrive at the scene of a structure fire, what should you do? Once you do this, you should ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged; it is essential that the ambulance be parked far enough from the fire to be safe form the fire itself or a collapsing building. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What does FAILURE stand for? This stands for:
Failure to understand the environment or underestimating it
Additional medical problems not considered
Inadequate rescue skills
Lack of teamwork or experience
Underestimating the logistics of the incident
Rescue versus recovery mode not considered
Equipment not mastered
37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is a structure fire? This is a fire in a house, apartment building, office, school, plant, warehouse, or other building. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle In most areas, when is an ambulance dispatched with the fire department? In most areas, this is dispatched with the fire department apparatus to any structure fire, whether or not injuries are reported. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What does SWAT stand for? This stands for:
Special
Weapons
And
Tactics
37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is a tactical situation? This is a hostage, robbery, or other situation in which armed conflict is threatened or shots have been fired and the threat of violence remains. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is the command post? This is the location of the incident commander. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Once you arrive at a tactical situation, what should be coordinated between the EMT team and the incident commander? In this situation, the following information should be coordinated:
Specific location information of the incident (including the street address and the side of the street.
A safe location where you can meet SWAT team members should an injury occur, as well as a safe route to this point.
A primary and secondary helicopter landing zone.
The closest hospital, burn center, and trauma center, as well as routes to these.
37 extraction rescue special vehicle When arriving at a tactical situation, what should you do? When arriving here, lights and sirens should be turned off when nearing the scene, and outside radio speakers should not be used. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle How deep a trench can medical or rescue personnel enter? At no time should medical or rescue personnel enter one of these deeper than 4' without proper shoring in place. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle How far back should traffic be diverted from a collapse scene? This should be diverted 500' back from the scene. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle How far back should response vehicles be parked back from a cave-in or trench collapse? Response vehicles should be park at least 500' back from the scene of one of these incidents. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Who is the only person permitted to communicate any news or progress of the search to the family? Only the incident commander should communicate the progress of this situation. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle As an EMT, what will your role be during a lost person search and rescue? As an EMT, your role during one of these sitautions will be to stand by at the command post until the person or people has been found. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle How should you treat all downed wires? You should treat all of these as live until you receive specific clearance otherwise. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is a technical rescue situation? This requires special technical skills and equipment in one of many specialized situations, such as cave-ins, rope rescues, and others. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is a technical rescue group? This is made up of individuals from one or more departments in a region who are trained and on call for certain types of technical rescues. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Who is the incident commander? This is the individual who has over-all command of the scene in the field. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are the specialized skills need by technical rescue teams? Some skills needed by these kinds of teams include:
Cave rescue
Confined space rescue
Cross-field and trail rescue (park rangers)
Dive rescue
Lost person search and rescue
Mine rescue
Mountain, rock, and ice-climbing rescue
Ski slope and cross-country or trail snow rescue (ski patrol)
Structural collapse rescue
SWAT
Technical rope rescue (low- and high-angle)
Trench rescue
Water and small craft rescue
White-water rescue
37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is termination? This involves returning the emergency units to service. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle How should you move a patient? Move this person in a series of smooth, slow, controlled steps, with stops designated between them to allow for the repositioning and adjustment that are needed. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are EMS personnel responsible for at extrication scenes? EMS personnel at these scenes are responsible for assessing and providing immediate medical care, triaging and assigning priority to patients, packaging patients, providing additional assessment and care as needed once patients are removed, and providing transport to the emergency department. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are law enforcement personnel responsible at an extrication scene? These personnel are responsible for traffic control and direction, maintaining order at the scene, investigating the crash or crime scene, and establishing and maintaining lines so that bystanders are kept at a safe distance and out of the way of rescuers. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are fire fighting personnel responsible for at the extrication scene? These personnel are responsible for extinguishing any fires, preventing further ignition, ensuring that the scene is safe, and removing any spilled fuel. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle If power lines are touching or located in proximity to a vehcile involved in a crash, what should you do? In this situation, patient should be instructed to remain in the vehicle until power is removed. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is the safe zone? This is an area of protection providing safety from the hot zone. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is the hot zone? This is an area where individuals can be exposed to electrical hazards such as sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, lethal rays, or ignition or explosion of hazardous materials. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle How can vehicles themselves be dangerous to you? These can be a hazard when they are on their side or roof. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What should you do prior to attempting to gain access to a vehicle involved in a crash? "Prior to doing this, you should ensure that the vehicle is in ""park"" with the parking brake set and the ignition is turned off." 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What should you do to the battery of a car involved in a crash prior to attempting to gain access to it? Prior to this, the battery should be disconnected, negative side first, to minimize the possibility of sparks or fire. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Where are many batteries for alternative fuel vehicles located? In more than 40% of these vehicles, the batteries are not located in the engine compartment. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Which kind of batteries have higher amperes? Hybrid car versions of these have higher amperes than traditional. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are some examples of support operations? Some examples of these include:
lighting the scene
establishing tool and equipment staging areas
marking helicopter landing zones
37 extraction rescue special vehicle In a multiple vehicle crash scene, what important step should you do before you proceed with any treatment and patient packaging? Before doing any of this, you should locate and rapidly triage each patient to determine who needs urgent care. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What are some vehicle extrication techniques? Some examples of these techniques include:
Brake and gas pedal displacement
Dash roll-up
Door removal
Roof opening and removal
Seat displacement
Steering column displacement
Steering wheel cutting
37 extraction rescue special vehicle How should you protect yourself and the patient during the removal phase? During this phase, both you and the patient should be covered by a thick, fire-resistant canvas or blanket for protection from broken glass and other hazards. It is also often noisy, so hearing protection is also essential. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is disentanglement? This, also called extrication, involves the removal of the patient from a dangerous situation or position. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Who is responsible for the assessment and care of the patient at an extrication scene? The team leader, customarily the senior medical person is responsible for this. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is complex access? This requires the use of special tools, such as hand, pneumatic, and hydraulic devices, and special training that includes breaking windows or other means of forcible entry. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, and unless there is an immediate threat of fire, explosion or other danger, what should you do? In this situation at this time, you should perform a primary assessment and provide care before further extrication begins, as follows:
1) Provide manual stabilization
2) Open the airway
3) Provide high-flow oxygen
4) Assist or provide for adequate ventilation
5) Control any significant external bleeding
6) Treat all critical injuries
37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is simple access? This is getting to the patient as quickly and simply as possible without using any tools or breaking any glass. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What tools should be available for use to gain access to the patient when delayed access could be life-threatening and the rescue team has not arrived? In this situation, simple hand tools, such as hammers, center punches, pry bars, and hacksaws should be available on the ambulance. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What should you always do with the patient during extrication? During this, remember to always talk to the patient and describe what you are going to do before you do it and as you are doing it, even if you think the patient is unconscious. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle In what common position is CPR NOT effective? This is not effective when the patient is in a sitting position or lying on the soft seat of a vehicle. You may have to use the rapid extrication technique to move the patient. 37 extraction rescue special vehicle What is a seizure? This is a temporary alteration in consciousness. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a generalized seizure? This is typically characterized by unconsciousness and a generalized severe twitching of all of the body's muscles that lasts several minutes or more. It results from abnormal discharges from large areas of the brain, usually involving both hemispheres. 15 emergencies neurologic What is an absence seizure?  This is characterized by a brief lapse of consciousness in which the patient seems to stare and not to respond to anyone. It was formerly called a petit mal. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a partial seizure? This begins in one part of the brain and is classified as simple or complex. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a simple partial seizure? In this, there is no change in the patient's level of consciousness. Patients may complain of numbness, weakness, or dizziness. They may report visual changes and unusual smells or tastes. Twitching of extremities and brief paralysis are also possible. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a complex partial seizure? In this, the patient has an AMS. This results from abnormal discharges from the temporal lobe of the brain. Other characteristics may be lip smacking, eye blinking, isolated convulsions. Unpleasant smells, visual halluncinations, uncontrollable fear, repetitive physical behavior are also possible. 15 emergencies neurologic What is an aura? This is something a patient may experience prior to an seizure as a warning. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a tonic phase? This may occur right before a seizure, usually lasting only a few seconds, and involves constant muscle contraction and trembling, tongue biting, and bladder and/or bowel incontinence. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a tonic-clonic seizure? In this, the patient may exhibit bilateral movement characterized by muscle rigidity and relaxation usually lasting 1 to 3 minutes. During this, the patient exhibits tachycardia, hyperventilation, sweating, and intense salivation. 15 emergencies neurologic How long do most seizures last? These usually last 3 to five minutes. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a postictal state? This is a lengthy period (5 to 30 minutes) immediately following a seizure. The patient gradually regains consciousness, and the state is over when the patient regains a complete return of his or her normal level of consciousness. 15 emergencies neurologic What is status epilepticus? This condition is when seizures continue every few minutes without the person regaining consciousness or last longer than 30 minutes. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some causes of seizures? These include high fever, structural problems in the brain, or metabolic or chemical problems in the body. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some medications for controlling seizures? Some examples of these medications are phenytoin (Dilantin), phenobarbital, or carbamazepine (Tegretol). 15 emergencies neurologic What is a cause of epileptic seizures? One cause of these is congenital. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some causes of structural seizures? Some causes of these include: Tumors, infections, scar tissue from injury, head trauma, and strokes. 15 emergencies neurologic What are some causes of metabolic seizures? Some causes of these include: Hypoxia, abnormal blood chemical values, hypoglycemia, poisoning, drug overdose, and sudden withdrawal from alcohol or medications. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a cause of febrile seizures? This is caused by a sudden high fever. They are generally well tolerated by children, but transport to a hospital is necessary. 15 emergencies neurologic What is a result of the constant muscle contraction during a seizure? A result of this is that the muscles use a lot of oxygen. There is therefore a buildup of acids in the bloodstream, and the patient may turn cyanotic from lack of oxygen. 15 emergencies neurologic What might a seizure cause in a diabetic patient? In these kinds of patients, the blood glucose value may drop because of excessive muscular contraction of a seizure. 15 emergencies neurologic What is one clue that an unconscious or confused patient may have had a seizure? One clue that an unconscious or confused patient may have had one of these is to find that they were incontinent. 15 emergencies neurologic What happens during the postictal state? During this state, muscles become flaccid, breathing becomes labored in an attempt to compensate for the buildup of acids in the bloodstream. 15 emergencies neurologic What is hemiparesis? This is weakness on one side of the body, resembling a stroke. 15 emergencies neurologic What is one way to differentiate between a patient who has had a stroke, and a hypoglycemic patient? One way to differentiate between these two kinds of patients is:
A patient who has had a stroke may be alert and attempting to communicate normally, whereas a patient with hypoglycemia almost always has an altered or decreased level of consciousness.
15 emergencies neurologic When should you especially consider hypoglycemia in a patient who has had a seizure? You should especially consider this in the seizure patient if they have a history of diabetes. 15 emergencies neurologic Is AMS a symptom or a disease? Remember this is a symptom, not a disease. 15 emergencies neurologic What are the Tips of the Vowels (for reviewing possible causes of AMS)? T Trauma
I Infection
P Psychogenic causes
S Seizure / Syncope

A Alcohol
E Electrolytes
I Insulin
O Opiates
U Uremia (Toxic condition from kidney disease)
15 emergencies neurologic What is the optimal treatment window for stroke victims? The optimal treatment for this kind of patient is 3 hours. 15 emergencies neurologic What does CT stand for? This stands for computed tomography, and blood is easy to see on these scans. 15 emergencies neurologic "Why is it important to recognize a patient as a ""stroke alert"" and warn the hospital staff ASAP?" This is important because most hospitals do not have CT technicians available 24 hours a day. 15 emergencies neurologic In the Glasgow coma scale, what are the 4 levels of eye opening? They are:
4 Spontaneous
3 In reponse to speech
2 In reponse to pain
1 None
15 emergencies neurologic In the Glasgow coma scale, what are the 4 levels of verbal response? 5 Oriented conversation
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incomprehensible sounds
1 None
15 emergencies neurologic In the Glasgow coma scale, what are the 4 levels of motor response? 6 Obeys commands
5 Localizes pain
4 Withdraws to pain
3 Abnormal flexion
2 Abnormal extension
1 None
15 emergencies neurologic In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, what are the normal and abnormal results of the facial droop test (ask patient to show teeth or smile)? Normal: Both sides of face move easily well.

Abnormal: One side of the face does not move as well as other.
15 emergencies neurologic In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, what are the normal and abnormal results of the arm drift test (ask patient to close eyes and hold both arms out with palms up)? Normal: Both arms move the same, or both arms do not move.

Abnormal: One arm does not move, or one arm drifts down compared with the other side.
15 emergencies neurologic "In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, what are the normal and abnormal results of the speech test (ask patient to say ""the sky is blue in Cincinnati)?" Normal: Patient uses correct words with no slurring.

Abnormal: Patient slurs words, uses inappropriate words, or is unable to speak.
15 emergencies neurologic According to the American Heart Association, how many Americans died of cardiovascular disease in 2005? 864,480 Americans died of this disease in 2005. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What percentage of deaths in America is caused by cardiovascular disease? 35.5% of all deaths in America is caused by this. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What divides the heart down the middle? It is divided by a wall called the septum. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the atrium? This is the upper chamber of the heart that receives incoming blood. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the ventricle? This is the lower chamber of the heart, and pumps out the outgoing blood. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the aorta? This is the body's main artery, and it receives the blood ejected from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What does the right side of the heart do? This side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the veins of the body, through the vena cava. After contraction of the ventricle on this side, blood flows into the pulmonary artery where the blood is oxygenated. 14 cardiovascular emergencies How does the oxygenated blood return to the heart? This returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins to the left side of the heart. 14 cardiovascular emergencies Why is the left side of the heart more muscular than the right? This side is more muscular because it has to pump blood into the aorta and all other arteries of the body. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is automaticity? This is a special characteristic foubd in cardiac muscle cells. It allows a cardiac muscle cell to contract spontaneously without stimulus from a nerve-source. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the autonomic nervous system? This is the part of the brain that controls the functions of the body that do not require conscious thought, such as the heartbeat, respirations, dilation and constriction of blood vessels, and digestion of food. It has two parts: The sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What does the sympathetic nervous system do? This speeds up the heart rate, increases respiratory rate and depth, dilates blood vessels in the muscle, and constricts blood vessels in the digestive system. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What does the parasympathetic nervous system do? This directly opposes the other system, it slows the heart and respiratory rates, constricts blood vessels in the muscles, and dilates blood vessels in the digestive system. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the mycardium? This is heart muscle, and must have a continuous supple of oxygen and nutrients. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is stroke volume? This is the volume of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What are coronary arteries? These are blood vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is occlusion? This is another term for blockage. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is lumen? This is the inside diameter of the artery. It narrows as a person ages. 14 cardiovascular emergencies Where can the posterior tibial pulse be felt? This can be felt on the inside of the ankle. 14 cardiovascular emergencies Where can the dorsalis pedis pulse be felt? This can be felt at the top of the foot. 14 cardiovascular emergencies Where can the brachial pulse be felt? This can be felt on the inside of the upper arm. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is a thromboembolism? This is a blood clot that is floating through blood vessels until it reaches an area too narrow for it to pass. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? This is a blockage that occurs in a coronary artery, and is also known as a heart attack. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is cardiac arrest? This is the complete stopage of the heart, caused by infarction, or death of heart tissue. It is determined by the absence of a palpable pulse at the carotid artery. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is acute coronary syndrome (ACS)? This describes a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia, or a decrease blood flow to the heart, which leads to chest pain. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is angina pectoris? This is when, for a brief time, heart tissues are not getting enough oxygen. It is often a symptom of atherosclerotic coronary artery disease. 14 cardiovascular emergencies Why is fast action so critical in treating an A.M.I. (A.K.A. a heart attack)? Fast action is critical in treating this because once dead, heart muscle tissue cannot be revived. Instead, they turn into scar tissue and become a burden to the beating heart. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the timeline for an AMI? During this, 30 minutes after blood flow is cut off, some cells begin to die. After 2 hours, as many as half. After 4-6, more than 90%. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What are the signs and symptoms of AMI? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Sudden onset fo weakness, nausea, and sweating without an obvious cause.
Chest pain, discomfort, or pressure that is often crushing or squeezing and that does not change with each breath.
Pain, discomfort, or pressure in the lower jaw, arms, back, abdomen, or neck.
Irregular heartbeat and syncope.
Shortness of breath, or dyspnea
Pink, frothy sputum
Sudden death
14 cardiovascular emergencies How is the pain of an AMI different from the pain of angina? It is different from angina in three ways:
It can occur during exercise OR when a person is sitting quietly or even sleeping.
It does not resolve in a few minutes; rather, it can last between 30 minutes and several hours.
It may or may not be relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.
14 cardiovascular emergencies What are the physical findings of AMI? These are:
Nausea, vomiting, sweating, pale skin, possible cyanosis, irregular or even a slowing of the pulse, bradycardia if the inferior portion of the heart has been damaged, difficulty breathing, and an impending sense of doom.
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is an arrhythmia? This is an abnormality of heart rhythm, whereby the heart is using up energy without pumping any blood. It is also known as ventricular fibrillation. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is tachycardia? This is rapid beating of the heart, 100 BPM or higher. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is bradycardia? This is unusually slow beating of the heart, 60 BPM or less. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is ventricular tachycardia? This occurs when electrical activity starts in the ventricle instead of the atrium, causing a rapid heart rate of 150-200 BPM. Blood pressure falls, pulse drops, and may deteriorate into ventricular defibrillation. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is congestive heart failure (CHF)? This is when the ventricular heart muscle is so damaged that it can no longer keep up with the return flow of blood from the atria. Blood backs up in the pulmonary veins, increasing pressure in the capillaries of the lungs and forcing water into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is dependent edema? This is the collection of fluid in the part of the body that is closest to the ground. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is a hypertensive emergency? This is when the systolic pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is an aortic aneurysm? This is a weakness in the wall of the aorta, making it susceptible to rupture. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is a dissecting aneurysm? This occurs when the inner layers of the aorta become separated, allowing blood to flow between the layers. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is special consideration for atheltic patients? These patients tend to have slower heart rates at rest. 14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the difference between AMI and dissecting aneurysm regarding the onset of pain? The difference between the two is:
AMI: Gradual, with additional symptoms.
Dissecting Aneurysm: Abrupt, without additional sympoms.
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the difference between AMI and dissecting aneurysm regarding the quality of pain? The difference is:
AMI: Tightness or pressure
Dissecting aneurysm: Sharp or Tearing
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the difference between AMI and dissecting aneurysm regarding the severity of pain? The difference is:
AMI: Increases with time
Dissecting aneurysm: Maximal from the outset
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the difference between AMI and dissecting aneurysm regarding the timing of pain? The difference is:
AMI: May wax and wane
Dissecting Aneurysm: Does not abate once it has started
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the difference between AMI and dissecting aneurysm regarding the region/radiation of pain? The difference is:
AMI: Substernal; back rarely involved
Dissecting Aneurysm: Back possibly involved, between the shoulder blades
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is the difference between AMI and dissecting aneurysm regarding clinical signs? The difference is:
AMI: Peripheral pulses equal
Dissecting Aneurysm: Blood pressure discrepancy between arms or decrease in femoral or carotid pulse.
14 cardiovascular emergencies What is dyspnea? This is when a patient reports feeling short of breath or has difficulty breathing. 13 emergencies respiratory What structures make up the upper airway? This consists of the nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx. 13 emergencies respiratory What divides the upper and lower airway? These are divided by the larnyx. 13 emergencies respiratory What is carbon dioxide retention? This is the failure of the respiratory center in the brain to respond normally to a rise in arterial levels of carbon dioxide. 13 emergencies respiratory What is the hypoxic drive? This is a secondary drive which stimulates the respiratory center. 13 emergencies respiratory What is the normal breathing rate of an adult patient? This is 12-20 BPM. 13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of asthma? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Wheezing on inspiration / expiration
Bronchospasm
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? Signs and symptoms include:
Flushed skin or hives
Generalized edema
Decreased blood pressure
Laryngeal edema with dyspnea
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of bronchitis? Signs and symptoms include:
Chronic cough
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Productive cough
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? Signs and symptoms include:
Dependent edema
Rales
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of croup? Signs and symptoms include:
Fever
Barking cough
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema? Signs and symptoms include:
Barrel chest
Pursed lip breathing
Dyspnea on exertion
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia? Signs and symptoms include:
Dyspnea
Chills, fever
Cough
Dark sputum
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax? Signs and symptoms include:
Sudden chest pain with dyspnea
Decreased lung sounds/affected side
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism? Signs and symptoms include:
Sharp, pinpoint pain
Dyspnea
Sudden onset
After childbirth or surgery
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax? Signs and symptoms include:
Progressive shortness of breath
Increasing altered level of consciousness
Neck vein distention
Tracheal deviation
13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pertussis? "Signs and symptoms include:
Coughing spells
""Whooping"" sound
Fever
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
" 13 emergencies respiratory As you treat patients with disorders of the lungs, what situations should you be aware of? While treating these kinds of patients, be aware of these situations:
Gas exchange between alveoli and pulmonary circulation is obstructed by fluid in the lung, infection, or collapsed alveoli (atelectasis)
The alveoli are damaged and cannot transport gases properly across their own walls
The air passages are obstructed by muscle spasm, mucus, or weakened floppy airway walls
Blood flow to the lungs is obstructed by blood clots
The pleural space is filled with air or excess fluid, so the lungs cannot properly expand
13 emergencies respiratory What is atelectasis? This is the collapse of the alveolar space in the lungs. 13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of bronchitis? Characteristics of this are:
An acute or chronic inflammation of the air passages (bronchi and bronchioles) often due to infection, usually associated with productive cough, and usually presents without fever
Accumulation of fluid within the air passages, as well as swelling of the walls, resticts air flow and may lead to signs of asthma such as wheezing. It is often associated with rhonchi. Crackles are not usually present unless pneumonia has developed.
The breathing pattern in bronchitis does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of the common cold? Characteristics of this are:
A viral infection usually associated with swollen nasal mucous membranes and the production of fluid from the sinuses and nose.
Dyspnea is not severe; patients complain of stuffiness of difficulty breathing through the nose.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of TB? Characteristics of this are:
A disease that can lay dormant in a person's lungs for decades, then reactivate.
Dangerous because many TB strains are resistant to many antibiotics.
Spread by cough. Droplet nuclei can remain intact for decades.
Use a high-efficiency air particulate, or HEPA, respirator.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of diphtheria? Characteristics of this are:
Highly contagious and serious when it occurs
The formation of diphtheritic membrane lining the pharynx that is composed of debris, inflammatory cells, and mucus. This membrane can rapidly and severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of pneumonia? Characteristics of this are:
An acute bacterial or viral infection of the lung that damages lung tissue, usually associated with fever, cough, and production of sputum.
Fluid also accumulates in the surrounding normal lung tissue, separating the alveoli from their capillaries (fluid can also accumulate in the pleural space).
The lung's ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired
The breathing pattern in pneumonia does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of epiglottitis? Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation of the epiglottis due to bacterial infection that can produce severe swelling of the flap over the larynx.
Can swell to two or three times its normal size, especially in young children.
The airway may become almost completely obstructed, sometimes quite suddenly.
Stridor (harsh, high-pitched, continued rough, barking inspiratory sounds) may be heard late in the development of airway obstruction.
Characterized in adults by a severe sore throat.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of croup? Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation and swelling of the whole airway (pharynx, larynx, and trachea) typically seen in children 6 months - 3 years old.
Stridor and a seal-bark cough, which signal a significant narrowing of the air passage of the trachea that may progress to significant obstruction.
Often responds well to the administration of humidified oxygen.
Rarely seen in adults because that airways are larger.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Respiratory syncytial virus? Characteristics of this are:
A major cause of illness in young children
Causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages
Can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia
Highly contagious and spread through droplets
Survives on surfaces, including hands and clothing
Look for signs of dehydration
Humidified oxygen is helpful if available
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characterisitcs of pertussis (whooping cough)? "Characteristics of this include:
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years.
Patient will be feverish and exhibit a ""whoop"" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack.
Highly contagious through droplet infection
Coughing spells, which can last for more than a minute, in which the child may turn red or purple.
Does not cause the typical whooping illness in adults. It causes a severe upper respiratory infection that could be an entry pathway to pneumonia in older people.
" 13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)?
Characteristics of this are:
A serious, potentially life-threatening viral infection caused by a recently discovered family of viruses best known as the second most common cause of the common cold.
Usually starts with flu-like symptoms, and may progress to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and, in some cases, death.
SARS is thought to be transmitted primarily by close person-to-person contact.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Influenza type A? Characteristics of this are:
A virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans.
A flu that has the potential to spread at a pandemic level.
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Meningococcal meningitis? Characteristics of this include:
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord that can be highly contagious.
The bacteria can be spread through the exchange of respiratory and throat secretions through coughing and sneezing.
The effects are lethal in some cases. Victims who survive can be left with brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disabilities.
Patients may present with flulike symptoms, but unique to this are high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and a stiff neck in adults. Patients soemtimes have an altered level of consciousness and can have red blotches on skin.
Use respiratory protection, and report and potential cases.
13 emergencies respiratory What is pulmonary edema? This is a build up of fluid between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries, which interferes with the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen. It can result from heart muscle so injured after a heart attack or other illness that it cannot circulate blood properly; in these cases, the left side of the heart cannot remove blood from the lung as fast as the right side delivers it. Patients with this usually experience dyspnea with rapid, shallow respirations, or frothy pink sputum at the nose in mouth in severe cases. 13 emergencies respiratory What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? The is the slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction. An estimated 12.1 million adults are reported to have this disease, and is the fourth leading cause of death. 13 emergencies respiratory What is chronic bronchitis? This is an ongoing irritation of the trachea and bronchi; excess mucus obstructs small airways and alveoli. This can lead to right-sided heart failure and fluid retention, such as edema in the legs. 13 emergencies respiratory What is emphysema? This is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli when inflamed airways (due to smoking for example) obstruct easy explusion of gases. 13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of COPD? Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the lung characterized by shortness of breath and wheezing.
Home oxygen, bronchodilators, and steroids for treatment.
Breathing progressively worse over time.
Usually in long-term smokers
Shortness of breath mostly on exertion
Chronic coughing
Sputum may be thick
No jugular vein distention or dependent edema
Patient usually thin with a barrel chest
13 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Congestive Heart Failure? Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the heart characterized by shortness of breath, edema, and weakness.
Diuretics prescribed to help promote cardiac function and to reduce fluid loads on the heart.
Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Patient may or may not smoke.
Shortness of breath all the time.
Coughing
Sputum may be pink and frothy.
Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.
May have distended abdomen.
13 emergencies respiratory What is the sequence of events in anaphylaxis? The sequence of events for this is:
A. The antigen is introduced to the body.
B. The antigen-antibody reaction at the surface of a mast cell.
C. Release of a cell chemical mediators.
D. Chemical mediators exert their effects on end organs.
13 emergencies respiratory What is pneumothorax? This is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space. It is often caused by trauma. 13 emergencies respiratory When may spontaneous pneumothorax occur? This tends to occur in patients with certain chronic lung infections or in young people born with weak areas of the lung, and often during severe coughing. 13 emergencies respiratory What is pleuritic chest pain? This is a sharp, stabbing pain on one side that is worse during inspiration and expiration or with certain movements of the chest wall. 13 emergencies respiratory What is a pleural effusion? This is a collection of fluid outside the lung on one or both sides of the chest. Patients will have decreased lung sounds and will feel better sitting upright. 13 emergencies respiratory What is a tonic-clonic seizure? This, also called a grand mal seizure, is one in which the patient has a sudden loss of consciousness, rapid muscle movement of the body, and often incontinence. This type of seizure typically only lasts minutes. 13 emergencies respiratory What is status epilipticus? This is when a patient continues to have seizures every few minutes without regaining consciousness, and/or the seizure lasts longer than 30 minutes. It could be life threatening. 13 emergencies respiratory What is an embolus? This is anything in the circulatory system that moves from it's point of origin to a distant site and lodges there, obstructing subsequent blood flow in that area. 13 emergencies respiratory What is a pulmonary embolism? This is the passage of a blood clot formed in a vein, usually in the legs or pelvis, that breaks off and circulates through the venous system, enters the pulmonary artery, where it becomes lodged, significantly decreasing or blocking blood flow. Arterial carbon dioxide rises, and oxygen level may drop enough to cause cyanosis. 13 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolisms? Signs and symptoms of these include:
Dyspnea
Acute chest pain
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
Cyanosis
Tachypnea
Vary degrees of hypoxia
13 emergencies respiratory What is acidosis? This is the buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from the primary illness. 13 emergencies respiratory What is alkalosis? This is the buildup of excess base in the body fluids. 13 emergencies respiratory What is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? This is a bacterium that can cause infection in different parts of the body and is transmitted by different routes. It is resistant to many commonly used antibiotics. 13 emergencies respiratory What is tuberculosis (TB)? This is an infection most commonyl found in the lungs but can also affect any organ of the body, including the kidneys, bones, and meninges. 13 emergencies respiratory What are adventitious breath sounds? These are abnormal, decreased, or absent breath sounds. 13 emergencies respiratory What are vesicular breath sounds? These are normal breath sounds in a patient. 13 emergencies respiratory What are some risk factors for congestive heart failure? Risk factors for this include hypertension and a history of coronary artery disease and/or atrial fibrillation, a condition in which the atria no longer contract, but quiver. 13 emergencies respiratory What are some signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? Signs and symptoms of this are:
cool, diaphoretic, and/or cyanotic skin
Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles, wheezing, or rales
A tachycardiac pulse.
13 emergencies respiratory What is cystic fibrosis (CF)? This is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. This disrupts the normal function of cells that make up the sweat glands in the skin and that also line the lungs and digestive and reproductive systems. 13 emergencies respiratory What does croup often respond well to? This often responds well to humidified oxygen. 13 emergencies respiratory What is proper treatment for hyperventilation? Proper treatment for this consists of: reassuing the patient, supplying supplemental oxygen, and providing prompt transport to the emergency department. 13 emergencies respiratory What is the proper treatment for pulmonary embolism? Proper treatment for this consists of: Placing the patient in a comfrotable position, be aware of possible hemoptysis as an airway obstruction, and transport promptly, as this may cause cardiac arrest. 13 emergencies respiratory What should you watch for in patients with COPD? Oftentimes these patients will overuse their inhalers, so watch for side effects. 13 emergencies respiratory What does PASTE stand for? This stands for:
Progression: You want to know if the problem started suddenly or has worsened
Associated chest pain: Dyspnea can be a significant symptom of a cardiac problem.
Sputum: Mucus like sputum could indicate a respiratory infection, while frothy pink sputum indicates fluid in the lungs.
Talking tiredness: How many words a patient can saw between breaths.
Exercise tolerance: What activity was the patient doing before the problem started.
13 emergencies respiratory What is wheezing? This is a sound that is generally heard on exhalation as a high-pitched, almost whistling sound. It is extremely common in patients with asthma and sometimes in patients with COPD; it indicates constriction and/or inflammation in the bronchus. 13 emergencies respiratory What are rales? "These are the sounds of air trying to pass through fluid in the alveoli. It is a crackling or bubbling sound typically heard on inspiration. There are high-pitched ""fine"" sounds and low-pitched ""coarse"" sounds. These often indicate congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other fluid in the lungs." 13 emergencies respiratory What are rhonchi? "These are lower pitched sounds caused by secretions or mucus in the larger airway. The sound resembles rattling or is sometimes referred to as ""junky"" lung sounds. It indicates infections, pneumonia, or bronchitis." 13 emergencies respiratory What is stridor? This is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration as air tries to pass through obstruction in the upper airway. This indicates a partial obstruction of the trachea and is seen in patients with anatomic or foreign body airway obstruction. 13 emergencies respiratory What is an example of an endocrine condition? An example of this kind of condition is diabetes mellitus. 12 medical overview What are the 5 major components of patient assessment? These are:
Scene size-up
Primary assessment
History taking
Secondary assessment
Reassessment
12 medical overview What is the index of suspicion? This is your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. 12 medical overview Where can the pulse be most stronly palpated? This can be most strongly palpated at the carotid artery. 12 medical overview What kinds of patients are always considered in serious condition and should be transported immediately? These kinds of patients include:
Patients who are unconscious or who have an altered mental status
Patients with airway or breathing problems
Patients with obvious  circulation problems such as severe bleeding or signs of shock
12 medical overview How often should you recheck vitals? You should recheck these every 5 minutes for unstable patients or every 15 minutes for stable patients. 12 medical overview How much time should you spend on scene? You should spend no more than 10 minutes here. 12 medical overview What should you remember about stable patients who are also very old or very young? You should remember that these types of patients should still be considered critical. 12 medical overview What are some typical chief complaints? Typical kinds of these include fever. nausea, rash, pleuritic chest pain, and difficulty breathing. 12 medical overview What are some general management principles? Some of these include:
Place the patient in the position of comfort on the stretcher to keep warm.
Be empathetic.
Always show respect for the feelings of the patient and family members.
12 medical overview What is herpes simplex? This is a common virus strain carried by humans. 80% of individuals carrying it are asymptomatic. 12 medical overview What other virus is far more contagious than HIV? Hepatitis B is far more contagious than this. 12 medical overview How is syphilis transmitted? This disease is transmitted both sexually and via bloodborne vectors. 12 medical overview What is a common symptom of initial syphilis infection? An initial infection of this disease is a lesion called a chancre, commonly located in the genital region. 12 medical overview What is virulence? This is the strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease. 12 medical overview What is meningitis? This is an inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord. Signs and symptoms are fever, headache, stiff neck, and AMS. It is highly contagious. 12 medical overview How long can Mycobacterium tuberculosis remain alive? As long as they are shielded from ultraviolet light, these bacterium can stay alive for decades. 12 medical overview What is another name for H1N1? "Another name for this is the ""swine flu""." 12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis A? Characteristics of this are:
Route infection via fecal-oral, infected food, or drink
An incubation period of 2-6 weeks
A vaccine is available, and no treatment is available
Mild illness, approx. 2% or people die.
After infection, patient has life-long immunity
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis B? Route of infection via blood, sexual contact, saliva, urine, breast milk
4-12 week incubation period
Chronic infection affect up to 10% of pateints and 90% of newborns
Vaccine available, treatment is minimally effective.
Up to 30% of patients may become chronic carriers; patients are asymptomatic and without signs of liver disease. Approx. 1-2% of patients die.
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis C? Route of infection via blood or sexual contact
2-10 week of incubation
Chronic infection affects 90% of patients
No vaccine available, treatment minimally effective
Cirrhosis of the liver develops in 50% of patients; chronic infection increases the risk of liver cancer
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis D? Route of infection via blood or sexual contact
4-12 weeks of incubation
Chronic infection common
No vaccine or treatment available
Occurs only in patients with active hepatitis B infection; fulminant disease may develop in 20% of patients.
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Toxin-induced Hepatitis? Characteristics of this are:
route of infection via inhalation, skin or mucus membrane exposure, oral ingestion, or intravenous administration
Incubation hours to days after exposure
Some chemicals may initiate an inflammatory response that continues to cause liver damage long after the chemical is out of the body.
No vaccine available.
Patients may have jaundice.
12 medical overview What is the hantavirus? This is a newly recognized disease, transmitted via rodent urine and droppings 12 medical overview How is the West Nile Virus transmitted? This virus' vector is the mosquito. 12 medical overview What is the order of BLS if you suspect cardiac arrest? If this is suspected, BLS order becomes CAB. 11 BLS resuscitation What is the chain of survival? This is:
1. Early access (ie Access EMS by calling 911)
2. Early CPR (keeps blood flowing)
3. Early defibrillation
4. Early advanced care
5. Integrated post-arrest care (including controlling temperature and maintaining glucose levels in the patient who is hypoglycemic)
11 BLS resuscitation What is important to remember regarding time and CPR? It's important to remember regarding this that few patients survive cardiac arrest if this is not administered within the first few minutes, and if the time from cardiac arrest to defibrillation is more than 10 minutes, the chance of survival is minimal. 11 BLS resuscitation What is arrhythmia? This is sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance. 11 BLS resuscitation What is ventricular fibrillation? This is the disorganized twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest. 11 BLS resuscitation For each minute the patient remains in V-fib or pulseless V-tach, how much does the chance of survival decrease? For each minute in these states, there is a 7% to 10% less chance of survival. 11 BLS resuscitation What is a common cause of cardiac arrest in children? Respiratory failure is usually the cause of this in children. 11 BLS resuscitation Where should you place the AED electrode on patients with an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker? If you see a patient with one of these, you should place the AED electrode at least 1 inch to the side of the device. 11 BLS resuscitation On average, how much blood is pumped through the body when external chest compressions are performed as proficiently as possible? Only one third of the blood that is normally pumped by is circulated through this method. 11 BLS resuscitation Where should the patient's head be while administring chest compressions? This should not be elevated at a level above the heart because this will further reduce blood flow to the brain. 11 BLS resuscitation What kind of surface should a patient receiving chest compressions be placed on? During this, the patient should be palced on the floor or have a board placed under the back. 11 BLS resuscitation When performing CPR on an adult, how many chest compressions should be given a minute? Give at least 100 compressions per minute for this type of patient. 11 BLS resuscitation What is the recovery position? This is a side-lying position (patient's hand under their head) used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are adequately breathing. 11 BLS resuscitation What is the focus of pediatric BLS? The focus of BLS for these types of patients is airway and breathing. 11 BLS resuscitation Where do you check the pulse on infants? You check the pulse on the brachial artery for these patients. 11 BLS resuscitation Where do you check the pulse on children (1-12 years)? You check the pulse on the carotid or femoral artery for these patients. 11 BLS resuscitation What is the compression rate for infants and children in CPR? For these patients, the compression rate is at least 100/min. 11 BLS resuscitation What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR for infants and children? For these patients, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for one rescuer, and 15:2 for 2 rescuers. 11 BLS resuscitation With infants and children, what is the ventilation rate during CPR? With these patients, the ventilation rate is 1 breath every 3-5 seconds. 11 BLS resuscitation What should you do with a patient who has a mild airway obstruction? With these patients, you should encourage him or her to cough or to continue coughing if they are already doing so. 11 BLS resuscitation What is homeostasis? This is a balance of all systems and conditions of the body; as shock progresses, this degrades. 10 shock What are the three parts of the cardiovascular system? The three parts of this system are:
A pump,
A set of pipes,
and the contents of the container.
10 shock What is systolic pressure? This is the peak arterial pressure, or pressure generated every time the heart contracts. 10 shock What is diastolic pressure? This is the pressure maintained within the arteries while the heart rests between the heartbeats. 10 shock What are sphincters? These are circular muscles that encircle and, by contracting, constrict a duct, tube, or opening. 10 shock What are the three basic causes of shock? The three basic causes of this are:

1. Pump failure (caused by: heart attack, trauma to heart, and obstructive causes).
2. Low fluid volume (caused by: trauma to vessels or tissues, and fluid loss from GI tract),
and,
3. Poor vessel function (caused by: infection, drug overdose, spinal cord injuries, and anaphylaxis).
10 shock What does pump failure cause? Cardiogenic and obstructive shock are caused by this kind of failure. 10 shock What kinds of shock does poor vessel function cause? Distributive shock, septic shock, neurogenic shock, anaphylactic shock, and psychogenic shock are caused by this kind of failure. 10 shock What kinds of shock does low fluid volume cause? Hypovolemic shock, hemorrhagic shock, and nonhemorrhagic shock are caused by this kind of failure. 10 shock What causes cardiogenic shock? This is caused by inadequate functioning of the heart, or pump failure. 10 shock What is edema? This is the presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area. 10 shock When does cardiogenic shock develop? This develops when the heart cannot maintain sufficient output (or cardiac output) to meet the demands of the body. 10 shock What is myocardial contractility? This is the ability for the heart to contract. 10 shock What is preload? This is the precontraction pressure in the heart as the volume of blood builds up. 10 shock What is afterload? This is the force or resistance against which the heart pumps. 10 shock What is obstructive shock? This results when conditions that cause mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle also impact pump function. 10 shock What are two of the most common examples of obstructive shock? Two of the most common examples of this are cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax. 10 shock What is a cardiac tamponade (A.K.A. a pericardial tamponade)? This is a collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium. It is caused by blunt or penetrating trauma and can progress rapidly. 10 shock What happens during a cardiac tamponade? When this occurs, blood leaks into the tough fibrous membrane known as the pericardium, causing an accumulation of blood within the pericardial sac. This accumulation leads to compression of the heart. Because the pericardium has a limited ability to stretch, each contraction of the heart allows more blood accumulation between the heart and the sac. The accumulated blood prevents the heart from opening up to allow complete refilling. 10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade? The signs and symptoms of this are referred to as Beck's Triad. They are:
1) Jugular vein distention.
2) Muffled heart sounds,
and
3) The merging of systolic and diastolic blood pressure. 
10 shock What causes tension pneumothorax? This is caused by damage to the lung tissue. This damage allows air normally held within the lung to escape into the chest cavity. If this condition is allowed to continue untreated, a sufficient amount of air will accumulate within the chest cavity and begin applying pressure to the structures in the mediastinum. The trapped air begins to shift the chest organs toward the uninjured side, which creates the condition. 10 shock What is distributive shock? This is when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both. 10 shock What is septic shock? This is a result of severe infections, usually bacterial, in which toxins are generated by the bacteria or by infected body tissues; the toxins damage the vessel walls, causing increased cellular permeability. The vessel walls leak and are unable to contract well. Widespread dilation of vessels, in combination with plasma loss through the injured vessel walls, resulting in shock. 10 shock What is usually the cause of neurogenic shock? This is usually caused by damage to the spinal cord, particularly at the upper cervical level, which damages the part of the nervous system that controls the size and muscular tone of the blood vessels. 10 shock What is an important consideration in patients in neurogenic shock? One important consideration in these kinds of patients is that these patients lack the ability to regulate body temperature. 10 shock What are signs of anaphylactic shock on the skin, in the circulatory system, and in the respiratory system? Signs of this include:

On the skin:
Flushing, itching, or burning, especially over the face and upper part of the chest.
Urticaria, which may spread over large areas of the body.
Edema, especially of the face, tongue, and lips.
Pallor.
And,
Cyanosis about the lips.

In the circulatory system:
Dilation of peripheral blood vessels.
Increased vessel permeability.
A drop in blood pressure.
A weak, barely palpable pulse.
Dizziness.
And,
Fainting and coma.

In the respiratory system:
Sneezing or itching.
Tightness in the chest, with a persistent dry cough.
Wheezing and dyspnea.
Secretions of fluid and mucus into the bronchial passages, alveoli, and lung tissues, causing coughing.
Constriction of the bronchi.
Forced expiration accompanied by wheezing.
And,
Eventual cessation of breathing.
10 shock What is psychogenic shock? This is when a patient has had a sudden reaction of the nervous system that produces a temporary, generalized vascular dilation, resulting in fainting, or syncope. 10 shock What are some causes of syncope that are potentially life threatening? Causes of this that are potentially life threatening are an irregular heartbeat or brain aneurysm. 10 shock What is hypovolemic shock? This is the result of inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the system. 10 shock What are some causes of hypovolemic shock? Some causes of this kind of shock include hemorrhagic causes, non-hemorrhagic causes (such as vomiting and diarrhea), as well as severe thermal burns; in those cases, it is intravascular plasma that is lost, leaking from the circulatory system into the burned tissues. 10 shock How does carbon monoxide affect the ability of cells to metabolize or carry oxygen? This substance has a 250 times greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen. If a patient is in an environment with this substance, it will bind to the blood's hemoglobin, preventing oxygen from binding. 10 shock What is compensated shock? This is the early stage of shock, when the body can still compensate for blood loss. Signs and symptoms include:
Agitation,
Anxiety,
Restlessness,
Feeling of impending doom,
A.M.S.,
Weak, rapid, or absent pulse,
Clammy skin,
Pallor with cyanosis around the lips,
Shallow, rapid breathing,
Shortness of breath,
Nausea or vomiting,
And,
Marked thirst.
10 shock What is decompensated shock? This is a later stage of shock, when blood pressure falls. Signs and symptoms include:
Falling blood pressure (systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or lower in an adult),
Labored or irregular breathing,
Ashen, mottled, or cyanotic skin,
Thready or absent peripheral pulses,
Dilated pupils,
And,
Poor urinary output.
10 shock What is irreversible shock? This is the last stage of shock, when shock has progressed to a terminal stage. A transfusion during this stage will not save the patient's life. 10 shock What should you remember about blood pressure drops in children and infants? Remember that these patients can maintain their blood pressure until they have lost more than half their blood volume. By the time their blood pressure drops in shock, they are close to death. 10 shock Which conditions in patients should make you suspect shock? You should expect this if a patient has any one of the following conditions:
Multiple severe fractures,
Abdominal or chest injury,
Spinal injury,
A severe infection,
A major heart attack,
And,
Anaphylaxis.
10 shock What is the only real effective treatment for a severe, acute allergic reaction? The only real effective treatment for this is to administer epinephrine. 10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Chest pain,
Irregular pulse,
Weak pulse,
Low blood pressure,
Cyanosis of the lips and under the nails,
Cool, clammy skin,
Anxiety, 
Rales, 
and pulmonary edema.

Treat this by:
Positioning the patient comfortably, administering oxygen, assisting with ventilations, and transporting promptly.
10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of obstructive shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this are dependent on the cause, and include:
Dyspnea,
A rapid, weak pulse,
Rapid, shallow breaths,
Decreased lung compliance,
Unilateral, decreased, or absent breath sounds,
Decreased blood pressure,
Subcutaneous emphysema,
Cyanosis,
Tracheal deviation towards the unaffected side,
and,
Beck's Triad, which are: Muffled heart sounds, Jugular vein distention, and, The merging of systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

Treatment of this is also dependent on the cause, and includes:
ALS assist, and / or rapid transport.
10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of septic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Warm skin,
Tachycardia,
and, low blood pressure.

Treatment for this includes:
Transporting promptly, administering oxygen en route, providing full ventilatory support, keeping the patient warm, and considering elevating the legs.
10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of neurogenic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Bradycardia,
Low blood pressure,
and,
Signs of neck injury.

Treatment of this includes:
Securing the airway,
stabilizing the spine,
assisting ventilations,
administering high-flow oxygen,
preserving body heat,
and,
transporting promptly.
10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Mild itching or rash,
Burning skin,
Vascular dilation,
Generalized edema,
Coma,
and,
rapid death.

Treatment for this includes:
Managing the airway,
Assisting ventilations,
administering high-flow oxygen,
assisting with administration of epinephrine,
and,
transporting promptly.
10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of psychogenic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
A rapid pulse,
and,
Normal or low blood pressure.

Treatment for this includes:
Determining the duration of unconsciousness,
Recording initial vitals and mental status,
Suspecting head trauma if the patient is confused or slow to regain consciousness,
and,
Transporting promptly.
10 shock What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
A rapid, weak pulse,
Low blood pressure,
A change in mental status,
Cyanosis of the lips and / or nails,
Cool, clammy skin,
and,
An increased respiratory rate.

Treatment for this includes:
Securing the airway,
Administering high-flow oxygen,
Controlling external bleeding,
Keeping the patient warm,
Possibly elevating the legs,
and,
Transporting promptly.
10 shock How should you treat tension pneumothorax? Treat this with high-flow oxygen via non-re-breathing mask. Be cautious about providing positive-pressure ventilation to a patient with this condition. Usually the only action that can prevent eventual death from this is decompression of the injured side of the chest. This can be performed by ALS personnel. 10 shock What position should you place patients with neurogenic shock? With these patients, slight elevation of the foot end spine board may help bring the blood that is pooling in the vessels of the legs to the vital organs. Placing the patient's arms across his or her chest without moving the spine will also return some pooled blood. 10 shock When will brain tissue start to die without oxygen? This will begin to die within 4 to 6 minutes. 9 airway management What anatomic structures make up the upper airway? The nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx are located here. 9 airway management What is the major function of the upper airway? The major function of this is to:
Warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the body.
9 airway management What is the pharynx and what is it composed of? This is a muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea. It is composed of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (A.K.A. the hypopharynx). 9 airway management What is the lowest portion of the pharynx? This is the laryngopharynx. At its base, it splits into two lumens, the larynx anteriorly, and the esophagus posteriorly. 9 airway management What is the nasopharynx? This is formed by the union of the facial bones, and is lined with a cilated mucous membrane that keeps contaminants such as dust and other small particles out of the respiratory tract. The membrane also warms and humidifies air as it enters the body. 9 airway management What is the oropharynx? This forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue.  9 airway management What is the larynx? This marks where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins. 9 airway management What is the thyroid cartilage? "This is a shield-shaped structure formed by two plates that join in a ""V"" shape anteriorly to form the larnygeal prominence known as the Adam's apple." 9 airway management What is the cricoid cartilage? This lies inferiorly to the thyroid cartilage; it forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is the only airway structure that forms a complete ring. 9 airway management What is the glottis? This is space in between the vocal cords and the narrowest portion of the adult's airway. 9 airway management What is the trachea? This is the conduit for air entry into the lungs. It is approximately 10 to 12 centimeters in length and consists of C-shaped cartilaginous rings. It descends anteriorly into the thoracic cavity. 9 airway management What is the carina? This is the point at which the trachea bifurcates into the left and right mainstream bronchi. 9 airway management What is visceral pleura? This is a thin, slippery outer membrane that covers all lung tissue. 9 airway management What is the parietal pleura? This lines the inside of the thoracic cavity. 9 airway management What lies between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura? Between these is a small amount of fluid, which serves as a lubricant to prevent friction during breathing. 9 airway management What should you remember about children's airways? With these patients' airway, remember that:
They have a proportionately smaller mandible and a proportionately larger tongue, both of which increase the incidence of airway obstruction.
They have a proportionately larger occipital lobe, so when positioning the airway, place a folded towel under the shoulders to maintain a neutral position.
In general, the airway of these patients are smaller and narrower at all levels.
9 airway management What is the mediastinum? This is the space between the lungs, and is surrounded by tough, connective tissue. This space contains the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, major bronchi, and nerves. 9 airway management What is the phrenic nerve? This is one of the most important nervous structures in the body. It innervates the diaphragm muscle. 9 airway management What is ventilation? This is the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs. 9 airway management What is oxygenation? This is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream. 9 airway management What is respiration? This is the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli as well as the tissues of the body. 9 airway management What is inhalation? This is the active, muscular part of breathing. 9 airway management How much air does 1 breath draw in? This is approximately 500 ml in an adult. 9 airway management What is partial pressure? This is the term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (Hg). 9 airway management What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air in the alveoli? This pressure is 104 mm Hg. 9 airway management What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air in the alveoli? This pressure is 40 mm Hg. 9 airway management What is alveolar ventilation, and how is it determined? This is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli, and is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume. 9 airway management What is tidal volume? This is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. The average volume for an adult man is approximately 500 ml. 9 airway management What is dead space? This is the portion of tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and thus does not participate in gas exchange. It contains the air that remains in the mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. This can add up to approximately 150 mL in adults. 9 airway management What is minute ventilation (A.K.A. minute volume)? This is the amount of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space. An average adult male patient might have a rate of 4200 mL , (12 breaths per minute, a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath, and a dead space of 150 mL) 9 airway management What is vital capacity? This refers to the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing deeply. 9 airway management What is residual volume? This is the air that remains after maximal expiration. It is approximately 1200 mL in the average adult male. 9 airway management What is exhalation? This is the passive part of the breathing process, in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs. 9 airway management How are ventilation changes primarily regulated? These are regulated primarily by the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid, which is directly related to the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood. 9 airway management What is the hypoxic drive? This is a condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; it is seen in patients with end-stage C.O.P.D. 9 airway management What is C.O.P.D. (A.K.A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases)? "This is when patients have difficulty eliminating carbon dioxide through exhalation; thus, they always have higher levels of carbon dioxide. This potentially alters their drive for breathing. The body uses a ""backup system"", the hypoxic drive, to control breathing. This is different from the primary control of breathing that uses carbon dioxide. Caution should be taken when administering high concentrations of oxygen to these kinds of patients, as providing high concentrations of oxygen over time will increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma; this could potentially negatively affect their body's drive to breathe." 9 airway management What is dyspnea? This is shortness of breath. 9 airway management What is another name for metabolism? Another name for this is cellular respiration. 9 airway management What is the chemical composition of air on average? On average, the chemical composition of this is about 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and 0.3% carbon dioxide. 9 airway management What is surfactant? This is a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome. 9 airway management Under normal conditions, what percentage of hemoglobin receptor sites contain oxygen? Under normal conditions, 96% to 100% of these contain oxygen. 9 airway management What is aerobic respiration? This can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.  Energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (A.K.A., A.T.P.) is produced through a series of processes known as the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Together, these chemical processes yield nearly 40 molecules of energy-rich ATP for each molecule of glucose metabolized. 9 airway management What are chemoreceptors? These monitor the levels of O2, CO2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any given time. 9 airway management How will an elevation in carbon dioxide levels affect the pH balance in CSF? This will decrease the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. 9 airway management What is the normal resting minute ventilation? The normal rate of this is approximately 6000 mL per minute. About a third of this volume fills dead space; therefore, resting alveolar ventilation is approximately 4000 mL per minute. 9 airway management What is intrapulmonary shunting? This is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart, inhibiting diffusion and perfusion. 9 airway management What is a bag-mask device? This is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, this delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen. 9 airway management What is the normal respiratory rate of adults? For this group, the average respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. 9 airway management What is the normal respiratory rate of children? The normal respiratory rate of this group is 15 to 30 breaths per minute. 9 airway management What is the normal respiratory rate of infants? The normal respiratory rate of this group is 25 to 50 breaths per minute. 9 airway management What are retractions? This is when the skin pulls in around the ribs or above the clavicle during respiration. It is a sign of inadequate breathing. 9 airway management What are agonal gasps? These are occasional gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped. They occur when the respiratory center in the brain continues to send signals to the respiratory muscles. 9 airway management What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations? This is an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations that is followed by a period of apnea, or lack of spontaneous breathing, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration. 9 airway management What is ataxic respirations? This is a pattern of irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern. 9 airway management What are Kussmaul respirations? This is an irregular breathing pattern characterized as deep, gasping respirations commonly seen in patients with metabolic acidosis. 9 airway management What maneuver should you use on a patient if you suspect a cervical spine injury to open the airway? In this situation, use the the jaw-thrust maneuver.
9 airway management What are the principle purposes of an oropharyngeal airway? The principle purposes of this are to:
1) Keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway.
and 2) Make it easier to suction the the oropharynx if necessary.
9 airway management What is the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway in children? With this group, the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway is to use a tongue blade to hold the tongue down. 9 airway management When should you consult medical control about inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? You should consult medical control about this when a patient has sustained severe trauma to the head or face. 9 airway management How much airflow and vacuum should a suctioning unit be able to generate? This should generate airflow of more than 40 L per minute, and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. 9 airway management What is a suction catheter? This is a hollow cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient's airway. 9 airway management How long should you suction a patient's mouth or nose? You should never do this for more than 15 seconds at a time for adults, 10 seconds for children, and 5 for infants. 9 airway management What is the recovery position? This position is used to maintain a clear airway in an unconscious patient who is not injured and is breathing on his or her own with a normal respiratory rate and adequate tidal volume. The patient is rolled onto their left sidewith a hand underneath the head for support. Never put a patient in this position if you suspect spinal trauma. 9 airway management What is the pin-indexing system? This is a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas. 9 airway management What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nasal cannula? This device has a flow rate of 1000 to 6000 mL per minute, and delivers 24% to 44% oxygen. 9 airway management What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nonre-breathing mask? This device has a flow rate of 10 to 15 L per minute, and delivers up to 90% oxygen. 9 airway management What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a bag-mask device with reservoir? This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 100% oxygen. 9 airway management What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a mouth-to-mask device? This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 55% oxygen. 9 airway management What is a partial rebreathing mask? This is similar to a nonrebreathing mask except that there is no one-way valve between the mask and reservoir. Consequently, patients rebreathe a small amount of their exhaled air. This is advantageous for patients who you think are suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. You can easily convert a nonrebreathing mask to this by removing the one-way valve between the mask and the reservoir bag. 9 airway management What is the nature of air movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation? Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
air is sucked into the lungs due to the negative intrathoracic created when the diaphragm contracts.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the lungs through a means of mechanical ventilation.
9 airway management
What is the nature of blood movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
Normal breathing allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Intrathoracic pressure is increased, not allowing blood to be adequately pulled back to the heart. This causes the amount of blood pumnped by the heart to be reduced.
9 airway management
What is the nature of airway wall pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
More volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. As a result, the walls are pushed out of their normal anatomic shape.
9 airway management
What is the nature of esophageal opening pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the stomach, causing gastric distention that could result in vomiting and aspiration.
9 airway management
What is the nature of overventilation in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not typical of normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Forcing volume and rate results in increased intrathoracic pressure, gastric distention, and a decrease in cardiac output.
9 airway management For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in adults? For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds. 9 airway management For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in children and infants? For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds. 9 airway management When should you use a bag-mask device? This should be used when you need to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients who not ventilating adequately. The device is also used for patients in respiratory arrest, cardiopulmonary arrest, and respiratory failure. You should use an oral or nasal airway adjunct. 9 airway management What is the volume capability of the adult bag-mask device? The volume capability for this device is 1200 to 1600 mL. 9 airway management What is the volume capability of the pediatric bag-mask device? The volume capability of this device is 500 to 700 mL. 9 airway management What is the volume capability of the infant bag-mask device? The volume capability of this device is 150 to 240 mL. 9 airway management What is a manually triggered ventilation device, AKA a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? This is a fixed flow/rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed. The major advantage of this device is that it allows a single rescuer to use both hand to maintain a mask-to-face seal. 9 airway management What is compliance? This is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation. 9 airway management What is CPAP, AKA, Continuous Positive Airway Pressure? This is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress.
Indications for this include:
Patient must be alert and able to follow commands.
Patient is displaying obvious signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress from an underlying pathology, such as pulmonary edema or obstructive pulmonary disease.
The patient is breathing rapidly, such that it affects over-all minute volume.
And,
Pulse oximetry reading is less than 90%.

Contraindications include:
A patient who is in respiratory arrest.
Signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax or chest trauma.
Tracheostomy.
Active gastrointestinal bleeding or vomiting.
And,
The patient is unable to follow verbal commands.
9 airway management What are the steps in the assessment process? This is divided into five main parts:
1) Scene size-up.
2) Primary assessment.
3) History taking.
4) Secondary assessment.
5) Reassessment
8 assessment overview Whether you are assessing a medical patient or trauma patient, what is the key in both situations? The key to both of these situations, whether medical or trauma, is to remain organized. 8 assessment overview How is the underlying condition or problem of a patient often revealed to you? It is frequently a combination of many signs and symptoms that reveals this to you. 8 assessment overview What is a symptom? This is a subjective condition that the patient feels and tells you about. 8 assessment overview What is a sign? This is an objective condition that you can observe about the patient. 8 assessment overview What is the minimum appropriate visibility gear? This is an American National Standards Institute 207 certified high-visibility public safety vest. 8 assessment overview What is the way you typically leave a scene? This is typically the exact same way you entered the scene. 8 assessment overview What is an important consideration for your patients in severe environmental conditions? With this, remember: You are obliged to provide protection for the patient. Consider the scene factors. 8 assessment overview What is mechanism of injury? This is the way in which traumatic injuries occur; the forces that act on the body to cause damage. 8 assessment overview What is the difference between 1) blunt trauma and 2) penetrating trauma?  With the first, the force of the injury occurs over a broad area, and the skin is usually not broken. However, the tissues and organs below the area of impact may be damaged.
With the second, the force of the injury occurs at a small point of contact between the skin and the object. The object pierces the skin and creates an open wound that carries a high potential for infection.
8 assessment overview What is nature of illness (NOI), how should you determine it, and what are some examples of it? This is the general type of illness a patient is experiencing. To quickly determine it, talk with the patient, family, or bystanders about the problem. But at the same time, use your senses to check the scene for clues as to the possible problem.
Examples of it include seizures, heart attacks, diabetic problems, and poisonings.
8 assessment overview What is Personal Protective Equipment (AKA PPE)? This is clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer. Which type to use will depend on the specific job duties required during a patient care interaction. 8 assessment overview What are standard precautions? These are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease. 8 assessment overview What is the incident command system? This is a system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualty incidents in which section chiefs - including finance, logistics, operations, and planning - report to the incident commander. 8 assessment overview What is triage? This is the process of sorting patients based on the severity of each patient's condition. 8 assessment overview What is primary assessment, and what are its stages? This is the second step in patient assessment. It begins when you greet your patient, and has a single goal: to identify and initiate treatment of immediate or potential life threats. It stages are:
1) Form a general impression.
2) Assess level of consciousness
3) Assess the airway: identify and treat life threats.
4) Assess the breathing: identify and treat life threats.
5) Assess circulation: identify and treat life threats.
6) Perform rapid scan.
And
7) Determine priority of patient care and transport.
8 assessment overview What is orientation? This tests mental status by checking a patient's memory and thinking ability. The most common ways to evaluate this in a patient is to test the patient's ability to remember:
1) Person - Remembering his or her name.
2) Place - Identifying the current location.
3) Time - Identifying the current year, month, and approximate date.
4) Event - Describing what happened (the MOI or NOI)
8 assessment overview On the Glascow Coma Scale, what are the scores for eye opening? On this scale:
4) Spontaneous opening.
3) In response to speech.
2) In response to pain
1) None
8 assessment overview On the Glascow Coma Scale, what are the scores for verbal response? On this scale:
5) Oriented conversation.
4) Confused conversation.
3) Inappropriate words.
2) Incomprehensible sounds.
1) None
8 assessment overview On the Glascow Coma Scale, what are the scores for motor response? On this scale:
6) Obeys commands.
5) Localizes pain.
4) Withdraws to pain.
3) Abnormal flexion.
2) Abnormal extension.
1) None.
8 assessment overview On the Glascow Coma Scale (AKA GCS), what are the score breakdowns?  On this scale:
13-15: May indicate mild dysfunction, although 15 is the score some with no neurologic disabilities would receive.
9-12: May indicate moderate dysfunction.
8 or less: Indicative of severe dysfunction.
8 assessment overview When a brighter light is introduced in one eye, what should happen? In this case, both pupils should constrict equally to the appropriate size. 8 assessment overview What is anisocoria? This is a condition in which patients exhibit unequal pupil size. If the patient or family cannot confirm the presence of this condition, you must assume the patient has depressed brain function.  8 assessment overview What can cause depressed brain function? This can be caused by:
Injury of the brain or brain stem.
Trauma or stroke.
Brain tumor.
Inadequate oxygenation or perfusion.
Drugs or toxins (central nervous system depressants)
8 assessment overview What do opiates do to pupils? These cause to pupils to constrict so significantly, regardless of light, that they become so small as to be described as pinpoint. 8 assessment overview What might ICP do to the pupils? This might cause sufficient pressure against the oculomotor nerve on one side that the motor commands can no longer pass from the brain to that eye. When this occurs, the eye no longer receives commands to constrict, and its pupil becomes fully dilated and fixed. This is described as a blown pupil. 8 assessment overview What does PEARRL stand for? This stands for:
Pupils,
Equal And Round,
Regular in size,
and react to
Light.

8 assessment overview What are spontaneous breathing (AKA spontaneous respirations)? This is when a patient breathes without assistance. 8 assessment overview What is the ratio of inhalation and exhalation times? These occur in a 1:3 ratio. 8 assessment overview What is the information you must obtain to assess breathing, and what questions should you be asking yourself? When doing this, you must obtain:
Respiratory rate,
Rhythm (regular or irregular),
Quality or character of breathing,
and,
Depth of breathing.

You should be asking yourself:
Does the patient appear to be choking?
Is the rate too fast or too slow?
Are the respirations shallow or deep?
Is the patient cyanotic?
Do you hear abnormal sounds when listening to the lungs?
Is the patient moving air into and out of the lungs on both sides?
8 assessment overview A patient who coughs up thick, yellowish, or greenish sputum most likely has what? Patients with this sign likely have an advanced respiratory infection. 8 assessment overview Where should you auscultate? Because you can almost always hear a patients breath sounds better from the back, do this there if the back is accessible. Do this over the apices (upper lungs), bases (lower lungs), and over the major airways. 8 assessment overview What are rales, AKA crackles? These are wet crackling sounds, usually on both inspiration and expiration. 8 assessment overview What are rhonchi? These are congested breath sounds and may suggest the presence of mucus in the lungs. Expect to hear low-pitched, noisy sounds that are most prominent on expiration. The patient often has a productive cough associated with these sounds. 8 assessment overview What are the accessory muscles? These include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoid), the chest pectoris majors, and the abdominal muscles. They aid in respiration. 8 assessment overview What is nasal flaring? This is seen in pediatric patients with inadequate breathing. 8 assessment overview What is the tripod position? This is when a patient is sitting and leaning forward on outstreched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward; it indicates poor breathing. 8 assessment overview What is the sniffing position? This is commonly seen in children. The patient sits upright with the head and chin thrust slightly forward, and the patient appears to be sniffing. 8 assessment overview What is the normal pulse rate for infants (1 month to 1 year)? This is 100 to 160 beats per minute. 8 assessment overview What is the normal pulse rate for toddlers (1 to 3 years)? This is 90 to 150 beats per minute. 8 assessment overview What is the normal pulse rate for preschool chldren (3 to 6 years)? This is 80 to 140 beats per minutes. 8 assessment overview What is the normal pulse rate for school age children (6 to 12 years)? This is 70 to 120 beats per minute. 8 assessment overview What is the normal pulse rate for adolescents (12 to 18 years) and adults? This is 60 to 100 beats per minute. 8 assessment overview What is the sclera? This is the normally white portion of the eye. 8 assessment overview Where should you determine capillary refill in newborns and young infants? Press on the forehead, chin, or sternum to determine capillary refill in these patients. 8 assessment overview How long should the rapid scan of the patient take? This should take 60 to 90 seconds. 8 assessment overview What conditions are examples of conditions that indicate high-priority patients who need to be transported immediately? These conditions are:
Difficulty breathing,
Poor general impression,
Unresponsive with no gag or cough reflex,
Severe chest pain,
Pale skin or other signs of poor perfusion,
Uncontrolled bleeding,
Responsive but unable to follow commands,
Severe pain in any area of the body,
Inability to move any part of the body,
And,
Complicated childbirth.
8 assessment overview What is the Golden Period and the Platinum 10? The first refers to the time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best. Second refers to the ideal time to assess, stabilize, package, and begin transport. 8 assessment overview Which patients benefit from remaining on scene and receiving continuing care? An older patient with chest pain administered nitrogylcerin on scene and waiting for an ALS is an example of this. 8 assessment overview What is the chief complaint? This is the reason the patient or someone else called 9-1-1 8 assessment overview What does NKA stand for? "This stands for ""No Known Allergies""" 8 assessment overview What are pertinent negatives? These are findings that warrant no care or intervention. They also indicate that a thorough and complete examination and history were performed. 8 assessment overview When should you use close-ended questions? Use these when patients say nothing or very little. Also note their silence is a clue to the patient's chief complaint. 8 assessment overview What should you always remember when determing the nature of the chief complaint? Remember that there may be a number of possible medical or traumatic causes for this. 8 assessment overview What is one of the most common causes of confusion? One of the most common causes of this is hypoxia. 8 assessment overview What is one way to deal with hearing impaired patients? One way to deal with this is to use your stethoscope to function like a hearing aid; have the patient place the stethoscope in his or her ears and speak into the stethoscope bell, which will amplify the sound. 8 assessment overview What is the purpose of the secondary assessment? The purpose of this is to perform a systematic physical examination of the patient. It may be a head-to-toe, full body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a a certain area or region of the body. 8 assessment overview What is crepitus? This is the sound of joints rubbing together. 8 assessment overview What is a sphygmomanometer? This is a blood pressure cuff. 8 assessment overview What is capnography? This is a noninvasive method that can quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism. 8 assessment overview What is capnometry? This is the use of a capnometer, a device that measures the amount of expired carbon dioxide. 8 assessment overview What is a full-body scan? This is a systematic head-to-toe examination. 8 assessment overview What is a focused assessment? This is generally performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant MOIs or on responsive medical patients. It is based on the chief complaint. 8 assessment overview What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults? This is 90 to 140 mm Hg (systolic). 8 assessment overview What is the normal range for blood pressure in children (1 to 8 years old)? This is 80 to 110 mm Hg (systolic). 8 assessment overview What is the normal range for blood pressure in infants (newborn to 1 year)? This is 50 to 95 mm Hg (systolic). 8 assessment overview What is subcutaneous emphysema? This is a crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin. 8 assessment overview What is the reassessment phase? This is performed at regular intervals and is to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition. 8 assessment overview What should you do if the patient's condition improves? If this happens, continue whatever treatments you are providing. 8 assessment overview What is pharmacology? This is the science of drugs. 07 pharmacology What is pharmacodynamics? This is the process by which a medication works on the body. 07 pharmacology What is an agonist? This is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. 07 pharmacology What is an antagonist? This is medication that binds to a receptor and block other medications. 07 pharmacology What is a medication's action? This is the therapeutic effect or intended effect it is expected to have on the body. 07 pharmacology What should you remember about doses in the elderly population? These may also need to be decreased for this population because they cannot process medications as efficiently as others. 07 pharmacology What are indication? These are the reasons or conditions for which a particular medication is given. 07 pharmacology What are contraindications? These are reasons or conditions for which a particular medication should not be given, even if it usually is indicated for that person's condition. 07 pharmacology What are side effects? These are any actions of a medication other than the desired ones. 07 pharmacology What are unintended effects? These are the effects that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient. 07 pharmacology What are untoward effects? These are the effects that can be harmful to the patient. 07 pharmacology What is the difference between a medication's generic name and its trade name? The first is a simple, clear, nonproprietary name. The second is the brand name; as a proper noun, it begins with a capital letter. 07 pharmacology What are OTC medications? These are medications that can be purchased without a prescription. 07 pharmacology What are enteral medications? These are medications that enter the body through the digestive system. 07 pharmacology What are parenteral medications? These are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes. These are absorbed much more quickly and offer a more predictable and measurable dose. 07 pharmacology What is absorption? This is the process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream. 07 pharmacology What is the per retum (PR) route of administration? This is medication administrated by the rectum. It is most commonly used with children and patients who cannot swallow or are unconscious. 07 pharmacology What is the intravenous (IV) route of administration? This is medication administed into the vein. This is the fastest way to deliver a chemical substance. 07 pharmacology What is the intraosseous (IO) route of administration? This is medication delivered into the bone, reaching the bloodstream via the bone marrow. This is very painful, and so this route is used most often in patients who are unconscious as a result of cardiac arrest or extreme shock, as well as children who have fewer available IV sites. 07 pharmacology What is the subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route of administration? This is medication delivered beneath the skin as an injection into the tissue between the skin and muscle. Because there is less blood here than in the muscles, medications that are given by this route are generally absorbed more slowly, and their effects last longer. Daily insulin injections for patients with diabetes are given this way, as well as some forms of epinephrine. 07 pharmacology What is the intramuscular (IM) route of administration? This is medication administered into the muscle. Usually, medications given this way are absorbed quickly because muscles have a lot of blood vessels. Possible problems with this method are damage to muscle tissue and uneven, unreliable absorption, especially in people with decreased tissue perfusion. Auto-injectors frequently use this method. 07 pharmacology What is the inhalation route of administration? This is medication inhaled into the lungs so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly, or so they work in the lungs. Generally, this minimizes the effects of the medication in other body tissues. 07 pharmacology What is the sublingual (SL) route of administration? This is medication administered under the tongue. The medication enters through the oral mucosa under the tongue and are absorbed into the bloodstream within minutes. This method is faster than the oral route, and it protects medications from chemicals in the digestive system, such as acids that can weaken or inactivate them. 07 pharmacology What is the transcutaneous, or transdermal route of administration? This is medication administered through the skin, and usually have longer-lasting effects. Nicotine patches or adhesive patches containing nitroglycerin are examples of this. 07 pharmacology What is the intranasal (IN) route of administration? This is medication administered into the nostril, typically via a specialized atomizer device called a Mucosal Atomizer Device (AKA M.A.D.). Blood flow to the head and face is very high; therefore, absorption is rather quick with this route. Naloxone can be administered to some overdose patients via this route. 07 pharmacology What is a solution? This is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. 07 pharmacology What is a suspension? This is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. It is very important that you shake or swirl a suspesion before administering it to ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication. 07 pharmacology What is a metered-dose inhaler (A.K.A. an MDI)? This is a miniature spray canister used to direct such substances through the mouth and into the lungs. It delivers the same amount of medication each time it is used, and must be shaken vigorously before the medication is administered. 07 pharmacology What are topical medications? These are lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin. 07 pharmacology "What are the ""Six Rights"" of medication administration?" These are:
1) Right patient,
2) Right medication,
3) Right dose,
4) Right route,
5) Right time,
and 6) Right documentation
07 pharmacology What is the echo technique? This is repeating the order you receive from the physician for the administration of a medication. It is essential that you do this anytime you receive an order from a physician. 07 pharmacology What are the 3 circumstances for administering medication? These are:
1) peer-assisted medication (administering medication to yourself or your partner)
2) patient-assisted medication (assisting the patient with the administration of his or her own medication)
and,
3) EMT-administered medication (directly administering the medication to the patient.
07 pharmacology What are the medications that may be administered by EMTs (depending of course on local protocol)? These medications are:
Oxygen,
Activated charcoal,
Oral glucose,
Aspirin,
Epinephrine auto-injector,
Meter-dose inhaler medications,
and,
Nitroglycerin.
07 pharmacology What is Lipitor AKA atorvastatin used for? This is used to lower cholesterol. 07 pharmacology What is montelukast AKA Singulair used for? This is used to help prevent asthma attacks. 07 pharmacology What is escitalopram AKA Lexapro used for? This is used to treat depression. 07 pharmacology What is esomeprazole AKA Nexium used for? This is used to treat gastric reflux. 07 pharmacology What is levothyroxine AKA Synthroid used for? This is used to treat decreased thyroid functioning. 07 pharmacology What is clopidogrel AKA Plavix used for? This is used to prevent stroke and heart attack. 07 pharmacology What is metroprolol AKA Toprol used for? This is used to lower blood pressure. 07 pharmacology What is lansoprazole AKA Prevacid used for? This is used to treat stomach ulcers. 07 pharmacology What is ezetimibe and simvastatin AKA Vytorin AKA Zetia used for? This is used to lower cholesterol. 07 pharmacology What is fluticasone and salmeterol AKA Advair Diskus used for? This is used to treat asthma. 07 pharmacology What is cetirizine AKA Zyrtec used for? This is used to treat allergies. 07 pharmacology What is venlafaxine AKA Effexor used for? This is used to treat depression. 07 pharmacology What is pantoprazole AKA Protonix used for? This is used to treat gastic reflux. 07 pharmacology What is valsartan AKA Diovan used for? This is used to treat high blood pressure. 07 pharmacology What is alendronate AKA Fosamax used for? This is used to treat osteoporosis. 07 pharmacology What is potassium chloride AKA Klor-Con used for? This is used to treat low potassium levels. 07 pharmacology What is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide AKA Diovan HCT used for? This is used to treat hypertension. 07 pharmacology What is levofloxacin AKA Levaquin? This is an antibiotic. 07 pharmacology What is polypharmacy? This refers to the use of multiple medications by one person. 07 pharmacology What is a common bronchodilator? A common kind of this medication is albuterol (AKA Proventil or Ventolin). 07 pharmacology What is another name for asthma? This is also known as reactive airway disease. 07 pharmacology What is the standard dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector? The standard dose for this is 0.3 mg. 07 pharmacology What is epinephrine (AKA adrenaline), and what are its characteristics? This is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response and is the primary medication EMTs will administer IM. It is sympathomimetic, meaning it mimics the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
Characteristics of this chemical are:
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands.
Dilates passages in the lungs.
Constricts blood vessels, causing increased blood pressure.
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.

Contraindication for this include:
hypertension,
hypothermia,
myocardial infarction,
and,
no sign of wheezing or hypotension
07 pharmacology What is nitroglycerin? The purpose of this is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to dilate. It does this by relaxing the muscular walls of the coronary arteries and veins. Always take the patient's blood pressure before administering this; if systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, do not administer this medication.
Contraindications for this include:
sildenafil (Viagra), tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or any other medications that are used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction taken in the previous 24 hours.
07 pharmacology What is the standard dose for nitroglycerin? The standard dose for this is .4 mg / pill. 07 pharmacology How long should you wait between doses of nitroglycerin? You should wait 5 minutes before administering another dose of this. 07 pharmacology What is aspirin (A.K.A. acetylsalicylic acid or A.S.A.)? This is an antipyretic (fever reducer), analgesic (reduces pain), and anti-inflammatory medication that also inhibits platelet aggregation. Taken during a heart attack, this may prove lifesaving. It should not be given to children during episodes of fever-causing illness due to its association with Reye syndrome (which causes swelling in the brain and liver). 07 pharmacology What is adsorption? This means to bind or stick to a surface. 07 pharmacology What is the usual dose for activated charcoal? This is usually 1 to 2 grams per kilogram of body weight. 07 pharmacology As an EMT, what is the only way you can administer oral glucose? As an EMT, you can only administer this orally. 07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Acetaminophen / Tylenol? For this medication:
Action: Analgesic and antifever
Indications: Relief of mild pain or fever, headache, and muscle aches
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Allergic reaction
Interactions: Caution must be taken when EMTs are administering this to avoid potential overdosing.
Adult dose: 500 to 1000 mg every 4 hours as needed; dose is weight based for children.
Administration concerns: Weight of child is more important than age.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of activated charcoal / actidose with Sorbitol? For this medication:
Action: Adsorbs toxic substances in the digestive tract.
Indications: Most oral poisonings; overdose.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness; overdose of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances.
Routes: PO.
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, constipation, black stool.
Interactions: Bonds with and inactivates most medications / substance in the digestive tract.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 grams per kilogram
Administration concerns: Stains; protect patient and provider clothing; do not give when giving other PO medications.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Aspirin / Bayer? For this medication:
Action: Anti-inflammatory agent and anti-fever agent; prevents platelets from clumping, thereby decreasing formation of new clots.
Indications: Relief of mild pain, headache, muscle aches, chest pain when considering myocardial infarction.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, recent bleeding.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Caution should be used in patients who are taking anticoagulants.
Adult dose: 160 to 325 mg for chest pain.
Administration concerns: Do not administer for pain cause by trauma or for fevers in children; patients with chest pain must be able to chew tablets.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Albuterol / Proventil, Ventolin? For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Asthma / difficulty breathing with wheezing.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, tachycardia, myocardial infarction.
Routes: MDI / inhalation.
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 inhalations; wait 5 minutes before repeating dose.
Administration concerns: Patient must inhale all medication in 1 breath; coach patient to hold breath for 5 seconds after inhalation.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of diphenhydramine / Benadryl? For this medication:
Action: Antihistamine.
Indications: Mild allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Asthma, glaucoma, pregnancy, hypertension, infants.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Sleepiness, dry mouth, and throat.
Interactions: Do not take with alcohol or MAO inhibitors (a type of psychiatric medication).
Adult dose: 25 to 50 mg.
Administration concerns: Can use in severe allergic reaction; however, epinephrine is administered first.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Epinephrine / EpiPen? For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Severe allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Myocardial infarction, hypothermia, hypertension.
Routes: IM (auto-injector).
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 auto-injector.
Administration concerns: Medication will last approximately 5 minutes; do not repeat dose; ensure ALS is en route for continuing treatment.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of ibuprofen / Advil, Motrin, Nuprin? For this medication:
Action: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that reduces inflammation and fever, analgesic.
Indications: Mild pain or fever, headache, muscle aches.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Do not take with aspirin.
Adult dose: 200 to 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours; dose is weight based in children.
Administration concerns: Do not take for pain caused by trauma; weight of child is more important than age.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of nitroglycerin / Nitrostat? For this medication:
Action: Dilates blood vessels.
Indications: Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.
Contraindications: Hypotension, having taken sildenafil (Viagra) or another treatment for erectile dysfunction with the past 24 hours; head injury.
Routes: SL / Spray.
Side Effects: Headache, burning under tongue, hypotension, nausea.
Interactions: Increases dilating effects of other blood vessel-dilating medications.
Adult dose: 0.3 to 0.4 mg SL; 0.4 mg spray.
Administration concerns: Ensure ALS is en route.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oral glucose / Glutose? For this medication:
Action: When absorbed, provides glucose for cell use.
Indications: Hypoglycemia.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting.
Interactions: None.
Adult dose: 1/2 to 1 tube.
Administration concerns: Patient must have control of airway and be awake and able to follow commands.
07 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oxygen? For this medication:
Action: Reverses hypoxia, provides oxygen to be absorbed by lungs.
Indications: Hypoxia or suspected hypoxia.
Contraindications: Very rarely in patients with C.O.P.D.
Routes: Gas / Inhalation.
Side Effects: Decreased respiratory effort in rare cases in patients with C.O.P.D.
Interactions: Can support combustion.
Adult dose: Use oxygen delivery to administer 28% to 100% oxygen.
Administration concerns: No open flames nearby; do not withhold oxygen from patients in respiratory distress.
07 pharmacology What is a neonate? This is a baby from birth to 1 month. 06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of neonates (0 to 1 month)? For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 180;
Respirations: 30 to 60;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 50 to 70;
and,
Temperature: 98 to 100° Farenhait
06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of infants (1 month to 1 year)? For this group:
Pulse: 100 to 160;
Respirations: 25 to 50;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 70 to 95;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of toddler (1 to 3 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 150;
Respirations: 20 to 30;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of preschool age children (3 to 6 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 80 to 140;
Respirations: 20 to 25;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of school age children (6 to 12 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 70 to 120;
Respirations: 15 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of early adults (19 to 40 years) and middle adults (41 to 60 years)? For these groups:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 140;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development life span What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of adolescents (12 to 18 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development life span What is the general rule for age and pulse rates / respirations? The general rule is: the younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations. 06 development life span What is the tidal volume in neonates? In this age group, the tidal volume is 6 to 8 mL per kg. 06 development life span How much does a neonate usually weigh at birth, what percent of their weight does their head account for, and how much weight do they gain as they develop? This group usually weighs 6 to 8 lbs (3 to 3.5 kg) at birth, with the head accounting for 25% of its body weight. In the first week, 5% to 10% of their birth weight is lost due to fluid loss. I n the second week, they start growing at a rate of about 30g a day. 06 development life span What are some important considerations regarding a neonate's pulmonary system? "In the group:
1) Their first breath is forceful, as they must inflate their lungs.
2) This group is particularly prone to nasal congestion, which causes upper respiratory infections. If you recieve a call for choking, make sure the nasal passages are clear and unobstructed by mucus.
3) Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. This explains their diaphragmatic breathing (AKA ""belly breathing"").
" 06 development life span What is barotrauma? This is trauma resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs. 06 development life span What is the moro reflex? This (AKA startle reflex) is when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone; the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things. 06 development life span What is the palmer grasp? This is an infant reflex; when an is object is placed in their palm, they grasp at the object. 06 development life span What is the rooting reflex? This takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek; the neonate will instinctively turn his or her head toward the touch. 06 development life span What is the sucking reflex? This occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked. 06 development life span What are fontanelles? These are areas where the infat's skull has not fused together; the posterior fuses by the third month; the anterior between 9 and 18 months. 06 development life span If an infant's fontanelles' is depressed or bulging, what does that mean? If these are depressed, the infant is most likely dehydrated.
These bulging is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 2 months? At this age, the infant can recognize familar faces, and is able to track objects with their eyes. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 3 months? At this age, the infant can bring objects to the mouth, and can smile and frown. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 4 months? At this age, the infant can reach out to people and drool. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 5 months? At this age, the infant can sleep through the night, and can tell family from strangers. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 6 months? At this age, teething begins; the infant can sit upright in a chair, and one-syllable words are spoken. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 7 months? At this age, the infant is afraid of strangers, and has mood swings. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 8 months? "At this age, the infant responds to ""no"", can sit alone, and plays peek-a-boo." 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 9 months? At this age, the infant can pull himself or herself up, and places objects in mouth to explore them, 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 10 months? At this age, the infant responds to his or her name, and crawls efficiently. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 11 months? At this age, the infant starts to walk without help, and can be frustrated with restrictions. 06 development life span What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 12 months? At this age, the infant knows his or her name, and can walk. 06 development life span What a secure attachment? "This occurs when an infant understands that parents or caregivers will be responsive to his or her needs. This realization encourages a child to reach out and explore, knowing that the parents will provide a ""safety net""." 06 development life span What is anxious-avoidant attachment? In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others. 06 development life span What are some physical developments in toddlers and preschoolers? In these age groups:
1) The children do not have well-developed lung musculature. This anomaly prevents them from sustaining deep or rapid respirations for an extended period of time.
2) They lose passive immunity and acquire their own immunity as the body is exposed to various viruses and germs.
3) The average age for completion of toilet training is 28 months of age.
06 development life span At what age do children transition from using language to communicate what they want to using language creatively and playfully. This transition occurs by the age of 3 or 4. 06 development life span How much do most school age children grow each year? This group grows about 4 lbs (2 kg) and 2 1/2 inches (6 cm) each year. 06 development life span What is pre-conventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. 06 development life span What is conventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children look for approval from their peers and society. 06 development life span What is postconventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children make decisions guided by their conscience. 06 development life span What is atherosclerosis? In this disorder, cholesterol and calcium build-up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque. More than 60% of people older than 65 years ahve atherosclerotic disease. 06 development life span What happens to the respiratory system of late adults? In this group:
1) The size of the airway increases.
2) The surface of the alveoli decreases.
and
3) Factors such as loss of respiratory muscle mass and an increased stiffness of the thoracic cage leads to up to a 50% decresse of vital capacity by age 75.
06 development life span What happens to the endocrine system of late adults? In this group:
As a person gains weight, more insulin is need to control the body's metabolism and blood glucose level. The pancreas may not be able to produce enough insulin for the person's body size, which can lead to diabetes mellitus.
06 development life span What happens to the digestive system of late adults? In this group:
Blood flow may drop by as much as 50%, decreasing the ability of the intestines to extract vitamins and minerals from digested food.
06 development life span What happens to the renal system of late adults? In this group:
1) The filtration function of the kidneys declines by 50% from age 20 to age 90.
2) Kidney mass decreases by 20% over the same span.
3) The number of nephrons (capillaries that perform filtering in the kidney) also decreases, which leads to a decrease in the ability to clear wastes from the body.
06 development life span What happens to the nervous system of late adults? In this group:
1) The brain may shrink 10% to 20% by age 80, increasing the possibility of internal trauma.
2) The number of neurons (brain cells) declines over one's lifetime.
3) The peripheral nervous system also slows with age.
06 development life span What is the terminal drop hypothesis? This is a theory that a person's mental function declines in the last five years of life. 06 development life span What percentage of single women of 60 years of age or older live at or below the poverty line in the United States. More than 50% of this group live at or below the poverty line in the United States. 06 development life span What is topographic anatomy? This is the landmarks of the surface of the body used to orient treatment. 06 anatomy What is the anatomic position? This is a position of reference in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward. To be consistent, health care providers use the patient's left and right as reference point. 06 anatomy What are the three planes of the body? These are:
1) Frontol (coronal) plane - Anterior vs. posterior.
2) Transverse (horizontal) plane - Superior vs. inferior.
and
3) Sagittal plane - medial vs. lateral.
06 anatomy What is the opposite of superficial (closest to the surface of the skin)? The opposite of this is deep (farthest from the surface of the skin). 06 anatomy What is the palmar surface? This is another term for the palm. 06 anatomy What is the plantar surface? This is another term for the bottom of the foot. 06 anatomy What is the apex (plural apices)? This is the tip of a structure. 06 anatomy What is flexion? This is the bending of a joint. 06 anatomy What is extension? This is the straightening of a joint. 06 anatomy What is adduction? This is motion toward the midline. 06 anatomy What is abduction? This is motion away from the midline. 05 anatomy terminology What does it mean if something is said to occur unilaterally? This means something appears on only one side of the body. 06 anatomy What are ligaments? These connect bones to other bones. 06 anatomy What are tendons? These connect muscles to bones. 06 anatomy What is cartilage? This is the soft, semiflexible material that is found within the joints and serves as cushioning. 06 anatomy What is the axial skeleton? This forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung. It is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cavity, and vertebral column. 06 anatomy What is the appendicular skeleton? This is composed of the arms and legs, their connective points, and the pelvis. 06 anatomy How many bones are there in the body? There are 206 of these. 06 anatomy What is the foramen magnum? This is a large opening at the base of the skull. 06 anatomy What are the maxillae? These are the upper, non-moveable jawbones. 06 anatomy What are the zygomas? These are the cheekbones. 06 anatomy What is the orbit? This is the eye socket. 06 anatomy How many vertebrae are there in the body? There are 33 of these in the body. 06 anatomy What are the five sections of the spine, and how many vertebrae in each? These are the:
1) Cervical - 7
2) Thoracic - 12
3) Lumbar - 5
4) Sacrum - 5
5) Coccyx - 4
06 anatomy How many pairs of ribs are there in the body? There are 12 pairs of these. 06 anatomy What is the sternum? This is the midline of the chest. It's bordered superiorly by the easily palpable jugular notch. It has three components: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.  06 anatomy What is the xiphoid process. This is a narrow, cartilaginous tip which forms the inferior part of the sternum. 06 anatomy What is the shoulder girdle? This is where three bones (the clavicle, scapula, and humerus) come together, allowing the arm to be moved. 06 anatomy What is the clavicle (AKA the collarbone)? This overlies the superior boundaries of the thorax in fonrt and articulates posteriorly with the scapula. 06 anatomy What is the scapula? This lies in the muscular tissue of the posterior thoracic wall. 06 anatomy What two bones compose the forearm? This is composed of the ulna (medial, larger in the proximal) and radius (lateral, larger in the distal). 06 anatomy What bones make up the pelvis? This is made up of the sacrum and the two pelvic bones, each of which is formed by the fusion of three separate bones, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis, joined posteriorly by the sacrum. 06 anatomy What is the pubis symphysis? This is a hard and bony cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowest portion of the abdomen, where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion. 06 anatomy What is the acetabulum? "This is the part of the pelvis where the lower leg connects, the ""socket"" in which the ""ball"" of the femur fits." 06 anatomy What is the greater trochanter? This is the projection on the lateral / superior portion of the femur. 06 anatomy What is the lesser trochanter? This is the medial / superior portion of the femur. 06 anatomy What is the patella? This is the kneecap. 06 anatomy What is the tibia (shine bone)? This is the larger bone of lower leg. It lies in the anterior of the leg. 06 anatomy What is the fibula? This is the smaller of the bones in the lower leg. It lies on the lateral side of the leg. 06 anatomy What is joint capsules? These are fibrous sacs composed of ligaments at the end of bones, and assist in flexion. 06 anatomy What is the synovial membrane? This is special tissue on the inner lining of the joint capsule that is responsible for making a thick lubricant called synovial fluid. This fluid allows the ends of bones to glide over each other as opposed to grating. 06 anatomy What is the difference between ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints? The first allows rotation and bending (as in the shoulder joint), while the second restricts motion to one plane (as in the knee). 06 anatomy What is the skeletal system responsible for? This is resonsible for:
1) giving the body shape.
2) providing protection of fragile organs.
3) allowing for movement.
And,
4) helping with the creation of various types of blood cells.
06 anatomy How many different muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system? There are over 600 of these. 06 anatomy What are skeletal muscles (AKA voluntary muscles)? These attach to the bones of the skeleton and forms the major muscle mass of the body. They are under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be stimulated to contract or relax at will. 06 anatomy What is smooth muscle? This is found within blood vessels and intestines. 06 anatomy What is cardiac muscle? This is found only within the heart. 06 anatomy What is the epiglottis? These is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that protects the opening of the trachea. 06 anatomy What is the location and function of the biceps? This is located anterior to the humerus,
and,
flexes the lower arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the triceps? This is located posterior to the humerus,
and,
extends the lower arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the pectoralis? This is located anterior to the thorax,
and,
flexes and rotates the arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the latissimus dorsi? This is located posterior to the thorax,
and,
extends and rotates the arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the rectus abdominis? This is located anterior to the abdomen,
and,
flexes and rotates the spine.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the tibialis anterior? This is located anterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes towards the heads.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the gastrocnemius? This is located posterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes away from the head.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the quadriceps? This is located anterior to the femur,
and,
extends the lower leg.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the biceps femoris? This is located posterior to the femur,
and,
flexes the lower leg.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the gluteus? This is located posterior to the pelvis,
and,
extends and rotates the leg.
06 anatomy What is another name for the larynx? Another name for this is the voice box. 06 anatomy What is the cricothyroid membrane? This lies between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. It can be felt as a depression in the midline of the neck just inferior to the thyroid cartilage. 06 anatomy What kind of muscle is the diaphragm? This is unique because it has characteristics of skeletal and smooth muscle. 06 anatomy How does the body detect decreased blood pressure, and what will it do as a result? The body detects this situation by the baroreceptors, and will initiate the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. 06 anatomy What is the V/Q ratio? This examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is gaining access to the alveoli. 06 anatomy What is pathophysiology? This is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular disease. 06 anatomy What is normal physiologic pH? This is normally between 7.35 and 7.45 pH. 06 anatomy What is sodium bicarbonate? This is an alkaline and helps to buffer or neutralize the acidic waste products of the cells. 06 anatomy What is lactic acid? This is the metabolic end product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (AKA anaerobic respiration). 06 anatomy What is the endocrine system? This is a complex message and control system that uses hormones to stimulate the body. 06 anatomy In a healthy adult, what percent of total body weight is delivered as fluid daily to the gastrointestinal tract? About 7% of this is delivered. If significant vomiting or diarrhea occurs for more than 2 or 3 days, the person will lose a substantial portion of body composition and become severely ill. 06 anatomy What are enzymes? These are substance catalysts designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions. 06 anatomy What are hormones? These are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. They regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature. 06 anatomy What is bile? This is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and emptied as needed into the duodenum. Its major function is the digestion of fat. 06 anatomy What is chyme? This is ingested food converted in the stomach into a thoroughly mixed semisolid mass. 06 anatomy How much saliva is produced daily? Approximately 1.5 litres of this is produced daily. 06 anatomy What is the average stroke volume (SV) of an adult heart? This is 70 to 80 mL each on average. 06 anatomy What is the average cardiac output (CO) of an adult? This is 5 to 6 litres. 06 anatomy What are the two electrical processes associated with the mechanical contraction of the heart? These are:
1) depolarization, when the electrical charge on the muscle cell surface changes from positive to negative.
And,
2) repolarization, when the heart returns to its resting state and positive charge is restored to the surface.
06 anatomy What is the path of the electrical impulse that produces the a smooth flow of electricity through the heart? This begins high in the atria at the sinoatrial node, then travels to the atrioventricular node bundle of His, and moves through the Purkinje fivers to the ventricles. 06 anatomy What is the chordae tendineae? These are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. 06 anatomy What is the tunica media? This is the middle layer of the artery, and is where the smooth muscles are found that can contract and dilate to change the diameter of the blood vessels. 06 anatomy What are the coronary arteries? These supply the heart. 06 anatomy What are the carotid arteries? These supply the head. 06 anatomy What are the hepatic arteries? These supply the liver with blood. 06 anatomy What are the renal arteries? These supply the kidneys with blood. 06 anatomy What are the mesenteric arteries? These supply the digestive system with blood. 06 anatomy What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)? This is the resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels. 06 anatomy How much blood is in the spleen at any one time? Approximately 450 mL of blood is in this organ at any one time. Virtually all the blood in the body passes through here during the day, where it is filtered. 06 anatomy What is blood plasma composed of? This is composed of:
92% water,
7% proteins such as albumin which regulates oncotic pressure,
and
the final 1% is oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, nutrients, cellular wastes, and other cellular products.
06 anatomy How much blood does a child have in their body? This group has approximately 2 to 3 litres, depending on their age and size. 06 anatomy How much blood does an infant have in their body? This group has only about 300 mL in their body. 06 anatomy How much blood is in the heart, arteries, and capillaries versus the veins and venules? The ratio is approximately 30% in the former group, and 70% in the later group. 06 anatomy What is interstitial space? This is the space between cells. 06 anatomy What are alpha-adrenergic receptors? These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause constriction of blood vessels. 06 anatomy What are beta-adrenergic receptors? These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation. 06 anatomy What are the three parts of the brain stem? These are:
1) the midbrain,
2) the pons,
and 3) the medulla oblongata.
06 anatomy What is the parasympathetic nervous system? This is the other half of the autonomic nervous system and generally slow down the body. 06 anatomy What are the 2 layers of the skin? These are:
1) The epidermis; at its base is the germinal layer, which continuously produces new cells.
2) The dermis; the sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, hair follices, blood vessels, and specialized nerve endings are located here.
06 anatomy How long does it take for cells produced in the germinal layer to rise to the stratum corneal layer? This journey takes about 4 weeks. 06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)? For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes inspiration when stimulated.
Timing: Normal, resting respirations; rhythmic, mechanical pattern.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)? For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes expiration or inspiration.
Timing: Speech, increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the Pneumotaxic (pontine) center? For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the apneustic center? For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration, decreases rate.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex (stretch reflex)? For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects lung expansion to a point and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex? For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects potential lung collapse and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the adrenal gland? For this gland:
Location: Above the kidneys.
Function: Stress response, fight or flight.
Hormones produced: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the ovary? For this gland:
Location: Female pelvis.
Function: Regulates sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Estrogen and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pancreas? For this gland:
Location: Retroperitoneal space.
Function: Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions.
Hormones produced: Insulin and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the parathyroid? For this gland:
Location: Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)
Function: Regulates serum calcium.
Hormones produced: Parathyroid hormone.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pituitary gland? For this gland:
Location: Base of skull.
Function: Regulates all other endocrine glands.
Hormones produced: Multiple, controls other endocrine glands.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the testes? For this gland:
Location: Male scrotum.
Function: Regulate sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Testosterone and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the thyroid? For this gland:
Location: Neck (over the larynx).
Function: Regulates metabolism.
Hormones produced: Thyroxine and others.
06 anatomy What is one example of an additional skill that an AEMT can perform that a standard EMT-B cannot? One example of this is esophageal-tracheal intubation. EMS systems What are the responsibilities of the medical director? This person uses their license to allow EMT-Bs to provide prehospital care, and is responsible for the quality of treatment given. They are also responsible for ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training, ensuring the appropriate standards are met by EMT-Bs, and serving as liaison with the medical community. EMS systems What are standing orders? "These are specific policies issued by a medical director that authorizes an EMT to perform particular skills in certain situations (for example: ""if a patient has a blood sugar below 60, administer oral glucose"")." EMS systems What does continuous quality improvement (AKA CQI) involve? This involves:
Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.
Discussion of needs for improvement.
And,
Periodic reviews of run reports.
EMS systems Who is responsible for maintaining quality control? This responsibility ultimately rests with the medical director. EMS systems What is always an EMT-Bs first priority during a call? This is always personal safety. EMS systems What are some essential skills an EMT-B needs to learn? Some examples of this include:
Verbal and written communication skills.
Dealing with medical, legal, and ethical situations,
and,
Delivering a baby.
EMS systems "What are the ten standards identified by the ""Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards"" provided by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration?" These are:
1) regulation and policy,
2) resource management,
3) human resources and training,
4) transportation,
5) facilities,
6) communications,
7) public information and education,
8) medical direction,
9) trauma systems,
and
10) evaluation.
EMS systems What is online medical control? This is when you are in direct contact with a doctor concerning the current patient. EMS systems What is another term for medical direction? Another term for this is medical control. EMS systems What is the list of steps taken in different situations, and developed by a medical director, called? These are referred to as protocols. EMS systems What federal agency has developed standards for training and development of the EMS system? This agency is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. EMS systems What are some components of the EMS system? Some components of this include:
911 Dispatchers,
Patients,
EMS personnel,
and First Responders.
EMS systems What is burnout? This is a condition of chronic fatigue and frustration that results from mounting stress over time. safety wellness Who should handle downed power lines at the scene of a motor vehicle accident? Only a power company employee is equiped to deal with this hazard. safety wellness What should you remember when handling needles? "When dealing with these, remember to:
Always wear gloves.
Never recap.
Dispose in a ""sharps"" container.
Consider any needle to be infectious.
" safety wellness How is syphilis transmitted? This is both a sexually transmitted disease and a bloodborne disease. safety wellness What are the stages of the grieving process? The steps are:
Denial,
Hostility,
Bargaining,
Depression,
and,
Acceptance.
safety wellness What is exposure? This occurs when an individual comes in contact with blood or other bodily fluids. It is important to remember that this does not always lead to transmission and infection. safety wellness What are the five common hazards associated with fire? These are:
1) Smoke.
2) Oxygen deficiency.
3) High ambient temperatures.
4) Toxic gases.
and 5) Building collapse.
safety wellness What occurs at a CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing) meeting? Here, mental health professionals will help you by listening to your feelings, fears, and reactions, then offering suggestions on how to overcome the stress. safety wellness When dealing with multiple patients, what is very important to remember? In this sitaution, remember to change gloves between contact with different patients. safety wellness What is the most common cause of the spread of infectious disease in the field? The most common cause of this is the careless handling of infected needles or scalpels. Never recap and dispose in sharps containers. safety wellness When is the first thing an EMT-B should do upon arriving at the scene of a hzardous materials incident? The first thing to do is attempt to identify the safety placard and allow specialized teams, such as the fire department or Hazmat teams, handle the situation. safety wellness What is the simplest, most effective ways to control disease transmission? This is handwashing. safety wellness How is tuberculosis transmitted? This is transmitted via inhaled airborne droplets. safety wellness What gas is responsible for more deaths each year than any other by-product of combustion? This is carbon monoxide. safety wellness During a potentially violent situation such as a civil disturbance, how should you utilize law enforcement? In this situation, use law enforcement to ensure that bystanders keep a safe distance from you, and to ensure that the scene remains safe. safety wellness What are some signs of hepatitis? Some signs of this are:
fever,
loss of appetite,
jaundice,
and,
fatigue.
safety wellness What should you do if you suspect that an infected person's blood or body fluid has entered your system? In this situation, you should seek medical advice and care as soon as possible. Based on the degree of exposure, the physician may suggest immediate treatment. safety wellness What is direct contact? This is the exposure of a communicable disease from one person to another. safety wellness What is Body Substance Isolation (BSI)? This is a concept based on the assumption that all body fluids are potentially infectious. safety wellness What is meningitis? This is an inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and the spinal column. safety wellness What is one of the most important safeguards against legal problems? A complete, accurate report is one of the most important safeguards against this. The courts consider an incomplete or untidy report to be evidence of incomplete or unexpert care provided. ethical legal What is an advanced directive (AKA health care directive)? This is a written document that specifies medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions. ethical legal What are DNR orders? These are written documentation that give medical personnel permission not to attempt resuscitation. ethical legal What is assualt? This is anytime you unlawfully place a person in fear of immediate bodily harm without his consent. ethical legal What is battery? This is defined as unlawfully touching a person without his or her consent. ethical legal What is abandonment? This is unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient. ethical legal What is defamation? This is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community. ethical legal What is expressed consent (AKA actual consent)? This is a type of consent in which a patient give express authorization for provision of care or transport. ethical legal What is implied consent? This is a type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment. ethical legal What is informed consent? This is permission for treatment given by a compentent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained. ethical legal What are Good Samaritan Laws? These are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence. ethical legal What is breach of duty? This is anytime the EMT-B does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care. This includes providing care above the level of your training. ethical legal When does an EMT have a legal duty to assist? EMTs have a legal duty to do this when:
They are on duty in their respective jurisdictions,
They have begun to respond to an emergency,
or, in some cases,
departmental policy requires this in an emergency.
safety wellness What are some situations where a minor can be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to treatment? This can occur when the minor is emancipated, pregnant, or married. safety wellness What is the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? This is legislation that was passed in 1990 and was designed to protect individuals with disabilities against discrimination. safety wellness What is off-line or indirect medical control? This is protocol or standing orders that are carried out by the EMT-B when contact with the medical director is not possible. safety wellness What should you do if a patient refuses treatment? If this happens, you should:
Inform the patient of the potential risks, benefits, treatments, and alternatives.
You should also inform the patient about the consequences of refusing treatment and encourage questions.
Lastly, you should try to obtain a signature on an official release form acknowledging refusal.
safety wellness What is the Ryan White Law? This requires hospital staff to notify a department's designated officer when a patient that the department has cared for has an infectious disease. This law was previously off the books but was re-instituted until 10/2013. safety wellness What are some factors you should consider when communicating with your patients? When doing this, consider these factors:
Body language,
Verbal choice of words and tone,
Culture and background,
and Gender and age.
communications What is a repeater? This receives messages and frequencies on one frequency and then automatically transmits them on a second, higher frequency. communications What should you include in your oral report to hospital staff? Keep this complete but precise. Provide name, age, chief complaint, mechanism of injury, important history, treatment, vital signs, and pertinent information. communications What is a trunking system? In this system, several radio frequencies are assigned to a group, and each time a radio conversation starts, a computer picks up the next available frequency automatically. communications What is a base station? This is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver located in a fixed place. It may be used in a single place using a microphone, or remotely using telephone lines. communications What are the functions of the EMS dispatcher? Function of this person include:
Screening calls and assigning priority,
Selecting and alerting the appropriate EMS unit,
dispatching and directing the responding EMS unit,
coordinating EMS units with other public safety services,
and, providing emergency medical instructions to the caller.
communications How many watts of power do VHF mobile radios operate at? These operate at 100 watts of power, and are mounted in mobile vehicles. communications How many watts of power do handsets operate at? These transmit at 1 to 10 watts. communications What should you do if you discover an error while writing a report? In this situation, draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct information next to it. communications What is an important rule of thumb when speaking on the radio? An important rule of thumb is to always repeat back what you are told. communications What is the Federal Communications Commission (AKA FCC) responsible for? This is reponsible for allocating specific radio frequencies to EMS providers, licensing base stations, establishing licensing standards, establishing limitations for transmitter power output, and monitoring radio operations. communications What is therapeutic communication? This is using communication strategies and techniques to encourage patients to honestly express how they are feeling, and initiate a positive relationship with the patient. communications How can you improve handheld radio strength? To improve the efficiency of this, go to a higher location with minimal obstructions. Also, a weak battery or loose or damaged antenna can affect performance. communications What information should be given to the receiving nurse or physician? Give the following to this person:
Patient's name,
Vital signs,
A summary of past medical history,
and the patient's response to any treatment that you rendered.

Remember to keep the report concise and to the point.
communications What should you include on a Patiet Care Report (PCR)? In short, simply state the facts and medically relevant information in this. Remember also that this is part of the patient's permanent medical record. communications What is the most effective delivery of oxygen to the lungs in the long term? An endotracheal tube provides the most effective delivery of this. ALS How do you calculate the correct-sized endotracheal tube for pediatric patients? For this type of patient, you should add 16 to the patient's age, then divide that number by 4. Another method is to select a tube that roughly equals the size of the diameter of the patient's little finger across the nail bed. ALS What is an end tidal carbon dioxide detector used primarily for? One use of this is to confirm proper placement of an Endotracheal Tube (ETT), as the detector reacts to levels of carbon dioxide produced during exhalation. ALS How long should an ETT insertion take? This should take no longer than 30 seconds, as lengthy attempts at intubating can result in severe hypoxia, especially if the patient is not adequately hyperventilated with high-flow oxygen before the attempt. ALS What is the next step after placing an ETT in a patient who is unconscious and unresponsive? The next step after this is to inflate the soft-balloon cuff on the end of the tube with 5 - 10 mL of air. This will seal the trachea and anchor the tube so that air be blown directly into the lungs. Once the cuff is inflated, you should attach the BVM device and begin ventilating. ALS What are some contraindications to the use of a mutli-lumen airway device? Contraindications for this include:
patients who are conscious or semi-conscious with a gag reflex,
children younger than 16 years of age,
adults shorter than 5 feet tall,
patients who have ingested a caustic substance,
and,
patients who have a known esophageal disease.
ALS In patients with suspected spinal injury, what should you do while attempting oral intubation? In these kinds of patients, remember to provide manual spinal immobilization during intubation. ALS When using a disposable plastic end-tidal CO2 detector as a secondary method of confirming proper tube placement, what color should the chemically treated paper turn to indicate proper tube placement? This changes from purple to yellow in the presence of exhaled carbon dioxide. ALS When the ETT is properly positioned, where should the cuff be situated? This should be situated just past the vocal cords when it is properly positioned. ALS What does the absence of bilaterally equal breath sounds in an intubated patient in cardiac arrest mean? The absence of this in an intubated patient in cardiac arrest indicates that you inadvertently intubated the esophagus. You must immediately remove the tube, and then hyperventilate the patient for at least 2 -3 minutes prior to another attempt. ALS When is endotracheal intubation indicated? This is indicated in unresponsive patients without a gag reflex or the ability to cough. ALS What is the curved (Macintosh) blade used for? This is inserted just in front of the epiglottis, into the vallecula (the space between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis), indirectly allowing you to see the glottic opening and vocal cords. ALS What is the proper size for an endotracheal tube for an adult male patient? The proper-sized endotracheal tube for these kinds of patients range from 7.5 to 8.5 mm. A good rule of thumb is to always have a 7.5 mm ETT on hand at all times, as this will fit most male and female (6.5 - 8 mm) patients. ALS What is the most common error made during endotracheal intubation? The most common error in this procedure is accidenlt advancing the tube too far into the right mainstream bronchus. ALS How many mL of air should it take to inflate an ETT cuff? If done correctly, it should take no more than 5 to 10 mL of air to inflate the cuff and secure the airway. ALS What is the first key rule of lifting? The first key rule of this is to always keep your back in an upright position and lift without twisting. lifting moving What is the safest and most powerful way to lift? The power lift is this kind of lift. lifting moving How many rescuers should you use whenever possible, and who is responsible for coordinating the moves? You should try to have four of these whenever resourcers allow; the team leader is responsible for this. lifting moving What is the most commonly used device to move and transport patients? The wheeled ambulance stretcher is the most commonly used one of these. lifting moving What are devices used to carry patients? Types of these devices include:
The wheeled ambulance stretchers,
Portable stretchers,
Flexible stretchers,
Backboards,
Basket stretchers (AKA Stokes litters),
Scoop stretchers,
and,
Stair chairs.
lifting moving What is bariatrics? This is a branch of medicine concerned with the management, prevention and control of obesity and allied diseases. lifting moving What is a basket stretcher (AKA a Stokes litter)? This is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. lifting moving What is a diamond carry? This is a carrying technique in which one EMT is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the EMTs at the sides use one hand to support the stretcher / backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. lifting moving What is the direct ground lift? This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. lifting moving What is an emergency move? This is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided. lifting moving What is an extremity lift? This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injury. lifting moving What is a flexible stretcher? This is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use. lifting moving What is a portable stretcher? This is a stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. lifting moving What is a power grip? This is a technique in which the litter or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb. lifting moving What is the power lift? This is a lifting technique in which the EMTs' back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. lifting moving What is the rapid extrication technique? This is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. lifting moving AAA  abdominal aortic aneurysm 05 abbreviations terminology A+Ox3  alert and oriented to person, place and time abbreviations AB abortion abbreviations abd  abdomen 05 abbreviations terminology LLQ left lower quadrant abbreviations LUQ left upper quadrant abbreviations RLQ right lower quadrant abbreviations RUQ  right upper quadrant abbreviations ABG  arterial blood gas abbreviations ACS 
acute coronary syndrome

abbreviations AD  auric dexter (right ear) abbreviations AS 
auric sinister (left ear)

abbreviations AU
both ears

abbreviations ADA 
Americans with Disabilities Act
abbreviations ADA diet 
American Diabetes Association diet
abbreviations ADLs  activities of daily living abbreviations AKA 
also known as
above the knee amputation

abbreviations AKI 
acute kidney injury

abbreviations ALL 
acute lymphocytic leukemia

abbreviations AMA 
- against medical advice
- American Medical Association

abbreviations AMI 
acute myocardial infarction

abbreviations AP and lat  anteroposterior and lateral (x-ray views) abbreviations APAP tylenol abbreviations AROM 
active range of motion

abbreviations ARDS  acute respiratory distress syndrome abbreviations ARF 
acute renal failure (replaced with AKI – acute kidney injury)

abbreviations ASHD 
arteriosclerotic heart disease

abbreviations ASCVD 
atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (pap results)

abbreviations ASA 
acetylsalicylic acid, aspirin

abbreviations ATB  antibiotic abbreviations b/l  bilateral abbreviations ßhCG 
– beta chain, human chorionic gonadotropin.  (positive in pregnancy)

abbreviations BCP 
birth control pills

abbreviations BKA 
below knee amputation

abbreviations bid 
twice a day

abbreviations BPH 
benign prostatic hypertrophy

abbreviations BRBPR 
– bright red blood per rectum

abbreviations BRP 
bathroom privileges

abbreviations BS 
breath sounds
bowel sounds
abbreviations BSE 
breast self-examination

abbreviations BSO bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy abbreviations Bx Biopsy abbreviations c with abbreviations c/o complains of  abbreviations Ca++ calcium abbreviations CA cancer abbreviations C&S culture and sensitivity abbreviations CABG coronary artery bypass graft (x2, x3, x4 - depending on number of arteries) abbreviations CAD coronary artery disease abbreviations CBC complete blood count abbreviations CBE clinical breast exam abbreviations C/C/E cyanosis, clubbing, and edema abbreviations CHF congestive heart failure abbreviations CKD chronic kidney disease abbreviations CLL chronic lymphocytic leukemia abbreviations CML chronic myelogenous leukemia abbreviations CNM certified nurse midwife abbreviations CNS central nervous system abbreviations COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease abbreviations CPK  creatinine phosphokinase abbreviations CRF chronic renal failure abbreviations CRNFA certified registered nurse first assist abbreviations CSF cerebrospinal fluid abbreviations CTA clear to auscultation abbreviations CTAP clear to auscultation and percussion abbreviations CVA cerebrobascular accident
costocertebral angle
abbreviations Cx cervix
cancel
abbreviations CXR chest xray abbreviations Daily no abbvn. (qD is no longer acceptable) abbreviations D5W 5% glucose in water abbreviations D5/NS dextrose in normal saline abbreviations D5/RL dextrose in Ringer's lactate abbreviations D/C discharge
discontinued (both cannot be abbreviated, must be written out)
abbreviations D&C dilation and curettage abbreviations D&E dilation and evacuation abbreviations DIP distal interphalangeal joint abbreviations DJD degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis) abbreviations DM diabetes mellitus abbreviations DNR do not resuscitate abbreviations DOA dead on arrival abbreviations DOB date of birth abbreviations DTR's  deep tendon reflexes abbreviations DUB dysfuncitonal uterine bleeding abbreviations Dx diagnosis
disease
abbreviations DVT deep vein thrombosis abbreviations EAC external auditory canal abbreviations EDC estimate date of confinement (expected delivery date) abbreviations EDD expected date of delivery abbreviations ENT ears, nose, throat abbreviations EOMI extraocular movements intact abbreviations ESR erythrocyte sedimentation rate abbreviations ETOH alcohol abbreviations FROM full range of motion abbreviations FB foreign body abbreviations FH  family history abbreviations Fam Hx family history abbreviations FTT failure to thrive

abbreviations F/U follow up  abbreviations FUO fever of unknown origin abbreviations Fx fracture abbreviations GB gallbladder abbreviations GC gonococcus, gonorrhea abbreviations GI gastrointestinal abbreviations GSW gun shot wound abbreviations Gtts drops abbreviations GU genitourinary abbreviations Gyn gynecology abbreviations H/A headache abbreviations H&P history and physical abbreviations Hct hemotocrit abbreviations HDL high density lipoprotein abbreviations HEENT head eyes ears nose and throat abbreviations Hgb  hemoglobin abbreviations HJR hepatojugular reflux abbreviations H/O history of abbreviations HPI history of present illness abbreviations HPV human papilloma virus abbreviations hs hour of sleep, bedtime abbreviations HTN hypertension abbreviations Hx history

abbreviations IDDM insulin dependent diabetes mellitus abbreviations Infx infection abbreviations IPPB intermitten positive pressure breathing abbreviations I&D incision and drainage abbreviations IM intramuscular abbreviations I&O intake and output abbreviations IVP intravenous pyelogram abbreviations IUP intrauterine pregnancy abbreviations JRA juvenile rheumatoid arthritis abbreviations JVD jugular venous distention abbreviations KUB xray of kidneys, ureters, and bladder abbreviations KVO keep vein open abbreviations L left abbreviations L&D labor and delivery  abbreviations LDL low density lipoprotein abbreviations Lap appy laparoscopic appendectomy abbreviations Lap chole laparoscopic cholecystectomy abbreviations LFT liver function test abbreviations LIQ lower inner quadrant (of breast) abbreviations LLE left lower extremity  abbreviations LLL left lower lobe (of lung) abbreviations LOQ lower outer quadrant (of breast) abbreviations LUL left upper lobe (of lung) abbreviations LRI lower respiratory infection abbreviations LMP last menstrual period abbreviations LNMP last normal menstrual period abbreviations LOC lost of consciousness abbreviations LP lumbar puncture abbreviations LUE left upper extremity

abbreviations LVH left ventricular hypertrophy abbreviations m murmur abbreviations m/g/r murmur, gallop, rub abbreviations MCL midclavicular line abbreviations Mcg microgram (NOT ug) abbreviations MGF maternal grandmother abbreviations MI myocardial infarction abbreviations MOM milk of magnesia abbreviations MRSA methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus abbreviations MVA motor vehicle accident abbreviations MVP mitral valve prolapse  abbreviations NAD no acute distress abbreviations Na sodium abbreviations NABSx4 normoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants abbreviations N/C normocephalic abbreviations NCAT normocephalic, atraumatic abbreviations ND/NT nondistended, nontender (abdomen) abbreviations NG nasogastric abbreviations NIDDM non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus abbreviations NKA no known allergies

abbreviations NKDA no known drug allergies abbreviations NPO nothing by mouth abbreviations NSR  normal sinus rhythm abbreviations NSVD normal spontaneous vaginal delivery abbreviations N&V nausea and vomiting abbreviations N/V/D/C nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation abbreviations OA osteoarthritis (same as DJD) abbreviations OC oral contraceptive abbreviations OM otitis media abbreviations OD oculus dexter (R eye) abbreviations OS oculus sinister (L eye) abbreviations OU oculi unitas (both eyes) abbreviations OOB out of bed abbreviations OOT out of town abbreviations ORIF open reduction, internal fixation (of a fracture) abbreviations OT occupational therapy abbreviations OTC over the counter abbreviations p after, post abbreviations pc after meals

abbreviations PCN penicillin abbreviations PFT pulmonary function test  abbreviations PID pelvic inflammatory disease abbreviations PKU phenylketonuria abbreviations po  by mouth

abbreviations pr  per rectum abbreviations PT physical therapy abbreviations PERRLA pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation abbreviations PGF paternal grandfather abbreviations PGM paternal grandmother abbreviations pp post prandial (after meals) abbreviations prn as needed

abbreviations PROM  passive range of motion
premature rupture of membranes (in pregnancy)
abbreviations q every abbreviations qd  no longer acceptable for everyday or daily use

abbreviations qid four times a day abbreviations qod no longer acceptable for every other day  abbreviations R right abbreviations RA rheumatoid arthritis abbreviations RAD  reactive airway disease abbreviations RLE right lower extremity abbreviations RUE right upper extremity abbreviations RLL right lower lobe (of lung) abbreviations RML right middle lobe of lung abbreviations RUL right upper lobe of lung abbreviations R/O rule out  abbreviations ROS review of systems abbreviations RRR regular rate and rhythm  abbreviations RTO return to office abbreviations Rx treatment or therapy abbreviations Rxn reaction abbreviations s without abbreviations SBE  self breast exam abbreviations SH, Soc Hx  social history abbreviations Sibs  siblings abbreviations SLR straight leg raise abbreviations SOAP note  patient interaction summary (subjective, objective, assessment and plan) abbreviations SOB shortness of breath abbreviations STD sexually transmitted disease abbreviations STI sexually transmitted infection

abbreviations STSG split thickness skin graft abbreviations Stat immediately abbreviations SLE systemic lupus erythematosus abbreviations SL sublingually abbreviations subcut subcutaneously (SC, SQ, subQ are unacceptable) abbreviations Sx symptoms abbreviations T&A tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy abbreviations TAH total abdominal hysterectomy abbreviations TAHBSO total abdominal hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy abbreviations THA total hip arthroplasty abbreviations s/p status post, after abbreviations TKA total knee arthroplasty abbreviations TIA transient ischemic attack abbreviations tid three times a day abbreviations TM's tympanic membranes abbreviations TMJ temporomandibular joint abbreviations TPN total parenteral nutrition abbreviations TSH thyroid stimulating hormone  abbreviations TTP tender to palpation abbreviations TURP transurethral resection of the prostate abbreviations Tx treatment abbreviations U/A urinalysis abbreviations UGI upper gastrointestinal abbreviations Unit no abbreviation, write it out abbreviations UIQ upper inner quadrant (of breast) abbreviations UOQ upper outer quadrant (of breast) abbreviations URI upper respiratory infection abbreviations US ultrasound abbreviations UTI urinary tract infection abbreviations VBAC vaginal birth after cesarean section abbreviations VRE vancomycin resistant enterococci abbreviations VS vital signs abbreviations WNL within normal limits abbreviations WN, WD well-nourished, well-developed abbreviations y.o.  year old abbreviations x2d (x3d, etc.) """d"" can be confused for days or doses. do not use. write out days or doses" abbreviations @ at abbreviations x duration abbreviations ↑ increased or living abbreviations ↓  decreased or deceased abbreviations Ø negative abbreviations + positive abbreviations Δ change abbreviations 1º  primary abbreviations 2º  secondary abbreviations > can be misinterpreted, do not use abbreviations < can be misinterpreted, do not use abbreviations trailing zeros  do not use; ie 2mg not 2.0mg abbreviations leading decimal points do not use; ie 0.2 mg not .2mg abbreviations """PASTE"" is an alternate assessment tool for {{c1::respiratory}} patients" EMS_Ch15 A pleural {{c1::effusion}} is MOST accurately defined as fluid accumulation outside the lung. EMS_Ch15
Asthma is caused by a response of the {{c1::immune}} system.
EMS_Ch15 Crackles (rales) are caused by air passing through {{c1::fluid}}. EMS_Ch15 In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely {{c1::diffuse}} across the alveolar-capillary membrane. EMS_Ch15 In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Alveoli EMS_Ch15 When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has {{c1::abnormal}} breath sounds. EMS_Ch15 Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated {{c1::lung}} infections. EMS_Ch15 What must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Lung sounds EMS_Ch15 "Low-pitched ""rattling"" sounds bilaterally at the bases on the lungs indicates aspiration {{c1::pneumonia}}." EMS_Ch15 Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the {{c1::hypoxic}} drive. EMS_Ch15 Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of toxic chemical {{c1::inhalation}}. EMS_Ch15 Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when blood acidity is reduced by excessive {{c1::breathing}}. EMS_Ch15  A regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest indicates adequate {{c1::air exchange}}. EMS_Ch15 Common signs and symptoms of acute {{c1::hyperventilation}} syndrome include tachypnea and tingling in the extremities. EMS_Ch15 Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as shortness of {{c1::breath}} or difficulty {{c2::breathing}}. EMS_Ch15 When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal- respirations increase in {{c1::rate}} and {{c2::depth}}. EMS_Ch15 Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway {{c1::swelling}} and {{c2::hypo}}tension. EMS_Ch15 The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of {{c1::low}} oxygen levels. EMS_Ch15 Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), rales, and dependent edema are clinical indicators of {{c1::congestive heart failure}}. EMS_Ch15 Thromboembolism is a blood {{c1::clot}} floating through blood vessels until it reaches a narrow area and {{c2::blocks}} blood flow. EMS_Ch15
Ischemia means lack of {{c1::oxygen}}. It is potentially reversible because permanent injury has not occured yet.
EMS_Ch15 Infarction means {{c1::tissue}} death. EMS_Ch15 Cardiogenic shock can occur within {{c1::24}} hours of a(n) Acute Myocardial Infarction EMS_Ch15 The only vein(s) in the body that carry oxygenated blood is/are the {{c1::pulmonary}} veins. EMS_Ch15 When, for a brief period of time, heart tissues do not get enough oxygen, the pain is called {{c1::angina}}. EMS_Ch15 About {{c1::30}} minutes after blood flow is cut off, some heart muscle cells begin to die. EMS_Ch15
Automaticity allows a cardiac muscle cell to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a {{c1::nerve}} source.

EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pacemakers}} are inserted when the electrical control system of the heart is so damaged that it cannot function properly. EMS_Ch15 In general, a maximum of {{c1::3}} dose(s) of nitroglycerin is/are given for any one episode of chest pain. EMS_Ch15 A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores {{c1::blood flow}} to the ischemic myocardium by {{c2::dilating}} the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Acute coronary syndrome (ACS)}} is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. EMS_Ch15 After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should reassess his or her blood pressure within {{c1::5}} minutes to detect {{c2::hypotension}}. EMS_Ch15 Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle flows into the {{c1::pulmonary}} arteries. EMS_Ch15 Cardiac output may {{c1::decrease}} if the heart beats too rapidly because there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to {{c2::refill}} completely. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Cardiogenic}} shock following AMI is caused by decreased pumping force of the heart muscle. EMS_Ch15 A common side effect of nitroglycerin include {{c1::hypertension}}. EMS_Ch15 A common sign and symptom of AMI includes pain exacerbated by {{c1::breathing}}. "" EMS_Ch15 In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm often presents with pain that is {{c1::maximal}} from the onset. EMS_Ch15 Ischemic heart disease is defined as decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the {{c1::myocardium}}. EMS_Ch15 Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to {{c1::3}} doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. EMS_Ch15 Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by {{c1::dilating}} the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. EMS_Ch15 Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for {{c1::Congestive Heart Failure}}. EMS_Ch15 Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by {{c1::ventricular fibrillation}}.

Ventricular fibrillation is when electrical impulses in the heart start firing randomy in the lower chambers which makes the heart quiver and unable to beat properly. EMS_Ch15 The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the {{c1::navel}}. EMS_Ch15 The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the {{c1::autonomic}} nervous system. EMS_Ch15 The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the {{c1::carotid}} arteries. EMS_Ch15 The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the {{c1::femoral}} arteries. EMS_Ch15 The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is failure of the EMT to ensure {{c1::the battery is charged.}} EMS_Ch15 The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they are in {{c1::denial}}. EMS_Ch15 The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the {{c1::coronary}} arteries, which originate(s) from the {{c2::aorta}}. EMS_Ch15 The posterior {{c1::tibial}} pulse can be palpated behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the {{c2::ankle}}. "
" EMS_Ch15 The purpose of {{c1::defibrillation}} is to stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. EMS_Ch15 Ventricular tachycardia causes {{c1::hypotension}} because the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Acidosis}} is the buildup of excess acid in the body or body tissues that results from a primary illness. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Adventitious}} breath sounds are abnormal breath sounds such as wheezing, stridor, rhonchi, and crackles.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Alkalosis}} is the buildup of excess base (lack of acids) in the body fluids.
EMS_Ch15 An {{c1::allergen}} is a substance that causes allergic reaction. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Asthma}} is an acute spasm of the smaller air passages, called brochioles, associated with excessive mucus production and with swelling of the mucous lining of the respiratory passages.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Atelectasis}} is the collapse of the aveolar air spaces of the lungs.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Bronchial}} breath sounds are normal breath sounds made by air moving through the bronchi.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Bronchiolitis}} is the inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Bronchitis}} is an acute or chronic inflammation of the lung that may damage lung tissue; usually associated with cough and production of sputum and, depending on its cause, sometimes fever.
"
" EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Carbon dioxide retention}} is a condition characterized by a chronically high blood level of carbon dioxide in which the respiratory center no longer responds to high blood levels of carbon dioxide.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Carbon monoxide}} is an odorless, colorless, tasteless, and highly poisonous gas that results from incomplete oxidation of carbon in combustion.
EMS_Ch15 Chronic {{c1::bronchitis}} is an irritation of the major lung passageways from infectious disease or irritants such as smoke. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)}} is a slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chonic bronchial obstruction.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Diptheria}} is an infectious disease in which a membrane form, lining the pharynx; this lining can severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.
EMS_Ch15 An {{c1::embolus}} is a blood clot or other substance in the circulatory system that travels to a blood bessel where it causes a blockage.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Epiglottitis}} is a disease in which the epiglottis becomes inflamed and enlarged and may cause an upper airway obstruction.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Hay fever}} is an allergic response usually to outdoor airborne allergens such as pollen or sometimes indoor allergens such as dust mites or pet danders; also called allergic {{c2::rhinitis}}.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Hyperventilation}} syndrom occurs in the absence of other physical problems and is rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood {{c2::carbon dioxide}} level below normal. The respirations of a person who is experiencing this syndrome may be as high as 40 shallow breaths/min or as low as only 20 very deep breaths/min
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Influenza Type A}} is a virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans, recently reaching a pandemic level with the H1N1 strain.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Orthopnea}} is sever dyspnea experienced when lying down and relieved by sitting up.
EMS_Ch15 Paroxysmal {{c1::norcturnal dyspnea}} is severe shortness of breath, especially at night after several hours of reclining; the person is forced to sit up to breathe.
EMS_Ch15 "{{c1::Pertussis}} is an airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6, in which the patient is feverish and exhibits a ""whoop"" sound on inspiration {{c2::after}} a {{c3::coughing}} attack; highly contagious through droplet infection.
" EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pleural effusion}} is a collection of fluid between the lung and chest wall that may compress the lung.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pleuritic}} chest pain is a sharp, stabbing pain in the chest that is worsened by a deep breath or other chest wall movement; often caused by inflammation or irritation of the pleura. 
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pneumonia}} is an infectious disease of the lung that damages lung tissue; its cause can be bacterial, viral, or fungal.
"" EMS_Ch15 A {{c1::pulmonary edema}} is a buildup of fluid in the lungs, usually as a result of congestive heart failure.
EMS_Ch15 Respiratory {{c1::syncytial}} virus (RSV) is a virus that causes an infection of the lungs and breating passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia; highly contagious and spread through droplets.
EMS_Ch15 A {{c1::small-volume nebulizer }} is a respiratory device that holds liquid medicine that is turned into a fine mist. The patient inhales the medication into the airways and lungs as a treatment for conditions such as asthma. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Tuberculosis}} is a chronic bacterial disease, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, that usually affects the lungs but can also affect other organs such as the brain and kidneys; it is spread by cough and can lie {{c2::dormant}} in a person's lungs for decades and then reactivate.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Vesicular}} breath sounds are normal breath sounds made by air moving in and out of the alveoli.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Acture coronary}} syndrome is a group of symptoms caused by myocardial {{c2::ischemia}}; includes angina and myocardial infaction (MI).
EMS_Ch16 "An {{c1::acute myocardial infarction (AMI)}} is a heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction of blood flow to it; in this context the attack is ""new"" or ""happening right now""; ie. it is acute." EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Angina pectoris}} is transient (short-lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle; also called {{c2::angina}}.
EMS_Ch16 An {{c1::aortic aneurysm}} is a weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture. EMS_Ch16 The {{c1::aortic valve}} is the one-way valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta and keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle adter the left ventricle ejects its blood into the aorta; one of the four heart valves. EMS_Ch16 An {{c1::artifact}} is a tracing on an ECG that is the result of interference, such as patient movement, rather than the heart's electrical activity. EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Asystole}} is the complete absence of all heart electrical activity.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Automaticity}} is the ability of the cardiac muscle cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Cardiac arrest}} is when the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable, even if muscular and electrical activity continues in the heart.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Congestive heart failure}} is a disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Coronary arteries}} are the blood vessels that carry blood and nutrients to the heart muscle.
"
" EMS_Ch16 To {{c1::defibrillate}} is to shock a fibrillating (choatically beating) heart with specialized electric current in an attempt to restore a normal, rhythmic beat. EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Dependent edema}} is swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of {{c2::congestive heart failure}}.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Dilation}} is the widening of a tubular structure such as a coronary artery.
EMS_Ch16 A {{c1::dissecting aneurysm}} is a condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers. "
" EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Dysrhythmia}} is an irregular or abnormal heart rhythm.
EMS_Ch16 A {{c1::hypertensive emergency}} is an emergency situation created by excessively high blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as stoke or aneurysm.
EMS_Ch16 An {{c1::infarction}} is the death of a body tissue, usually caused by interruption of its blood supply. EMS_Ch16 The {{c1::lumen}} is the inside diameter of an artery or other hollow structure.
EMS_Ch16 The {{c1::myocardium}} is the heart muscle. EMS_Ch16 An {{c1::occulsion}} is a blockage, usually of a tubular structure such as a blood vessel. EMS_Ch16 A {{c1::thromboembolism}} is a blood clot that has formed within a blood vessel and is floating within the bloodstream. EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Ventricular fibrillation}} is disorganized, ineffective quivering of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Ventricular tachycardia}} is a rapid heart rhythm in which the electrical impulse begins in the ventricle (instead of the atrium), which may result in inadequate blood flow and eventually deteriorate into cardiac arrest.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Aphasia}} is the inability to understand and/or produce speech.
EMS_Ch17 An {{c1::aura}} is a sensation experienced before a seizure; serves as a warning sign that a seizure is about to occur.
EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)}} is an interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function; also called a stroke. EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::coma}} is a state of profound unconsciousness from which the patient cannot be roused. EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Delirium}} is a sudden change in mental status that is fenerally acut and reversible, characterized by disorientation, inability to focus, inattention, inability to think logically, memory loss, striking changes in personality and affect, hallucinations, delusions, or a decreased level of consciousness.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Dysarthria}} is slurred speech.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Epilepsy}} is a disorder in which abnormal electrical discharges occur in the brain, causing seizure and possible loss of consciousness.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Febrile seizures}} are seizures that result from high fevers; most often seen in children.
EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::generalized seizure}} is a seizure characterized by severe twitching of all the bodys muscles that may last several minutes or more; formerly known as a {{c2::grand mal seizure}} and also known as a {{c3::tonic-clonic seizure}} EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Glucose}} is one of the basic sgars; it is the primary fuel, in conjunction with oxygen, for cellular metabolism.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Hemiparesis}} is weakness on one side of the body.
EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::hemorrhagic stroke}} is a type of stroke that occurs as a result of bleeding inside the brain. EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Incontinence}} is a loss of bowel and/or bladder control; may be the result of a generalized seizure.
EMS_Ch17 An {{c1::ischemic stroke}} is a type of stroke that occurs when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage (eg, a blood clot) inside a blood vessel. EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::partial}} seizure affecting a limited portion of the brain; also called a {{c2::focal seizure}} EMS_Ch17 The {{c1::postictal state}} is the period following a seizure that lasts 5 to 30 minutes; characterized by labored respirations and some degree of altered mental status. EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::seizure}} is a neurologic episode caused by a surge of electrical activity in the brain; can be a convulsion characterized by generalized, uncoordinated muscular activity, and can be associated with loss of consciousness.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Status epilepticus}} is a condition in which seizures recur every few minutes or last longer than 30 minutes.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Thombosis}} is a blood clot, either in the arterial or venous system. When the clot occurs in a cerebral artery, it may result in the interruption of cerebral blood flow and subsequent {{c2::stroke}}.
EMS_Ch17 A {{c1::transient ischemic attack}} is a disorder of the brain in which brain cells temporarily stop functioning because of insufficient oxygen, causing stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within {{c2::24}} hours of onset. EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Acute abdomen}} is a condition of sudden onset of pain within the abdomen, usually indicating peritonitis; immediate medical or surgical treatment is necessary.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Appendicitis}} is the inflammation or infection of the appendix.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Cholecystitis}} is the inflammation of the gallbladder.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Cystitis}} is the inflammation of the bladder.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Diverticulitis}} is inflammation in small pockets at weak areas in the muscle walls.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Emesis}} is another word for vomiting.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)}} is a condition in which the sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach opens, allowing stomach acid to move up into the esophagus, usually resulting in a burning sensation within the chest; also called {{c2::acid reflux}}.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Hematemesis}} is a term that means vomited blood.
EMS_Ch18 A {{c1::hernia}} is the protrusion of an organ or tissue through an abnormal body opening. "" EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Ileus}} is the paralysis of the bowel, arising from any one of several causes; stops contractions that move material through the intestine.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Kidney stones}} are solid crystalline masses formed in the kidney, resulting from an excess of insoluble salts or uric acid crystallizing in the urine; may become trapped anywhere along the urinary tract.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Melena}} is balck, foul-smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Pancreatitis}} is inflammation of the pancreas.
EMS_Ch18 The {{c1::peritoneum}} is the membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the abdominal organs. EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Peritonitis}} is the inflammation of the peritoneum.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Referred pain}} is the pain felt in an area of the body other than the area where the cause of pain is located.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Strangulation}} is the complete obstruction of blood circulation in a given organ as a result of compression of entrapment; an emergency situation causing death of tissue.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Uremia}} is severe kidney failure resulting in the buildup of waste products within the blood. Eventually {{c2::brain}} functions will be impaired.
EMS_Ch18 A {{c1::urinary tract infection (UTI)}} is a bacterial infection, usually of the lower urinary tract (urethra and bladder) that occurs when normal flora bacteria enter the urethra and grow.
EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Asthma}} signs and symptoms include wheezing on inspiration/expiration and bronchospasm.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Anaphylaxis}} signs and symptoms include flushed skin or hives, generalized edema, {{c2::hypotension}}, and wheezing or stridor.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Bronchiolitis}}signs and symptoms include SOB, wheezing, coughing, fever, dehydration, {{c2::tachy}}pnea, and {{c3::tachy}}cardia EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Bronchitis}} signs and symptoms include chronic cough with clear or white sputum, wheezing, cyanosis, and {{c2::tachy}}pnea.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Congestive heart failure (CHF)}} signs and symptoms include dependent edema, crackles, barrel chested, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and produce pink frothy sputum
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Croup}} signs and symptoms include fever, barking cough, stridor, and is mostly seen in pediatric patients.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Diptheria}} signs and symptoms include difficulty breathing and swallowing, sore throat, thick, gray buildup in the throat or nose, and a fever.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Emphysema}} signs and symptoms include barrel chest,  pursed lip breathing, dyspnea on exertion, cyanosis and wheezing or decreased breath sounds.  "
" EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Epiglottitis}} signs and symptoms include dyspnea, high fever, stridor, drooling, difficulty swallowing, sore throat, tripod, or sniffing position.
"" EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Influenza A (flu)}} signs and symptoms include cough, fever, sore throat, and fatigue.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pertussis}} signs and symptoms include coughing spells, whooping sound, and fever.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pneumonia}} signs and symptoms include dyspnea, chills, fever, cough, green/red/rust colored sputum, and localized wheezing or crackles.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pneumothorax}} signs and symptoms include sudden chest pain with dyspnea, decreased breath sounds (affected side), and subcutaneous emphysema.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pulmonary embolus}} signs and symptoms include sharp chest pain, sudden onset, dyspnea, {{c2::tachy}}cardia, clear breath sounds initially.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Tension pneumothorax}} signs and symptoms include severe shortness of breath, decreased/altered LOC, neck vein distention, tracheal deviation (late sign), hypotension; signs of shock (late sign)
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)}} signs and symptoms include cough, wheezing, fever, and dehydation
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Tuberculosis}} signs and symptoms include cough, fever, fatigue, and productive/bloody sputum.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)}} is a method of ventilation used primarily in the treatment of critically ill patients with respiratoy distress; can prevent the need for endotracheal intubation.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Crackles}} are rattling breath sounds signaling fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; formerly called {{c2::rales}}.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Dyspnea}} is difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Emphysema}} is a disease of the lungs in which there is extreme dilation and eventual destrucion of the pulmonary alveoli with poor exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide; it is one form of {{c2::COPD}}.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Hypoxia}} is a condition where the body's cells and tissues do not have enough oxygen.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Hypoxic drive}} is a condition where chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; seen in patients with chronic lung diseases.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Orthopnea}} is severe dyspnea experiences when lying down and relieved by sitting up
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Oxygenation}} is the process of delivering oxygen to the blood.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pandemic}} is an outbreak that occurs on a global scale.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Pneumothorax}} is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space.
EMS_Ch15 A {{c1::pulmonary embolism}} is a blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung, causing obstruction of blood flow. "
" EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Respiration}} is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Rhonchi}} are coarse breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the airways.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Stridor}} is a harsh, high pitched barking inpiratory sound often heard in actute laryngeal ({{c2::upper airway}}) obstruction.
EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Wheezing}} is a high pitched, whistling breath sound characteristically heard on expiration in patients with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
EMS_Ch15 Respiratory Medication Actions: Albuterol, Ipratropium bromide, Levalbuterol, Metaproterenol sulfate, and Salmeterol {{c1::dilate the bronchioles}}. EMS_Ch15 Respiratory Medication Actions: Beclomethasone, Fluticasone, and Montelukast are {{c1::anti-inflammatory}} drugs and reduce {{c2::swelling}} EMS_Ch15 Respiratory Medication Actions: Fluticasone and salmeterol decrease {{c1::secretions.}} EMS_Ch15 Respiratory Medication Actions: Cromolyn decreases the release of {{c1::histamines}}. EMS_Ch15 {{c1::Cardiac output}} is the measure of volume of blood circulated by the heart in one minute, calculated by multiplying the {{c2::stroke volume}} by the heart rate.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Cardiogenic shock}} is a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body caused by low output of blood from the heart.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)}} is the return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Stroke volume}} is the volume of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction.
EMS_Ch16 {{c1::Hypoglycemia}} is an abnormally low blood glucose level.
EMS_Ch17 {{c1::Guarding}} is the involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall; an effort to protect the inflamed abdomen.
EMS_Ch18 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Gradual onset with tightness or pressure Acutemyocardial infarction EMS_Ch16 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Abrupt onset of sharp or tearing pain Dissecting Aneurysm EMS_Ch16 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Pain increases with time and pain may wax and wane Acutemyocardial infarction EMS_Ch16 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Pain is maximal from onset and does not abate once started Dissecting Aneurysm EMS_Ch18 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Pain is localized substernal and does not radiate to back Acutemyocardial infarction EMS_Ch16 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Pain possibly radiates to back or between the shoulder blades Dissecting Aneurysm EMS_Ch18 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Clinical signs show the peripheral pulses as equal Acutemyocardial infarction EMS_Ch16 AMI vs Dissecting Aneurysm?: Clinical signs show a blood pressure discrepancy between arms or decrease in a femoral or carotid pulse Dissecting Aneurysm EMS_Ch16 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Right lower quadrant (direct) around navel (deferred) with rebound tenderness Appendicitis EMS_Ch18 {{c1::Rebound tenderness}} is pain felt on rebound after palpatation.
EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Right upper quadrant (direct); right shoulder (deferred) Cholecystitis EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Upper midabdomen or upport part of back Ulcer EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Left lower quadrant Diverticulitis EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Low part of back and lower quadrants Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) - (ruptured or dissecting) EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Lower midabdomen (retropubic) Cystitis EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Right or left flank, radiating to genitalia Kidney stone EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Costovertebral angle Kidney infection EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Upper abdomen (both quadrants); back "Pancreatitis

" EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Referred pain to the upper abdomen Pneumonia EMS_Ch18 Abdominal Pathologies (Localization of Pain): Anywhere in the abdominal area hernia or peritonitis EMS_Ch18 If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: immediately begin CPR EMS_Mastery2 The diastolic blood pressure represents the {{c1::minimum amount of pressure}} that is always present in the arteries. EMS_Mastery2 Capnography is used to determine how much {{c1::carbon dioxide}} is being exhaled. EMS_Mastery2 {{c1::Beta-blockers}} are medications that cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal. "" EMS_Mastery2 Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that {{c1::alleviate}} the pain. EMS_Mastery2 {{c1::History taking}} is the part of the {{c2::patient assessment}} process focused on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have. EMS_Mastery2 When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: transport and consider requesting ALS EMS_Mastery2 When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: cyanosis EMS_Mastery2 A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover {{c1::2/3}} the length from the {{c2::armpit}} to the crease at the {{c3::elbow}}. EMS_Mastery2 Normal respiratory rates should not exceed {{c2::40}} breaths per minute in toddlers and {{c1::60}} breaths per minute in infants. EMS_Mastery2 A decrease in blood pressure may indicate loss of {{c1::vascular tone.}} "" EMS_Mastery2 During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least {{c1::2}} times. EMS_Mastery2 Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients with difficulty breathing an adequate {{c1::tidal volume}} EMS_Mastery2 An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will be able to speak in {{c1::complete sentences}} without unusual pauses. EMS_Mastery2 When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should avoid {{c1::compressing}} both carotid arteries simultaneously. EMS_Mastery2 In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the {{c1::radial}} artery. EMS_Mastery2 The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the {{c1::systolic}} pressure. EMS_Mastery2 You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should {{c1::reduce the rate or volume}} of the ventilations you are delivering. EMS_Mastery2 The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is {{c1::carbon dioxide}}. EMS_Mastery2 The {{c1::Bourdon-gauge}} flowmeter is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder. EMS_Mastery2 The hypoxic drive is influenced by {{c1::low blood oxygen}} levels. EMS_Mastery2 {{c2::Exhalation}} is a passive process caused by {{c1::increased}} intrathoracic pressure. EMS_Mastery2 While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should {{c2::remove the CPAP device}} and ventilate him with a {{c1::bag-valve mask}}. EMS_Mastery2 While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should:  stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts. EMS_Mastery2 Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include {{c1::lung tissue injury}} and {{c2::gastric distention}}. EMS_Mastery2 As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve. EMS_Mastery2 An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she requires {{c1::CPR}} EMS_Mastery2 Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense slight increases in {{c1::carbon dioxide}} or a decrease in the {{c2::pH}} of the cerebrospinal fluid. EMS_Mastery2 Based on current guidelines, supplemental oxygen be administered when there is exposure to carbon {{c1::monoxide}} and an oxygen saturation of {{c2::95%}}. EMS_Mastery2 A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. EMS_Mastery2 With positive-pressure ventilation, more {{c1::volume}} is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. EMS_Mastery2 Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes suctioning while {{c1::withdrawing}} the catheter from the oropharynx. EMS_Mastery2 Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the: reservoir bag is fully inflated EMS_Mastery2 The diaphragm is innervated by the {{c1::phrenic}} nerve, which allows it to contract. EMS_Mastery2 Cyanosis is a late sign of {{c1::hypoxia}}. EMS_Mastery2 In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, {{c1::ventilation}} may continue despite inadequate {{c2::oxygenation}}. EMS_Mastery2 You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate {{c1::chest rise}}. EMS_Mastery2 A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the {{c1::intranasal}} route. EMS_Mastery2 Epinephrine is secreted naturally by the {{c3::adrenal glands}}, {{c2::dilates}} passages in the lungs, and {{c1::constricts}} the blood vessels. EMS_Mastery2 {{c1::Nitroglycerin}}, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain {{c2::relaxes}} the walls of the coronary arteries. EMS_Mastery2 EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that naloxone administration could cause {{c1::seizures}} in this patient. EMS_Mastery2 A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should recall that geriatric patients often have slower {{c1::absorption}} and {{c2::elimination}} times, which may necessitate {{c3::modification}} of the dosing of certain drugs. EMS_Mastery2 Nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT by the {{c1::sulingual}} route. EMS_Mastery2 Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it prevents the aggregation of {{c1::platelets}}. EMS_Mastery2 A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:  repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. EMS_Mastery2 A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is:  cardiogenic hypoperfusion. EMS_Mastery2 Neurogenic shock occurs when failure of the ... system causes widespread ... "-Nervous system
-Vasodilation 

" EMS_Mastery2 {{c3:: Bacterial infection}} of the nervous system with widespread {{c2::vasodilation}} describes {{c1::septic shock}}. EMS_Mastery2 In terms of anaphylaxis, subsequent or secondary exposure after sensitization often produces: {{c1::a more severe reaction.}} EMS_Mastery2 You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:  determine if she was injured when she fainted. EMS_Mastery2 You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should reassess his condition in ... minutes. 15 EMS_Mastery2 You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: apply direct pressure to the wound. EMS_Mastery2 Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: check her airway for obstructions. EMS_Mastery2 When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ... artery. Brachial EMS_Mastery2 Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? chest thrusts EMS_Mastery2 You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1 EMS_Mastery2 You are off duty at a park when you come across an apparently healthy 12-year-old child who had collapsed. You did not witness the event. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: Perform 5 cycles of CPR and then call 9-1-1 EMS_Mastery2 Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves {{c1::back slaps}}. EMS_Mastery2 You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by compressing the {{c1::sternum}} between the {{c2::nipples}}. EMS_Mastery2 In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve checking the {{c1::radial pulse}} and noting the {{c2::color}}, {{c3::temperature}}, and {{c4::condition}} of the skin. EMS_Mastery2 Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by repeating the {{c1::primary assessment}}. EMS_Mastery2 Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should obtain a obtain a {{c1::manual blood pressure}}. EMS_Mastery2 MRSA is a bacterium that causes {{c1::infections}} and is resistant to most {{c2::antibiotics}}. EMS_Mastery2 The secondary assessment of a medical patient is not practical if the patient is {{c1::critically ill}} or your {{c2::transport time is short}}. EMS_Mastery2 End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with {{c1::respiratory distress.}} EMS_Mastery2 In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis is not a {{c1::communicable}} disease. EMS_Mastery2 Continuing education in EMS serves to {{c1::maintain}}, {{c2::update}}, and {{c3::expand}} the EMT's knowledge and skills. EMS_Mastery1 Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the {{c1::paramedic}}. EMS_Mastery1 The {{c1::continuous quality improvement (CQI)}} process is designed to identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. EMS_Mastery1 The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the {{c1::state office}} of EMS. EMS_Mastery1 According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to A. insert a peripheral {{c1::intravenous}} catheter. EMS_Mastery1 If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should contact the {{c1::state EMS office}} and provide its staff with the {{c2::required documentation}}. EMS_Mastery1 Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS?

A. Obtaining a manual blood pressure
B. Bleeding control using a tourniquet
C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
D. Administration of supplemental oxygen




EMS_Mastery1 Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe, offline or online orders? Offline orders EMS_Mastery1 According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to ... a patient with certain prescribed medications. Assist EMS_Mastery1 The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the {{c1::medical director}} EMS_Mastery1 You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue ... Alarm EMS_Mastery1 A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should:  retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. EMS_Mastery1 According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), recommended immunizations and tests include a tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every {{c1::10}} years. EMS_Mastery1 You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should {{c1::let clergy or hospital staff}} relay the bad news if possible. EMS_Mastery1 The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to:  careless handling of sharps. EMS_Mastery1 Which infectious disease confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? "Syphilis

" EMS_Mastery1 You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: make her comfortable and provide emotional support. EMS_Mastery1 If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should clean the ambulance at ... in a designated area that is well ... - in your station
- ventilated
EMS_Mastery1 You are assessing a woman who was thrown from a horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should {{c1::crouch down}} in a position so that only your {{c2::feet}} are touching the ground. EMS_Mastery1 In relation to the wrist, the elbow is {{c1::proximal}} EMS_Mastery1 Regarding medical terminology, a prefix is added to the beginnings of roots or words to {{c1::modify}} or {{c2::qualify}} their meaning. EMS_Mastery1 The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the {{c1::xiphoid process}}. EMS_Mastery1 The {{c1::femoral}} head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the {{c2::acetabulum}}. "" EMS_Mastery1 {{c1::Hydrostatic}} pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures.
"" EMS_Mastery1 Both areas of the {{c1::pons}} are used to augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. "" EMS_Mastery1 The {{c1::orbit}} is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. EMS_Mastery1 {{c1::Baroreceptors}} located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the {{c2::blood pressure}}. EMS_Mastery1 {{c1::Plasma}} transports the {{c2::blood cells}} and {{c3::nutrients}}. EMS_Mastery1 Stimulation of {{c1::alpha-adrenergic}} receptors results in {{c2::constriction}} of the blood vessels. EMS_Mastery1 Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because {{c1::waste products}} are not removed and nutrients are not {{c2::delivered to the cells.}} EMS_Mastery1 The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the {{c1::hypoxic drive}} EMS_Mastery1 The primary organ responsible for absorption of the products of digestion is the {{c1::small intestine}} EMS_Mastery1 {{c2::Negative}}-pressure breathing involves a {{c1::drop}} in pressure within the chest cavity. EMS_Mastery1 The {{c1::diaphragm}} is unique because it is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. EMS_Mastery1 Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? Sensory Nerves EMS_Mastery1 "The largest portion of the brain is the .... which is commonly referred to as the ""gray matter.""" Cerebrum EMS_Mastery1 The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of {{c1::9 and 18}} months. EMS_Mastery1 The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to {{c1::atherosclerosis}}. EMS_Mastery1 Age-related changes in the .... system result in a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. Renal EMS_Mastery1 At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? 10 to 18 months EMS_Mastery1 In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air increases, which hampers ... because of the ... that remains in the alveoli. -diffusion of gases 
-stagnant air
EMS_Mastery1 An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should apply a {{c1::cervical collar}} and immobilize him with a vest-style device. EMS_Mastery1 In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by pushing the .... of the stretcher while your partner guides the ..... 1. Head
2. Foot
EMS_Mastery1 You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. What should be your MOST appropriate action? Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag. EMS_Mastery1 Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. EMS_Mastery1 When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a {{c1::long}} backboard. EMS_Mastery1 A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should assess:  whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. EMS_Mastery1 When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: {{c1::negligence}} EMS_Mastery1 Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury is considered {{c1::negligence}} EMS_Mastery1 {{c1::Attempted suicide}} requires you to notify the appropriate authorities. Knife wounds, drug overdoses, and cardiac arrests do not. EMS_Mastery1 While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should:  contact medical control and notify them of the error. EMS_Mastery1 You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should:

A. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything.
B. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient.
C. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence.
D. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment.
B. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. EMS_Mastery1 {{c1::Diabetic Ketoacidosis}} is a form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available.
EMS_Ch19 ... are glands that secrete or release chemicals that are used inside the body.
Endocrine glands EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hematology}} is the study and prevention of blood-related disorders.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hemophilia}} is a congenital abnormality in which the body is unable to produce clots, which results in uncontrollable bleeding.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hyperglycemia}} is an abnormally high blood glucose level.
EMS_Ch19 Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is a life-threatening condition resulting from high blood glucose that typically occurs in older adults, and which causes {{c1::altered mental status}}, {{c2::dehydration}}, and {{c3::organ damage}}. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Insulin}} is a hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans (endocrine gland located throughout the pancreas) that enables glucose in the blood to enter cells; used in synthetic form to treat and control diabetes mellitus. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Kussmaul respirations}} are deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Polydipsia}} is an excessive thirst that persists for long periods, despite reasonable fluid intake; often the result of excessive urination. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Diabetes mellitus}} is a metabolic disorder in which the ability to metabolize carbohydrates (sugars) is impaired, usually because of a lack of insulin.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Polyphagia}} is an excessive eating; in diabetes, the inability to use glucose properly can cause a sense of hunger.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Polyuria}} is when the passage of an unusually large volume of urine in a given period; in diabetes, this can result from the wasting of glucose in the urine.    EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Sickle cell disease }} is a hereditary disease that causes normal, round red blood cells to become oblong, or sickle shaped.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Symptomatic hyperglycemia}} is a state of unconsciousness resulting from several problems, including ketoacidosis, dehydration because of excessive urination, and hyperglycemia.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Symptomatic hypoglycemia}} is severe hypoglycemia resulting in changes in mental status.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Thrombophilia}} is a tendency toward the development of blood clots as a result of an abnormality of the system of coagulation.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Type 1 diabetes}} is an autoimmune disorder in which the individual’s immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells, and therefore the pancreas cannot produce insulin; onset in early childhood is common.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Type 2 diabetes}} is a condition in which insulin resistance develops in response to increased blood glucose levels; can be managed by exercise and diet modification, but is often managed by medications.
EMS_Ch19 A {{c1::vasoocclusive crisis}} is ischemia and pain caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion of the body. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Acidosis}} is a pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the body.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Diabetes mellitus}} is metabolic disorder in which the ability to metabolize carbohydrates (sugars) is impaired, usually because of lack of insulin.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)}} us a form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Endocrine glands}} are glands that secrete or release chemicals that are used in the body.
EMS_Ch19 The {{c1::endocrine system}} regulates metabolism and maintains homeostasis. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Glucose}} is one of the basic sugars; it is the primary fuel, in conjunction with oxygen, for cellular metabolism.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hematology }}is the study and prevention of blood related disorders.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hemophilia}} is a congenital abnormality in which the body is unable to produce clots, which results in uncontrollable bleeding.
EMS_Ch19 A {{c1::hormone}} is a chemical substance produced by a gland that regulates the activity of organs and tissues. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hyperglycemia}}  is an abnormally high blood glucose level.
EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Hypoglycemia}} is an abnormally low blood glucose level. EMS_Ch19 {{c1::Thrombosis}} is a blood clot, either in the arterial or venous system.
EMS_Ch19 An {{c1::allergic reaction}} is the body’s exaggerated immune response to an internal or surface agent. EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Envenomation}} is the act of injecting venom.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Histamines}} are chemical substances released by the immune system in allergic reactions that are responsible for many of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as vasodilation.
EMS_Ch20 The {{c1::immune system}} is the body system that includes all of the structures and processes designed to mount a defense against foreign substances and disease-causing agents.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Immunology}} is the study of the body's immune system.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Leukotrienes}} are chemical substances that contribute to anaphylaxis; released by the immune system in allergic reactions.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Urticaria}} are small areas of generalized itching and/or burning that appear as multiple raised areas on the skin; hives.
EMS_Ch20 A {{c1::wheal}} is a raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin resulting from an insect bite or allergic reaction. EMS_Ch20 An {{c1::allergen}} is a substance that causes an allergic reaction. EMS_Ch20 An {{c1::allergic reaction}} is the body's exaggerated immune response to an internal or surface agent. EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Anaphylaxis}} is an extreme, life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Angioedema}} are localized areas of swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips, but it can also involve other body areas as well.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Epinephrine}} is a substance produced by the body (commonly called adrenaline), and a drug produced by pharmaceutical companies that increases pulse rate and blood pressure; the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction.
EMS_Ch20 The immune {{c1::response }} is the body's response to a substance perceived by the body as foreign. EMS_Ch20 The {{c1::immune system}} is the body systen that includes all of the structures and processes designed to mount a defense against foreign substances and disease-causing agents. EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Stridor}} is a harsh, high pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during {{c2::inspiration}}, that is caused by a partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope.
EMS_Ch20 A {{c1::toxin}}  is a poison or harmful substance.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Wheezing}} is a high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on {{c2::expiration}}, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma and bronchiolitis.
EMS_Ch20 {{c1::Addiction}} is a state of overwhelming obsession or physical need to continue the use of a substance.
EMS_Ch21 An {{c1::antidote}} is a substance that is used to neutralize or counteract a poison. EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::hallucinogen}} is an agent that produces false perceptions in any one of the five senses. EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Ingestion}} is also called swallowing; taking a substance by mouth.
EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::narcotic}} is a drug that produces sleep or altered mental consciousness. EMS_Ch21 An {{c1::opiate}} is a subset of the opioid family, referring to natural, non-synthetic opioids. EMS_Ch21 An {{c1::opioid}} is a synthetically produced narcotic medication, drug, or agent similar to the opiate morphine, but not derived from opium; used to relieve pain. EMS_Ch21 An {{c1::overdose}} is an excessive quantity of a drug that, when taken or administered, can have toxic or lethal consequences. EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Poison}} is a substance whose chemical action could damage structures or impair function when introduced into the body.
EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::sedative}} is a substance that decreases activity and excitement. EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::stimulant}} is an agent that produces an excited state. EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Substance abuse}} is the misuse of any substance to produce a desired effect.
EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Tolerance}} is the need for increasing amounts of a drug to obtain the same effect.
EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Toxicology}} is the study of toxic or poisonous substances.
EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Activities of daily living}} are the basic activities a person usually accomplishes during a normal day, such as eating, dressing, and bathing.
EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Altered mental status}} is a change in the way a person thinks and behaves that may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body.
EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Behavior}} is how a person funcions or acts in response to his or her environment.
EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::behavioral crisis}} is the point at which a person's reactions to events interfere with activities of daily living; this becomes a psychiatric emergency when it causes a major life interruption, such as attempted suicide. EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Depression}} is a persistent mood of saddness, despair, and discouragement; may be a symptom of many different mental and phsical disorders, or it may be a disorder on its own.
EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Excited delirium}} is a serious behavioral condition in which a person exhibits agitated behavioral combined with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions; also called agitated delirium or exhaustive mania.
EMS_Ch22 A {{c1::functional disorder}} is a disorder in which there is no known physiologic reason for the abnormal functioning of an organ or organ system. EMS_Ch22 {{c1::Organic brain syndrome}} is a temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain, causes by a disturbance in the physical or physiologic functioning of brain tissue.
EMS_Ch22 {{c1::Positional asphyxia}} is restriction of chest wall movements and/or airway obstruction; can rapidly lead to sudden death.
EMS_Ch22 {{c1::PTSD}} is a delayed stress reaction that develops after a horrifying ordeal that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
EMS_Ch22 {{c1::Psychiatric disorders}} are illnesses with psychological or behavioral symptoms and/or impairment in functioning caused by a social, psychological, genetic, physical, chemical, or biological distrubance.
EMS_Ch22 A {{c1::psychiatric emergency}} is one which adbnormal behavior threatens a person's own health and safety or the health and safety of another person, for example when a person becomes suicidal, homocidal, or has a psychotic episode.
EMS_Ch22 {{c1::Schizophrenia}} is a complex, difficult-to-identify mental disorder whose onset typically occurs during early adulthood. Symptoms typically become mroe prominent over time and include delusions, hallucinations, a lack of interest in pleasure or erratic speech.
EMS_Ch22 An {{c1::addiction}} is a state of overwhelming obsession or physical need to continue the use of a substance. EMS_Ch21 An {{c1::antidote}} is a substance that is used to neutralize or counteract a poison. EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Delirium tremens (DTs)}} is a severe withdrawl syndrome seen in alcoholics who are deprived of ethyl alcohol; characterized by restlessness, fever, sweating, disorientation, agitation, and seizures; can be fatal if untreated. EMS_Ch21 Another word for emesis is {{c1::vomiting.}} EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Hematesis}} is another word for vomiting blood.
EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::material safety data sheet (MSDS)}} is a form provided by manufacturers and compounders (blenders_ of chemicals, containing information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response, and waste disposal of a specific material; also known as a safety data sheet (SDS). EMS_Ch21 A {{c1::narcotic}} is a drug that produces sleep or altered mental status. EMS_Ch21 {{c1::Depression}} is the persistent mood of sadness, despair, and discouragement; may be a symptom of many different mental and physical disorders, or it may be a disorder on its own.
EMS_Ch22 A {{c1::functional disorder}} is a disorder which there is no known physiologic reason for the abnormal functioning of an organ or organ system. EMS_Ch22 {{c1::Psychosis}} is a mental disorder characterized by the loss of contact with reality.
EMS_Ch22 "{{c1::Bacterial vaginosis}} is an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina; charcterized by itching, burning, or pain and possibly a ""fishy"" smelling discharge.
" EMS_Ch22 The {{c1::cervix}} is the lower third, or neck, of the uterus; it is the narrowest portion of the uterus and opens into the vagina. EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Chalmydia}} is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.
EMS_Ch23 The {{c1::fallopian tubes}} are the tubes that connect each ovary with the uterus and are the primary location for fertilization of the ovum. EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Gonorrhea}} is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. EMS_Ch23 The {{c1::labia majora}} are the outer fleshy lips covered with pubic hair that protect the vagina. EMS_Ch23 The {{c1::labia minora}} are the inner fleshy lips devoid of pubic hair that protect the vagina. EMS_Ch23 The {{c1::ovaries}} are the primary female reproductive organs that produce an ovum, or egg, that, if fertilized, will develop into a fetus. EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Pelvic imflammatory disease}} is an infection of the fallopian tubes and the surrounding tissues of the pelvis.
EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Sexual assault}} is an attack against a person that is sexual in nature, the most common of which is rape.
EMS_Ch23 The {{c1::uterus}} is the muscular organ where the fetus grows, also called the womb; responsible for contractions during labor.    EMS_Ch23 The {{c1::vagina}} is the outermost cavity of a woman’s reproductive tract; the lower part of the birth canal. EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Ovulation}} is the process in which an ovum is released from a follicle.
EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Perineum}} is the area of skin between the vagina and the anus.
EMS_Ch23 {{c1::Rape}} is sexual intercourse forbility inflicted on another person, against that person's will.
EMS_Ch23 Nitroglycerin ...  blood vessels and ... blood pressure. -dilates
-lowers
What type of treatment does someone with cardiac related pain get? Asprin (Contraindication: allergies, dialysis patients) EMS_Randos What type of treatment does someone with opiate drug induced symptoms get? Naloxone [Narcan]  EMS_Randos What type of treatment does someone with a severe anaphylactic reaction get? Epi-pen EMS_Randos {{c1::Arterial air embolism}} are air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels. EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Blunt trauma}} is an impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetratingg soft tissues or internal organs and cavities.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Cavitation}} is a phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullet's path.
EMS_Ch24 A {{c1::coup-contrecoup}} brain injury is a brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission through brain tissue causes injury on the opposite side of the original impact.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Deceleration}} is the slowing of an object.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Drag}} is the resistance that slows a projectile, such as air.
EMS_Ch24 A {{c1::Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score}} is an evaluation tool used to determine level of conciousness, which evaluates and assigns point values (scores) for eye opening, verbal response, and motor respose, which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes. EMS_Ch24 An {{c1::index of suspicion}} is awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries may exist when determining the mechanism of injury. EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Kinetic energy}} is the energy of a moving object.
EMS_Ch24 The {{c1::mechanism of injury (MOI)}} are the forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury. EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Medical emergencies}} are emergencies that require EMS attention because of illnesses or condition not caused by an outside force.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Multi-system trauma}} is trauma that affects more than one body system.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Penetrating trauma}} is injury caused by objects, such as knives and bullets, that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues and organs.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Potential energy}} is the product of mass, gravity, and height, which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury, such as from a fall.
EMS_Ch24 A {{c1::projectile}} is any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon. EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Revised Trauma Score (RTS)}} is a scoring system used for patient with head trauma.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Trajectory}} is the path a projectile takes once it is propelled.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Trauma emergencies}} are emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to a patient's body.
EMS_Ch24 A {{c1::trauma score}} is a score calculated from 1 to 16, with 16 being the best possible score. It related to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of a severe head injury. It takes into account the GCS score, respiratory rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill. EMS_Ch24 The {{c1::tympanic membrane}} is the eardrum, a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits soun vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Work}} is the measure of force over distance.
EMS_Ch24 {{c1::Pulmonary blast injuries}} are pulmonary traumas that result from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives.
EMS_Ch24 The {{c1::aorta}} is the main artery that recieves blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body. EMS_Ch25 The {{c1::arterioles}} are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries. EMS_Ch25 An {{c1::artery}} is a blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle, that carries blood away from the heart. EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Capillaries}} are the small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; various substances pass through capillary walls into and out of the interstitial fluid and then on to the cells.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Coagulation}} is the formation of clots to plug openings in injured blood vessels and stop blood flow.
EMS_Ch25 A {{c1::contusion}} is a bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. "" EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Ecchymosis}} is a building up  of blood beneath the skin that produces a characteristic blue or black discoloration as the result of an injury.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Epistaxis}} is another word for nosebleed.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hematemesis}} is vomited blood.
EMS_Ch25 A {{c1::hematoma}} is a mass of blood that has collected withindamaged tissue beneath the skin or in a body cavity. EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hematuria}} is blood in the urine.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hemophilia}} is a hereditary condition in which the patient lacks ones or more of the blood's normal clotting factors.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hemoptysis}} is coughing up of blood.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hemorrhage}} is another word for bleeding.
EMS_Ch25 A {{c1::hemostatic agent}} is a chemical compoud that slows or stops bleeding by assisting with clot formation. EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hypoperfusion}} is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called shock.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Hypovolemic shock}} is a condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Melena}} is black, foul-smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood.
EMS_Ch25 An {{c1:: open-book pelvic fracture}} is a life-threatening fracture of the pelvis caused by a force that displaces one or both sides of the pelvis laterally and posteriorly. "" EMS_Ch25 A {{c1::pelvic binder}} is a device to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain. "" EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Perfusion}} is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the current needs of the cells.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Shock}} is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called hypoperfusion.
EMS_Ch25 A {{c1::tourniquet}} is the bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation.  EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Vasoconstriction}} is the narrowing of a blood vessel, such as  with hypoperfusion or cold extremities.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Veins}} are the blood vessels that carry blood from the tissues to the heart.
EMS_Ch25 {{c1::Venules}} are very small, thin-walled blood vessels.
"" EMS_Ch25 The main artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body is the {{c1::aorta}}. EMS_Ch25 An {{c1::abraision}} is loss or damage of the superficial layor of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Amputation}} is an injury in which part of the body is completely severed.
EMS_Ch26 An {{c1::avulsion}} is an injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Burns}} are injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result of thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Closed injuries}} are injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface of the skin remains intact.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Compartment syndrome}} is swellingin a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::contact burn}} is a burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Contamination}} is the presence of infective organisms or foreign bodies such as dirt, gravel, or metal.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::contusion}} is a bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Crush syndrome}} is a significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::crushing injury}} is an injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. EMS_Ch26 The {{c1::dermis}} is the inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Ecchymosis}} is the discoloration associated with a closed wound; signifies bleeding.
"" EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Evisceration}} is the displacement of organs outside the body.
EMS_Ch26 The {{c1::epidermis}} is the outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Excited delirium}} is a serious behavioral condition in which a perosn exhibits agitated behavior combined with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions; also called agitated delirium or exhaustice mania.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Fascia}} is the fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendonds, and ligaments.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::flame burn}} is a burn caused by an open flame. EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::flash burn}} is a burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as an explosuon. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Full-thickness burns}} (Third-degree burns) are burns that affect all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathy, and white, dark, brown, or charred.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::hematoma}} is blood collected within the body's tissues or in a body cavity. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Impaled objects}} are objects that penetrate the skin but remain in place.
EMS_Ch26 An {{c1::incision}} is a sharp, smooth cut in the skin. EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::laceration}} is a deep, jagged cut in the skin. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Mucous membranes}} are the linings of body cavities and passages that are in direct contact with the outside environment.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Occlusive dressings}} are dressings made of petroleum (Vaseline) gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that prevent air and liquids from entering or exiting a wound.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Open injuries}} are injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Patrial-thickness}} (Second-degree burns) are bruns that affect the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue, characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and molted.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::penetrating wound}} is an injury resulting from a sharp, piercing object. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Rapid}} means infected with rabies.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Rule of nines}} is a system that assigned percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surgace involved in the burn area.
EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::scald burn}} is burn caused by hot liquids. EMS_Ch26 A {{c1::stream burn}} is a burn caused by exposure to hot steam. EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Superficial}} (first-degree) burns are burns taht affect only the epidermis, characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through.
EMS_Ch26 {{c1::Thermal burns}} are burned caused by heat.
EMS_Ch26 An {{c1::air embolism}} is the presence of air in the veins which can lead to cardiac arrest if it enters the heart. EMS_Ch27 {{c1::Anisocoria}} is naturally occuring uneven pupil size.
"
Anice Bruce
" EMS_Ch27 A {{c1::blow-out fracture}} is a fracture of the orbit or of the bones that support the floor of the orbit. EMS_Ch27 {{c1::Conjunctiva}} is the delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surgace of the eye.
EMS_Ch27 {{c1::Conjunctivitis}} is inflammation of the conjunctiva.
EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::cornea}} is the transparent tissue layer in front of the pupil and iris of the eye. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::eustachian tube}} is a branch of the internal auditory canal that connects the middle ear to the oropharynx. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::external auditory canal}} is the ear canal; leads to the tympanic membrane. "" EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::globe}} of the eye is the eyeball. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::iris}} is the muscle and surrounding tissue behind the cornea that dilate and construct the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye; pigment in this tissue gives the eye its color. "" EMS_Ch27 {{c1::Lacrimal glands}} are glands that produce fluids to keep the eye moist; also called tear glands.
EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::lens}} is the transparent part of the eye through which images are focused on the retina. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::mastoid process}} is the prominent body mass at the base of the skull about 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::optic nerve}} is a cranial nerve that trasmits visual information to the brain. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::pinna}} is the external, visible part of the ear. "" EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::pupil}} is the circular opening in the middle of the iris that admits light to the back of the eye. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::retina}} is the light-sensitive area of the eye when images are projected; a layer of cells at the back of the eyethat changes the light image into electric impulses, which are carried by the optic nerve to the brain. EMS_Ch27 {{c1::Retinal detachment}} is the separation of the retina from its attachments at the back of the eye.
EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::sclera}} is the tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structure. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::sternocleidomastoid muscles}} are the muscles on either side of the neck that allow movement of the head. EMS_Ch27 A {{c1::subcutaneous emphysema}} is a characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::temporomandibular joint}} is the joint formed when the mandible and cranium meet, just in front of the ear. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::tragus}} small, rounded, fleshy bulge that lies immediately anterior to the ear canal. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::turbinates}} are layers of bone within the nasal cavity. EMS_Ch27 The {{c1::tympanic membrane}} is the eardrum, which lies between the external and middle ear. "
" EMS_Ch27 {{c1::Anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia}} is the inability to remember events after an injury.
EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Axial loading injuries}} are injuries in which load is applied along the verticle or longitudinal axis of the spine, which results in load being transmitted along the entire length of the vertebral column; for example, falling from a height and landing on the feet in an upright position.
"" EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Basilar skull fractures}} usually occur following diffuse impact to the hear (such as falls, MVAs); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph.
EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::battle sign}} is bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture. EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Cerebral edema}} is swelling of the brain.
EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::closed head injury}}  is an injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding. EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::concussion}} is a temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain. EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Coup-contrecoup injury}} is dual impacting of the brain in to the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds.
"" EMS_Ch28 An {{c1::epidural hematoma}} is an accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater. EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Eyes forward position}} is a head position in which the patient's eyes are looking striaght ahead and the head and torso are in line.
EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::four-person log roll}} is the recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the groun to a long backboard  or other spinal immobilization device. EMS_Ch28 The {{c1::intrevertebral disk}} is the cushion that lies between two vertebrae. EMS_Ch28 An {{c1::intracerebral hematoma}} is bleeding within the brain tissue itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Intracranial pressure (ICP)}} is the pressure within the cranial vault.
EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Involuntary activities}} are actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control.
EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Linear skull fractures}} account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull.
EMS_Ch28 The {{c1::meninges}} are three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal. EMS_Ch28 An {{c1::open head injury}} is an injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue. EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::primary (direct) injury}} is an injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head. "" EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Raccoon eyes}} are bruising under the eyes that may indicate skull fracture.
EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Retrograde amnesia}} is the inability to remember events leading up to a head injury.
EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Secondary (indirect) injury}} are the after effects of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as serebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoziua, and infection; onset is often delayed following the primary brain injury.
EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::subarachnoid hemorrhage}} is bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates. EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::subdural hematoma}} is an accumulation of blood beneath the dura matter but outside the brain. EMS_Ch28 A {{c1::traumatic brain injury (TBI)}} is a traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes. EMS_Ch28 {{c1::Voluntary activities}} are actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input or conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity.
EMS_Ch28 If the patient is life-like start with {{c1::ABC}} EMS_Lab If the patient is life-less start with {{c1::CAB}} EMS_Lab FAST-G & {{c1::SQUEEZE}} "F = {{c3::Facial Droop}}
A = {{c4::Arm Drift }}
S = {{c5::Slurred Speech}}
T = Time is Critical
G =  R/O Glucose
Squeeze = {{c2::""Squeeze my hand"" Test for strength.}}
" EMS_Lab (SAMPLE): Medications = PORCH
P = {{c1::Prescriptions}}
O = {{c2::Over the counter}}
R = {{c3::Recreactional}}
C = {{c4::Compliant?}}
H = {{c5::Herbal/ Vitamins?}}
EMS_Lab SAMPLE: Pertinent History = FAST 4

1. {{c1::Has this happened before?}}
2. {{c2::Did you seek treatment?}}
3. {{c3::What was the diagnosis?}}
4. {{c4::What treatment was given? Were you compliant?}}
EMS_Lab PERRL P = Pupils
E = Equal
R = Round
R = Reactive
L = Light
EMS_Lab FAST 5
1. {{c1::PERRL?}}
2. {{c2::JVD?}}
3. {{c3::Chest Palpitations}}
4. {{c4::Abdomen Palpitations}} & {{c5::Incontinence}}
5. {{c6::PMS}} in r{{c7::adial & tibial}} pulse & {{c8::pedal edema}}
EMS_Lab "PMS
P = {{c1::Pulse in radial & tibial pulse}}
M = {{c2::Motor}} (eg. ""{{c3::Can you wiggle your fingers and toes for me?}}"")
S = {{c4::Sensory}} (eg. ""{{c5::Sir can you tell me what finger/toe I'm touching}}"")
" EMS_Lab "[Medical] Patient Assessment Order:
1. {{c1::Scene Safe/ BSI / PPE}}
2. {{c2::NOI}}
3. {{c3::# of Patients}}
4. {{c4::Request Additional Resources}}
5. {{c5::Consider C-Spine}}
6. {{c6::What is my general impression?}}
7. {{c7::AVPU}}
8. {{c8::""What seems to be the problem?""}}
9. {{c9::Chief complaint is...}}
10. {{c10::ABCs}}
10a. A: {{c11::Airway patent?}}
10b. B: {{c12::Check RRQ Lung Sounds}}
10c. C: {{c13::Check RRQ Pulse, Check Skin, Check Capillary Refill}}
11. {{c14::Take Vitals}}
12. {{c15::FAST G (if applicable)}}
13. {{c16::OPQRST}}
14. {{c17::SAMPLE (FAST 4 & PORCH)}}
15. {{c18::Fix Problem/ Call Medical Control / Administer Meds}}
16. {{c19::""Stay & Play"" or ""Load and Go""}}
17. {{c20::Secondary Assessment (FAST 5)}}
18. {{c21::Secondary Vitals}}
19. {{c22::Give Report & Diagnosis}}
" EMS_Lab What drugs do EMTs carry & DO NOT require med control permission? -Oxygen
-Asprin
-Glucose
EMS_Lab {{c1::Aspirin}} is used for{{c2::MI and angina}}
EMS_Lab What are the contraindications for aspirin? -Allery
-GI bleed
-Asthma
EMS_Lab What is the dose for aspirin? 160-325mg  EMS_Lab {{c1::Glucose}} is used for {{c2::hypoglycemia}}.
EMS_Lab A normal blood sugar level is {{c1::80-120}} EMS_Lab What are the contraindications for glucose? -Decreased LOC
-Unconcious
-Nausea/Vomiting
What is the dosage and route of administration for glucose? -10-20g orally
- can repeat in 15 minutes
What drugs can EMTs assist/administer (after calling medical control)? -albuterol
-epinephrine (EPI)
-nitro
** THESE HAVE TO BE PRESCRIBED TO THE INDIVIDUAL**
... is used for opiate overdose. Narcan EMS_Lab What is the dosage and route of administration for narcan? -4mg intranasally (2mg in each nostril)
-can repeat in 5 min
-max 2 doses
EMS_Lab {{c1::Nitro}} is used for{{c2::MI and angina}} EMS_Lab What are the contraindications for nitro? -not prescribed
-hypotension (<100 systolic)
-erectile dysfunction drugs within 24 hours
EMS_Lab What is the dosage and route of administration for nitro? - .4mg orally
- can repeat every 5 minutes
- maximum 3 doses
EMS_Lab {{c1::Albuterol}} is used for{{c2::wheezing and asthma}} EMS_Lab What are the contraindications for epinephrine?
-not prescribed
-hypertension EMS_Lab What is the dosage and route of administration for epinephrine for an adult?
- .3mg instramuscular
- can repeat in 15 minutes
- max 3 doses
EMS_Lab What is the dosage and route of administration for epinephrine for a child? - .15mg instramuscular
- can repeat in 15 minutes
- max 3 doses
{{c1::Epinephrine}} is used for{{c2::anaphylaxis}} EMS_Lab What are the contraindications for albuterol? - not prescribed
- allergy to peanuts
What is the dosage and route of administration for albuterol? 2 puffs by meter dose inhaler EMS_Lab "What are the ""(6) Rights"" in terms of medication administration?" Right PATIENT
Right MEDICATION
Right DOSE
Right TIME
Right ROUTE
Right DOCUMENTATION
EMS_Lab Hypoventilation, pinpoint pupils, sedation, and hypotension are indicative of {{c1::opiate overdose}} EMS_Lab {{c1::Pulmoary edema}} is swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of {{c2::congestive heart failure}}. EMS_Lab {{c1::Congestive heart failure (CHF)}} signs and symptoms include dependent edema, crackles, barrel chested, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and produce pink frothy sputum EMS_Lab Crackles indicate {{c1::fluid or mucus in the lungs}} and happen on {{c2::inspiration}} "

" EMS_Lab {{c1::Wheezing}} is a high pitched, whistling breath sound characteristically heard on {{c2::expiration}} in patients with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. EMS_Lab {{c1::Anaphylaxis}} signs and symptoms include flushed skin or hives, generalized edema, {{c2::hypotension}}, and wheezing or stridor. EMS_Lab {{c1::Emphysema}} signs and symptoms include barrel chest, breathing through {{c2::pursed lips}}, dyspnea on {{c3::exertion}}, cyanosis and wheezing or decreased breath sounds.  EMS_Lab {{c1::Nitroglycerin}} relieves the squeezing or crushing pain associated with angina by {{c2::dilating}} the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart muscle. EMS_Lab Angina occurs {{c1::on exertion}} and is relieved with {{c2::rest}}
EMS_Lab Myocardial infarctions can occur {{c1::during exertion or at rest}} and {{c2::is not relieved}} with rest. EMS_Lab To treat {{c2::COPD}} or emphysema or pulse oximetry readings less than {{c3::90%}} use {{c1::CPAP}} to move fluid out of the lungs. EMS_Lab What are the contraindications for CPAP? -hypotension
-pneumothorax
-chest trauma
-GI bleed
-vomiting
-unable to follow commands
-unresponsive
EMS_Lab Absent lung sounds and difficulty breathing may be indicative of a {{c1::pneumothorax}}. EMS_Lab A {{c1::cardiac (pericardial) tamponade}} is the compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cadiac output. "" EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::closed chest injury}} is an injury to the chest in which the skin is not broken, usually caused by blunt trauma. EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Commotio cordis}} is a blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest that occurs not only during the critical portion of a person's heartbeat.
EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Crepitus}} is a grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together.
EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Flail chest}} is a condition in which three or more ribs are fractured in two or more places or in association with a fracture of the sternum so that a segment of the chest wall is effectively detached from the rest of the thoracic cage.
EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::flutter valve}} is a one-way valve that allows air to leave the chest cavity but not return; formed by taping three sides of an occlusive dressing to the chest wall, leaving the fourth side open as a valve; may also be part of a commercial vented occlusive dressing. "


" EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::hemopneumothorax}} is the accumulation of blood in the pleural space of the chest. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::hemothorax}} is a collection of blood in the pleural cavity. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::myocardial contusion}} is the bruising of the heart muscle. EMS_Ch29 An {{c1::occlusive dressing}} is an airtight dressing that protects a wound from air and bacteria; a commercial vented version allows air to passively escape from the chest, while an unvented dressing may be made of petroleum jelly-based (Vaseline) gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic. EMS_Ch29 An {{c1::open chest injury}} is an injury to the chest in which the chest wall itself is penetrated by a fractured rib or, more frequently, by an external object such as a bullet or knife. EMS_Ch29 An {{c1::open pneumothorax}} is an open or penetrating chest wall would through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound; also referred to as a sucking chest wound. EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Paradoxical motion}} is the motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion- in during inhalation, out during exhalation- is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing.
"" EMS_Ch29 The {{c1::pericardium}} is the fibrous sac that surrounds the heart. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::pneumothorax}} is an accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::pulmonary contusion}} is any injury or bruising of lung tissue that results in hemorrhage. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::simple pneumothorax}} is any pneumothorax that is free from significant physiologic changes and does not cause drastic changes in the vital signs of the patient. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::spontaneous pneumothorax}} is a pneumothorax that occurs when a weak area on the lung ruptures in the absence of major injury, allowing air to leak into the pleural space. EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::sucking chest wound}} is an open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound. EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Tachypnea}} are rapid respirations.
EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::tension pneumothorax}} is an accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity that progessively increases pressure in the chest cavity that interferes with cardiac function with potentially fatal results. EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Traumatic aphyxia}} is a pattern of injuries seen after a severe force is applied to the chest, forcing blood from the great vessels back into the head and neck.
"" EMS_Ch29 A {{c1::closed abdominal injury}} is an injury in which there is soft-tissue damage inside the body but the skin remains intact. EMS_Ch29 An {{c1::evisceration}} is the displacement of organs outside of the body. "" EMS_Ch29 The {{c1::flank}} is the region below the rib cage and above the hip. EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Guarding}} is contracting the stomach muscles to minimize the pain of abdominal movement; a sign of peritonitis.
EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Hematuria}} is blood in the urine.
EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Hollow organs}} are structures through which materials pass, such as the stomach, small intestines, large intestines, ureters, and urinary bladder.
EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Melena}} are black tarry stools.
EMS_Ch29 An {{c1::open abdominal injury}} is an injury in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination. EMS_Ch29 The {{c1::peritoneal cavity}} is the abdominal cavity. EMS_Ch29 The {{c1::peritoneum}} is the membrane lining the abdominal cavity (parietal peritoneum) and covering the abdominal organs (visceral peritoneum). EMS_Ch29 {{c1::Solid organs}} are solid masses of tissue where much of the chemical work of the body takes place (eg, the liver, spleen, pancreas, and kidneys).
EMS_Ch29 An {{c1::acromioclavicular (AC) joint}} is simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder. EMS_Ch31 An {{c1::amputation}} is an injury in which part of the body is completely severed. EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::articular cartilage}} is a pearly white layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints. "" EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::calcaneus}} is the heel bone. "" EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::closed fracture}} is any break in a bone in which the overlying skin is not broken. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Compartment syndrome}} is an elevation of pressure within a closed fascial compartment, characterized by extreme pain, decreased pain sensation, pain on stretching of affected muscles, and decreased power; frequently seen in fractures below the elbow or knee in children.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Crepitus}} is a greating or grinding sensation or sound caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Dislocation}} is the dislocation of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer in contact.
EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::displaced fracture}} is a fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another, producing deformity in the limb. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Ecchymosis}} is bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding withing or under the skin.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::False motion}} is movement that occurs in a bone at a point where there is no joint, indicating a fracture; also called free movement.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Fascia}} are the fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments.
"" EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::fibula}} is the outer and smaller leg bone of the two bones of the lower leg. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::fracture}} is a break in the continuity of a bone. EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::glenoid fossa}} is the part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glenohumeral joint. "

" EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Hematuria}} is blood in the urine.
EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::joint}} is where two bones come into contact. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::ligament}} is a band of fibrous tissue that connect bones to bones. It supports and strengthens a joint. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::nondisplaced fracture}} is a simple crack in the bone that has not caused the bone to move from its normal anatomic position; also called a hairline fracture. "" EMS_Ch31 An {{c1::open fracture}} is any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been broken. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::pelvic binder}} is a device to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption and pain. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Point tenderness}} is tenderness that is sharply localized at teh sit of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Position of function}} is a hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed.
"" EMS_Ch31 To {{c1::reduce}} is to returned a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position; to set. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Retroperitoneal space}} is the space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the GI tract.
EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::sciatic nerve}} is the major nerve to the lower extermities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot.
EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::sling}} is a bandage or material that help to support the weight of an injured upper extremity. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::splint}}  is a flexible or rigid device used to preotect and maintain the position of an injured extremity. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::sprain}} is joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::strain}} is the stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called muscle pull. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::swathe}} is abandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest. EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::tibia}} is the larger of the two lower leg bones responsible for supporting the major weight bearing surface of the knee and the ankle; the shinbone. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::tourniquet}} is the bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the us of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Traction}} is the longitudinal force appled to a structure.
EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::zone of injury}} is the area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or joint. EMS_Ch31 An {{c1::air embolism}} is air bubbled in the blood vessels. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Ambulent temperatures}} is the temperature of the surrounding environments.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Antivenin}} is a serum that counteracts the effect of venom from an animal or insect.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Bends}} is a common name for decomopression sickness.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Breathe-holding syncope}} is a loss of conciousness caused by a decreased breathing stimulus.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Conduction}} is the loss of heat by direct contact (eg, when a body part come into contact with a colder object.)
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Convection}} is the loss of body heat caused by air movement (eg, breeze blowing across the body.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Core temperature}} is the temperature of the central part of the body (eg, the heart, lung, and vital organs.)
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Decompression sickness}} is a painful condition seen in divers who ascend too quickly in which gas especially nitrogen, forms bubbles iin blood vessels and other tissues.
EMS_Ch31 The {{c1::diving reflex}} is the slowing of the heart rate caused by submersion in cold water. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Drowning}} is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Dysbarism injuries}} are any signs and symptoms caused by the difference between the surrounding atmospheric pressure and the total gas pressure in various tissues, fluids, and cavities of the body.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Evaporation}} is the conversion of water or another fluid from a liquid to gas.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Frostbite}} is damage to tissues as the results of exposure to colg; frozen body parts.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Heat cramps}} are painful muscle spasm usually associated with vigorous activity in a hot environment.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Heat exhaustion}} is a heat emergency in which a significant amount of fluid and electrolyte loss occurs because of heavy sweating; alsi called heat prostration or heat collapse.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Heat stroke}} is a life-threatening condition of severehyperthermia caused by exposure to excessive natural or artificial heat, marked by warm, dry skin, severe altered mental status; often irrevesible coma.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Homeostasis}} is a balance of all systems of the body.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Hymenoptera}} is a family of insects that includes bees, wasps, ants, and yellow jackets.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Hyperthermia}} is a condition in which the body core termp rises to 101 degrees farenheit or more.
EMS_Ch31 "{{c1::Hypothermia}} is a condition in which the body core temp falls below 95 degrees farenheitafter exposure to a cold environment.
" EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Radiation}} is the transfer of heat to colder objects in the environment by radiant energy, for example heat gain from a fire.
"" EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Respiration}} is the loss of body heat as warm air in the lungs is exhaled into the atmosphere and cooler air is inhaled.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Reverse triage}} is a triage process used in treating multiple victims of a lightning strike, in which efforts are focused on those who are in respiratory and cardiac arrest. Reverse triage is different from conventional triage where such patients would be classified as deceased.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Scuba gear}} is a system that delivers air to the mouth and lungs at various atmospheric pressures, increasing with the depth of the dive; stands for self-contained underwater breathing apparatus.
EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Turgor}} is the ability of the skin to resist deformation; tested by gently pinching skin on the forehead or back of the head.
EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::comminuted}} fracture is one which the bone is broken into more than two fragments. "
" EMS_Ch31 An {{c1::epiphyseal}} fracture is one that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities. "" EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::greenstick}} fracture is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs in children. EMS_Ch31 An {{c1::incomplete}} fracture is one that does not run completely through the bone; a nondisplaced fracture. "" EMS_Ch31 An {{c1::oblique}} fracture is one which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp angled blow to the bone. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::pathologic}} fracture is one of weakened of diseased bone; seen in patients with osteoporosis, infection, or cancer; often produced by minimal force. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::spiral}} fracture is one that is caused by a twisting or spinning force, causing a long spiral-shaped break in the bone. This is sometimes the result of abuse in young children. EMS_Ch31 A {{c1::transverse}} fracture is one that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow injury. EMS_Ch31 {{c1::Dyspnea}} is MOST accurately defined as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. EMS_Mastery3 Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of {{c1::toxic chemical inhalation.}} EMS_Mastery3 A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:  provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. EMS_Mastery3 Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: {{c1::narcotic overdose.}} EMS_Mastery3 A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: apply a ...... , monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. CPAP device EMS_Mastery3 Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include {{c1::tachypnea and tingling in the extremities}}. EMS_Mastery3 When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to {{c1::assist his or her ventilations}}. EMS_Mastery3 An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with {{c1::adequate air exchange.}} EMS_Mastery3 The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of {{c1::low oxygen levels}}. EMS_Mastery3 You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should insert {{c1::a nasopharyngeal airway}} and begin assisted ventilation. EMS_Mastery3 Family history of hypertension is {{c1::LEAST}} important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort compared to prescence of personal factors, hx of previous heart attack and history of cigarette smoking. EMS_Mastery3 Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to {{c1::3}} doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. EMS_Mastery3 The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the {{c1::carotid arteries.}} EMS_Mastery3 After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect {{c1::hypotension.}} EMS_Mastery3 You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: {{c1::remove the nitroglycerin patch}}, place him in a {{c2::supine position}} and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. EMS_Mastery3 In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system {{c1::slows the heart and respiratory rates.}} EMS_Mastery3 Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because {{c1::the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.}} EMS_Mastery3 A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. EMS_Mastery3 When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should {{c1::use the patient's own words.}} EMS_Mastery3 You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: {{c1::suction her oropharynx}} and transport immediately. EMS_Mastery3 {{c1::Poisoning}} is a metabolic cause of a seizure. EMS_Mastery3 You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. EMS_Mastery3 A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when a {{c1::small clot in a cerebral artery}} causes temporary symptoms. EMS_Mastery3 You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:  initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. EMS_Mastery3 Febrile seizures are usually {{c1::benign}} but should be evaluated. EMS_Mastery3 The spinal cord exits the cranium through the {{c1::foramen magnum.}} EMS_Mastery3 The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure is likely to improve over a period of {{c1::5 to 30 minutes.}} EMS_Mastery3 Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the {{c1::liver.}} EMS_Mastery3 You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:  repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. EMS_Mastery3 The visceral peritoneum is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the {{c1::abdomen}}. EMS_Mastery3 The ... assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies. Spleen EMS_Mastery3 A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect {{c1::aortic aneurysm}} EMS_Mastery3 A {{c1::strangulated hernia}} is a hernia that loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. EMS_Mastery3 Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in {{c1::leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.}} EMS_Mastery3 The spleen, kidneys, and pancreas are all {{c1::solid}} organs. EMS_Mastery3 The parietal peritoneum lines the {{c1::walls of the abdominal cavity.}} EMS_Mastery3 Chronic renal failure is a condition that is often caused by {{c1::hypertension or diabetes}}. EMS_Mastery3 The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by {{c1::removing sodium and water}} from the body. EMS_Mastery3 What signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? weight loss and polyuria EMS_Mastery3 Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is attempting to {{c1::eliminate acids from the blood.}} EMS_Mastery3 Ketone production is the result of {{c1::fat metabolization}} when {{c2::glucose}} is unavailable. EMS_Mastery3 Common side effects of epinephrine include: tachycardia, headache, anxiety and dizziness. tachycardia, headache, and dizziness. EMS_Mastery3 Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting it can continue to inject venom for up to {{c1::20 minutes.}} EMS_Mastery3 Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:  properly dispose of the syringe. EMS_Mastery3 Which physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation EMS_Mastery3 {{c1::Epinephrine}} is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when wheezing and hypotension are present. EMS_Mastery3 A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called a ... Wheal EMS_Mastery3 When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for .... 10 seconds EMS_Mastery3 The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): {{c1::allergen}} EMS_Mastery3 In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they:  are usually absorbed quickly into the body EMS_Mastery3 Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49-year-old male with bradycardia. Which side effect would you expect the patient to experience? dry mucous membranes EMS_Mastery3 A 4-year-old, 15-kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occurred. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should: administer 15 g of activated charcoal. EMS_Mastery3 Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: {{c1::tachycardia}} EMS_Mastery3 A 25-year-old man overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. His breathing is slow and shallow and he is bradycardic. He has track marks on both arms. The EMT should:  insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a BVM. EMS_Mastery3 Before giving activated charcoal, you should:  obtain approval from medical control. EMS_Mastery3 You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated. EMS_Mastery3 You are dispatched to a local nursery for a 39-year-old female who is sick. When you arrive, you find the patient lying on the floor. She is semiconscious, has copious amounts of saliva coming from her mouth, and is incontinent of urine. You quickly feel her pulse and note that it is very slow. Immediate management for this patient should include:  thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx. EMS_Mastery3 After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to: be alert for vomiting EMS_Mastery3 The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: depression EMS_Mastery3 A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should: ask the daughter how her father normally behaves. EMS_Mastery3 Organic brain syndrome is defined as a dysfunction of the brain caused by  abnormal physical or physiological function. EMS_Mastery3 Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the {{c1::urinary bladder.}} EMS_Mastery3 Painful {{c1::urination}} is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women. EMS_Mastery3 {{c1::Chlamydia}} would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated. EMS_Ch23Quiz An {{c1::advanced EMT (AEMT)}} is an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Advanced life support (ALS)}} are advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.
01 EMS systems
The {{c1::Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)}} is a comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.
01 EMS systems An {{c1::automated external difibrillator (AED)}} is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and deliver the appropriate electrical shock to the patient. 01 EMS systems A {{c1::certification}} is a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Community paramedicine}} is a healthcare model in which experience paramedics recieve advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or condition, and patient advocacy. 
01 EMS systems {{c1::Continuous quality improvement (CQI)}} is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Emergency medical dispatch (EMD)}} is a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.
01 EMS systems An {{c1::emergency medical responder (EMR)}} is the first trained professional, such as police officer, firefighters, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Emergency medical services (EMS)}} is a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.
01 EMS systems An {{c1::emergency medical technician (EMT)}} is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, used of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications. 01 EMS systems HIPAA stands for {{c1::Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.}} "" 01 EMS systems {{c1::HIPAA}} is federal legislation passed in 1996. It's main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information andp enalizing violations of patient privacy.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Intravenous (IV) therapy}} is the delivery of medication direction into a vein.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Licensure}} is the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Medical control}} are physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (offline/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.
01 EMS systems The {{c1::medical director}} is the physican who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Mobile integrated healthcare (MIH)}} is a method delivering health care which involves providing healthcare withing the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital. 01 EMS systems The {{c1::National EMS Scope of Practice Model}} is a document created by the NHTSA that outlines the skills perfored by various EMS providers. 01 EMS systems A {{c1::paramedic}} is an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Primary prevention}} are efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occuring.
01 EMS systems The {{c1::primary service area (PSA)}} is the designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Public health}} is focused on examining that health needs of entire popilations with the goal of preventing health probelms.
01 EMS systems A {{c1::public safety access point}} is a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Quality control}} is the responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care stadards are met by EMTS on each call.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Secondary prevention}} are efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Acute stress reactions}} are reactions to stress that occur during a stressful reaction.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Airborne transmission}} is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Bloodborne pathogens}} are pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and HIV.
02 safety wellness The {{c1::Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)}} is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US. It is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services. 02 safety wellness A {{c1::communicable disease}} is a disease taht can be spread from one person to another. 02 safety wellness {{c1::Concealment}} is the use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Contamination}} is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such  as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Cover}} is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)}} is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Cumulative stress reactions}} are prolonged or excessive stress.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Delayed stress reactions}} are reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.
02 safety wellness The {{c1::designated officer}} is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues. 02 safety wellness {{c1::Direct contact}} is exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact 02 safety wellness {{c1::Exposure}} is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Foodborne transmission}} is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::General adaptation syndrome}} is the body's respnose to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Hepatitis}} is inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.
02 safety wellness A {{c1::host}} is the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent. 02 safety wellness {{c1::Human immunodeficieny virus (HIV)}} leads to acquired immunodeficiency symdorme, which damaged the cells in the bodys immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Immunity}} is the bodys ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Indirect contact}} is exposure or trasmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Infection}} is the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by oranisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites with or without signs or symptoms or disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Infection control}} are procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.
02 safety wellness An {{c1::infectious disease}} is a medical condition caused by the growtha nd spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. 02 safety wellness The {{c1::Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)}} is the federal regulatory and compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace. 02 safety wellness A {{c1::pathogen}} is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host. "" 02 safety wellness {{c1::Personal protective equipment (PPE)}} is protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or hazardous material.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)}} is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or morer unresolved issues concerning the inciden, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Transmission}} is the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles or by vectors.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Standard precautions}} are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potention exposure risks of communicable disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Vector-borne transmission}} is the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Abandonment}} is the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring car to antoher medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
03 legal {{c1::Advanced directive}} is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a {{c2::living will}} or {{c3::health care directive.}}
03 legal {{c1::Applied ethics}} is the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
03 legal {{c1::Assault}} is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
03 legal {{c1::Battery}} is unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
03 legal {{c1::Bioethics}} is the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.
03 legal {{c1::Breach of confidentiality}} is the disclosure of information without proper authorization.
03 legal {{c1::Certification}} is a process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting a certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Compensatory damages}} are damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
02 safety wellness Someone who is {{c1::competent}} is able to make rational decisions about personal well-being. 03 legal {{c1::Consent}} is the permission to render care.
03 legal {{c1::Contributory negligence}} is a legal defence that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
03 legal {{c1::Credentialing}} is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.
03 legal {{c1::Decision-making capacity}} is the ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
03 legal {{c1::Defamation}} is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.
03 legal {{c1::Dependent lividity}} is blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloation of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
03 legal {{c1::Depositions}} are oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
03 legal {{c1::Discovery}} is the phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain info from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. It includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
03 legal {{c1::do not resuscitate (DNR) orders}} are written documentation by a physcian giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
03 legal A {{c1::durable power of attorney}} is a type of advanced directive executed by  a compettent adult that appoints anotheri ndividual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behald, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. 03 legal A {{c1::duty to act}} is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care. 03 legal An {{c1::emergency}} is a serious situation, usch as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention. 03 legal {{c1::Emergency doctrine}} is the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.
03 legal {{c1::Emergency medical care}} is immediate care or treatment.
03 legal {{c1::Ethics}} is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
03 legal {{c1::Expressed consent}} is a type of consent in which a patient fives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
03 legal {{c1::False imprisonment}} is the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.
03 legal {{c1::Forcible restraint}} is the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
03 legal {{c1::Good samaritan laws}} are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willfull negligence.
03 legal {{c1::Governmental immunity}} is the legal doctrine that can protect and EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by government entities.
03 legal {{c1::Gross negligence}} is the conduct that constitutes a willfull or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
03 legal A {{c1::health care directive}} is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a {{c2::living will.}} 03 legal {{c1::Health care proxies}} are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a {{c2::power of attorney.}}
"" 03 legal {{c1::Implied consent}} is the type of consent that a patient who is unable to give consent  is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
03 legal {{c1::Informed consent}} is permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment are explained.
03 legal {{c1::In loco parentis}} is the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
03 legal {{c1::Interrogatories}} are written wuestions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
03 legal {{c1::Kidnapping}} is the seizing, confining, abducting or carrying away of another person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without their consent.
03 legal {{c1::Libel}} is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
03 legal {{c1::Licensure}} is the process were a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
03 legal {{c1::Medicolegal}} is a term relating to medical, law, or forensic medicine.
03 legal {{c1::Morality}} is a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character conduct and conscience.
03 legal {{c1::Negligence}} is the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
03 legal {{c1::Negligence per se}} is a theory that may be used when the conduct of a person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statue.
03 legal {{c1::Patient autonomy}} is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding their health care.
03 legal {{c1::Proximate causation}} is when a person who have a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
03 legal {{c1::Punitive damages}} are damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
03 legal {{c1::Putrefaction}} is the decompisition of body tissues; this is a definitive sign of death.
"" 03 legal {{c1::Res ipsa loquitor}} is when the EMT is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
03 legal {{c1::Scope of practice}} outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient; this is defined by state law.
03 legal {{c1::Slander}} is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.
03 legal {{c1::Standard of care}} is the written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
03 legal A {{c1::tort}} is a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit. 03 legal The {{c1::base station}} is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and reciever that is located in a fixed place. 04 communications "A {{c1::cell phone}} is a low power portable radio that communicates through interconnected series of repeater stations called ""cells""" 04 communications A {{c1::channel}} is an assign frequency that is used to carry voice and or data communications. 04 communications {{c1::Communication}} is the transmission of information to another person.
04 communications {{c1::Cultural imposition}} is when one person imposes his or her believes on another because they believe their ideals are superior.
04 communications A {{c1::dedicated line}} is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a {{c2::hotline.}} 04 communications {{c1::Documentation}} is the recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction that becomes part of the patients permanent medical record.
04 communications A {{c1::duplex}} is the ability to transmit and recieve simultaneously. 04 communications {{c1::Ethnocentrism}} is when a person considers their own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
04 communications The {{c1::Federal Communications Commission (FCC)}} is the federal gency that has jusidiction over interstate and international phone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity. 04 communications An {{c1::interoperable communications system}} is a communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.
04 communications {{c1::MED channels}} are VHF and UHF channels that the FCC has designed exclusively for EMS use.
04 communications A {{c1::mobile data terminal (MDT)}} is a small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly recieves data from the dispatch center. 04 communications {{c1::Multiplex}} is the ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.
04 communications {{c1::Noise}} is anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.
04 communications {{c1::Paging}} is the use of radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted hrough pagers or desktop monitor radios.
04 communications A {{c1::patient care report (PCR)}} is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as {{c2::prehospital care reports}}. 04 communications A {{c1::rapport}} is a trusting relationship that you build with your patient. 04 communications A {{c1::repeater}} is a special base station radio that recieves messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. 04 communications A {{c1::scanner}} is a radio reciever that seraches or scans across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated. 04 communications A {{c1::simplex}} is a single-frequency radio, transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only recieve, and the party that is tranmitting is unable to recieve. 04 communications {{c1::Standing orders}} are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called {{c2::protocols.}}
04 communications {{c1::Telemetry}} is a process which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; which can be transmitted by radio or phone to a reciever with a decoder at the hospital.
04 communications {{c1::Trunking}} is the telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequences.
04 communications {{c1::Therapeutic communications}} are verbal and non verbal communication techniques that encourage patient to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
04 communications {{c1::UHF (ultra high frequency)}} are radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.
04 communications {{c1::VHF (very high frequency)}} are radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz and is divided into high and low bands. 04 communications {{c1::Abduction}} is the motion of a limb away from the midline.
05 terminology {{c1::Adduction}} is the motion of a limb toward the midline.
05 terminology The {{c1::apex}} is the pointed extremity of a conical strructure. 05 terminology {{c1::Distal}} means further from the trunk of the body.
05 terminology {{c1::Proximal}} means closer from the trunk of the body. 05 terminology {{c1::Extension}} is the straightening of a joint.
05 terminology {{c1::Felxion}} is the bending of a joint.
05 terminology Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline are {{c1::medial}} or inner structures.
05 terminology {{c1::Palmar}} is the forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.
05 terminology {{c1::Plantar}} is the bottom surface of the foot.
05 terminology The {{c1::prefix}} is the part of a term that changes the meaning of the term. 05 terminology {{c1::Prone}} is the position where a patient is lying face down.
05 terminology When something is {{c1::ventral}} it is on the anterior side of the body. 05 terminology The {{c1::word root}} is the main part of a term that contains the primary meaning of the term.
05 terminology The {{c1::abdomen}} is the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis. 06 anatomy The {{c1::acetabulum}} is the depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::adams apple}} is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the {{c2::thyroid cartilage.}} 06 anatomy {{c1::Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)}} is the nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.
06 anatomy The {{c1::adrenal glands}} are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Adrenergic}} is a term pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradreniline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
06 anatomy The {{c1::aerobic metabolism}} is metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen. 06 anatomy {{c1::Agonal gasps}} are abnormal breathing patterns characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients with cardiac arrest.
06 anatomy {{c1::Alpha-adrenergic receptors}} are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause condtriction of blood vessels.
06 anatomy The {{c1::alveoli}} are the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place. 06 anatomy {{c1::Anarobic metabolism}} is the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.
06 anatomy The {{c1::anatomic position}} is the position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side with the palms of the hands forward. 06 anatomy The {{c1::aorta}} is the main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::appendicular skeleton}} is the portion of the skeletal system that comprimises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle. 06 anatomy The {{c1::appendix }} is a small tubular structure that is attaached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. 06 anatomy The {{c1::arterioles}} are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Articular cartilage}} is apearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surgaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
06 anatomy The {{c1::atrium}} is one of the two upper chambers of the heart. 06 anatomy The {{c1::autonomic nervous system}} is the part of the nervous sustem that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating that are not controlled voluntarily. 06 anatomy The {{c1::axial skeleton}} is the part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage. 06 anatomy A {{c1::ball and socket joint}} is a joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending. 06 anatomy {{c1::Beta-adrenergic receptors}} are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
06 anatomy The {{c1::bicep}} is the largemu scle that covers the front of the humerus. 06 anatomy The {{c1::bile ducts}} are the ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine. 06 anatomy {{c1::Blood pressure}} is the pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
06 anatomy The {{c1::brachial artery}} is the major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arms. 06 anatomy The {{c1::brain}} is the controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions to the environment, emotional responses, and judgment. 06 anatomy The {{c1::brain stem}} is the area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration. 06 anatomy The {{c1::capillary vessels}} are the tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood. 06 anatomy {{c1::Cardiac muscle}} is heart muscle.
06 anatomy {{c1::Cardiac output}} is the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. Its calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.
06 anatomy The {{c1::carotid artery}} is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cartilage}} is the smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cecum}} is the first part of the large intenstine into which the ileum opens. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::central nervous system (CNS)}} consists of the brain and spinal cord. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cerebellum}} is one of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements. 06 anatomy {{c1::Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)}} is the fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.
06 anatomy The {{c1::cerebrum}} is the largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter; it's made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cervical spine}} is the portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertabrae that lie in the neck. 06 anatomy The {{c1::chordaw tendineae}} are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. 06 anatomy {{c1::Chyme}} is the substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all the eaten foods with added stomach acids.
06 anatomy The {{c1::circulatory system}} is the complez arrangement of connected tubes that move blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide and cellular waste through the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::clavicle}} is the collar bone,it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula. 06 anatomy The {{c1::coccyx}} is the last three of four vertabrae of the spine; the tail bone. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::coronal plane}} is an imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cranium}} is the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; it contains the brain. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cricoid cartilage}} is a firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cricothyroid membrane}} is a thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx. 06 anatomy {{c1::Dead space}} is any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange such as the trachea and bronchi.
06 anatomy The {{c1::dermis}} is the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels. 06 anatomy The {{c1::diaphragm}} is a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, serparating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of this and the chest wall muscles brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs. 06 anatomy {{c1::Diastole}} is the relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.
06 anatomy {{c1::Diffusion}} is the movement of gas from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
06 anatomy {{c1::Digestion}} is the processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.
06 anatomy The {{c1::dorsal pedis artery}} is the artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals. 06 anatomy The {{c1::endocrine system}} is the complex mesage and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones. 06 anatomy {{c1::Enzymes}} are substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.
06 anatomy The {{c1::epidermis}} is the outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a water tight protective covering for the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::epiglottis}} is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering. 06 anatomy {{c1::Epinephrine}} is a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.
06 anatomy The {{c1::esophagous}} is a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contractions propel food and liquids through it to the stomach. 06 anatomy {{c1::Expiratory reserve volume}} is the amount of air that can be exhaled following a nromal exhalation.
06 anatomy {{c1::Fallopian tubes}} are long slender tubes the extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through with the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.
06 anatomy The {{c1::femoral artery}} is the major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It suppplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genetalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area. 06 anatomy The {{c1::femoral head}} is the proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint. 06 anatomy The {{c1::femur}} is the thigh bone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::foramen mgnum}} is the large opening at the base of the skill through which the brain connects to the spinal cord. 06 anatomy The {{c1::frontal bone}} si the portion of the cranium that forms the forehead. 06 anatomy The {{c1::gallbladder}} is a sac on the undersurgace of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharfes it into the dudenum through the common bile duct. 06 anatomy The {{c1::genital system}} is the reproductive system in men and women. 06 anatomy The {{c1::germinal layer}} is the deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed. 06 anatomy The {{c1::greater tochanter}} is a bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint. 06 anatomy {{c1::Hair follicles}} are small organs that produce hair.
06 anatomy The {{c1::heart}} is a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body. 06 anatomy {{c1::Heart rate (HR) }}is the number of heartbeats during a specific time.
06 anatomy {{c1::Hinge joints}} are joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.
06 anatomy {{c1::Hormones}} are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions including metabolism, growth and body temperature.
06 anatomy The {{c1::humerus}} is the supporting bone of the upper body. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Hydrostatic pressure}} is the pressure of water against the walls of its container.
06 anatomy The {{c1::hypoxic drive}} is the backup system to control respiration; senses drop in the oxygen level in the blood. 06 anatomy The {{c1::ilium}} is one of three bones the fuse to form the pelvic ring. 06 anatomy The {{c1::inferior vena cava}} is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and abdominal organs to the heart. 06 anatomy The {{c1::inspiratory reserve volume}} is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalationl the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume. 06 anatomy The {{c1::interstitial space}} is the space in between the cells.
06 anatomy The {{c1::ischium}} is one of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring. 06 anatomy {{c1::Joint articulation}} is the place where two bones come into contact.
06 anatomy A {{c1::joint capsule}} is the fibrous sac that encloses a joint. 06 anatomy The {{c1::kidneys}} are two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content. 06 anatomy {{c1::Labored breathing}} is the use of muscles of the chest, back and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.
06 anatomy {{c1::Lactic acid}} is a metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anerobic metabolism).
06 anatomy The {{c1::large intestine}} is the portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste. 06 anatomy The {{c1::lesser trochanter}} is the projection on the medial superior portion of the femur. 06 anatomy A {{c1::ligament}} is a band of fibrous tissue that connects the bones to bones. it supports and strengthens a joint. 06 anatomy The {{c1::liver}} is a large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the disphragm; it produces biles, stores flucose for immediate use by the body and produces many substances that help regular immune responses. 06 anatomy The {{c1::lumbar spine}} is the lower back of the back formed by the lowest five nonfused vertabrae; also called the dorsal spine. 06 anatomy {{c1::Lymph nodes}} are tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
06 anatomy The {{c1::mandible}} is the bone of the lower jaw. 06 anatomy The {{c1::manubirum}} is the upper quarter of the sternum. 06 anatomy The {{c1::maxillae}} are the upper jaw bones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palae and hold the upper teeth. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::medula oblongata}} is nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descenging nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing. 06 anatomy The {{c1::metabolism}} also known as {{c2::cellular respiration}} are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells. 06 anatomy The {{c1::midbrain}} is the part of the brain that is respondible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness. 06 anatomy The {{c1::midsagittal}} plane or {{c2::midline}} is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves. 06 anatomy {{c1::Minute volume}} is the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute. You can calculate it by multiplying the tidal volune and respiratory rate. This is also called minute ventilation.
06 anatomy {{c1::Motor nerves}} carry information from the CNS to the muscles of the body.
06 anatomy {{c1::Mucous membranes}} are the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
06 anatomy {{c1::Mucus}} is the water secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricate the body openings.
06 anatomy The {{c1::musculoskeltal system}} consist of the bones and voluntary muscles of the body. 06 anatomy The heart muscle is called the {{c1::myocardium.}} 06 anatomy The {{c1::nasopharynx}} is the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth. 06 anatomy The {{c1::nervous system}} is the systen that controls virtually all activities of body, both voluntary and involuntary. 06 anatomy {{c1::Norepinephrine}} is a neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.
06 anatomy The {{c1::occiput}} is the most posterior portion of the cranium. 06 anatomy {{c1::Oncotic pressure}} is the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.
06 anatomy The {{c1::orbit}} is the eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma. 06 anatomy The {{c1::ovaries}} are female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs). 06 anatomy The {{c1::pancreas}}is a flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin. 06 anatomy The {{c1::parasympathetic nervous system}} is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary function, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through teh chemical acetylcholine. 06 anatomy The {{c1::parietal bones}} are the bones thatl ie between the temporal and occpital regions of the cranium. 06 anatomy The {{c1::patella}}is the knee cap; and lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle. 06 anatomy {{c1::Pathophysiology}} is the study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.
06 anatomy {{c1::Perfusion}} is the circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells curent needs.
06 anatomy The {{c1::peripheral nervous system (PNS)}} is the part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves. 06 anatomy {{c1::Peristalsis}} is the wavelike contraction of smooth muscles by whichthe ureters of other tubular organs propel their contents.
06 anatomy {{c1::Plasma}} is a stick, yellow like fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.
06 anatomy {{c1::Platelets}} are tiny disc shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the intial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.
06 anatomy The {{c1::pleura}} are serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as pleural space. 06 anatomy "{{c1::Pleural space}} is the potential space between the parietal pleural and the visceral pleura; described as ""potential"" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.
" 06 anatomy The {{c1::pons}} is an organ that lies below th midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration and the medullary respiratory center. 06 anatomy The {{c1::posterior tibial artery}} is the artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot. 06 anatomy The {{c1::prostate gland}} is a small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladdar; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid. 06 anatomy {{c1::Pubic symphysis}} is a hard bony and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.
06 anatomy The {{c1::pubis}} is one of the three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring. 06 anatomy The {{c1::pulmonary artery}} is the major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; carries oxygen-poor blood. 06 anatomy {{c1::Pulmonary circulation}} is the flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.
06 anatomy The {{c1::pulmonary veins}} are the four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. 06 anatomy A {{c1::pulse}} is the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries. 06 anatomy The {{c1::radial artery}}  is the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side. 06 anatomy Teh {{c1::radius}} is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm. 06 anatomy Th {{c1::rectum}} is the lowermost end of the colon. 06 anatomy {{c1::Red blood cells}} carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.
06 anatomy The {{c1::renal pelvis}} is a cone shapped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder. 06 anatomy {{c1::Residual volume}} is the air that ramines in the lungs after maximal expiration.
06 anatomy {{c1::Respiration}}  is the inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.
06 anatomy {{c1::Respiratory comprimise}} is the inability of the body to move gas efficiently.
06 anatomy The {{c1::respiratory system}} consists of all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::reticular activating system}} is located  in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal. 06 anatomy The term retropetitoneal means {{c1::behind the peritoneum.}} 06 anatomy The {{c1::sacroiliac joint}} is the connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column. 06 anatomy The {{c1::sacrum}} is one of three bones that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertabrae. 06 anatomy The {{c1::sagittal plane}} or {{c2::lateral plane}} is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::salivary glands}} are the glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist. 06 anatomy The {{c1::scalp}} is the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair. 06 anatomy The {{c1::scalpula}} is the shoulder blade. 06 anatomy {{c1::Sebaceous glands}} are glands that produce an oily substance called sebum which discharges along the shaft of the hairs.
06 anatomy {{c1::Seminal vesicles}} are storage sacs for sperm which empty into the urethra at the prostate.
06 anatomy {{c1::Sensory nerves}} are the nerves that carry sensations form the body to the CNS.
06 anatomy {{c1::Shock}} is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as {{c2::hypoperfusion.}}
06 anatomy The {{c1::shoulder girdle}} is the proximal portion of the upper extremities made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus. 06 anatomy {{c1::Skeletal muscle}} is msucle that is attached to vones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.
06 anatomy The {{c1::skeleton}} is the framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also deisgned to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs. 06 anatomy The {{c1::small intestine}} is the portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. 06 anatomy {{c1::Smooth muscle}} is involuntary muscle; it constitutes the build of the GI tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.
06 anatomy The {{c1::somatic nervous system}} is the part of the nervous system that regualr activites over which there is voluntary control. 06 anatomy {{c1::Sphincters}} are muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diametes of tubes; found in the rectum, bladder and blood vessels.
06 anatomy The {{c1::spinal cord}} is an extension of the brain, comoposed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. IT lies inside of an is protected by the spina canal. 06 anatomy The {{c1::sternum}} is the breast bone. 06 anatomy The {{c1::stratum corneal layer}} is the outermost or dead layer of the skin. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Stroke volume (SV)}} is the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.
06 anatomy The {{c1::subcutaneous tissue}} is tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::superior vena cava}} is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart. 06 anatomy {{c1::Sweat glands}} are the glands that secrete sweat, located i the dermal layer of the skin.
06 anatomy {{c1::Symphysis}} is type of joint that has growth together to form a very stable connection.
06 anatomy {{c1::Synovial fluid}} is the lining of a joint that secretes synovial fluid into the joint space.
06 anatomy {{c1::Systemic circulation}} is the portion of the circulatory system outside of the body.
06 anatomy {{c1::Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)}} is the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move withing the blood bessels; related to the amount of dilation or constrictions in the blood vessel.
06 anatomy {{c1::Systole}} is the contraction, or period of contraction of the heart especially that of the ventricles.
06 anatomy The {{c1::temporal bones}} is the lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples. 06 anatomy The {{c1::tendons}} are the fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to the bone. 06 anatomy The {{c1::thoracic cage}} is the chest or rib cage 06 anatomy The {{c1::thoracic spine}} is the 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attach to each side of these vertebrae. 06 anatomy The{{c1::thorax}} is the chest cavity taht contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessels. 06 anatomy The {{c1::thyroid cartilage}} is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the adams apple. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::tibia}} is the shin bone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg. 06 anatomy {{c1::Tidal volume}} is the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath.
06 anatomy {{c1::Topographic anatomy}} are the superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.
06 anatomy The {{c1::trachea}} is the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs. 06 anatomy The {{c1::transverse plane}} or {{c2::axial plane}} is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::triceps}} are the muscles in the back of the upper arm. 06 anatomy The {{c1::tunica media}} is the middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand. 06 anatomy The {{c1::ulna}} is the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb. 06 anatomy A {{c1::ureter}} is a small, hollow, tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. 06 anatomy The {{c1::urethra}} is the canal that conveys urine from the bladder to the outside the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::urinary bladder}} is a sac behind the pubis symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine. 06 anatomy The {{c1::urinary system}} are the organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine. 06 anatomy The {{c1::vasa deferentia}} is the spermatic duct of the testicles; also called the vas deferens. 06 anatomy {{c1::Ventilation}} is the movement of air between the lungs and the environmet.
06 anatomy A {{c1::ventricle}} is one of two lower changers of the heart. 06 anatomy The {{c1::vertebrae}} are the 33 bones that make up the spinal column. 06 anatomy {{c1::V/Q ratio}} is a measurement that examies how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.
06 anatomy The {{c1::xiphoid process}} is the narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum. 06 anatomy The {{c1::zygomas}} is the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, and zygomaticp rocess of the temporal bone and the great winfs of the sphenoid bone. 06 anatomy An {{c1::adolescent}} is a young person age 12 to 18 years. 07 {{c1::Atherosclerosis}} is a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque which eventually leads to a partial ro complete blockage of blood flow.
07 {{c1::Barotrauma}} is an injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example too much pressure in the lungs.
07 {{c1::Conventional reasoning}} is a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approbal from peers and society.
07 An {{c1::early adult}} is a young adult age 19 to 40 years. 07 {{c1::Fontaelles}} are areas where the neonates or infants skull haas not fused together; usually disappear at appx 18 months of age.
07 An {{c1::infant}} is young child age 1 month to 1 year. 07 {{c1::Life expectancy}} is the average nnumber of years a person can be expected to live.
07 A {{c1::middle adult}} is an adult age 41 to 60 years. 07 The {{c1::moro reflex}} is an infant reflex where an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens their arms wide, spreads their fingers and seems to grab at things. 07 A {{c1::neonate}} is age birth to 1 month. 07 {{c1::Nephrons}} are the basic filtering units in the kidneys.
07 An {{c1::older adult}} is an adult aged 61 years or older. 07 {{c1::Palmar grasp}} is an infatn reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infants palm; the infant grasps the object.
07 {{c1::Postconventional reasoning}} is a type of reasoning where a child bases decisions on their conscience.
07 {{c1::Preconventional reasoning}} is a type of reasoning where a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what they want.
07 A {{c1::rooting reflex}} is an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infants cheek and the infant instictively turns their head toward the touch. 07 A person who is 6 to 12 years of age is {{c1::school age.}} 07 The {{c1::sucking reflex}} is an infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when their lips are stroked. 07 A {{c1::toddler}} is a young child ages 1 to 3 years. 07 {{c1::Trust and mistrust}} refers to a stage of develpment form birth  to 18 months where the infant gains trust of their parenst of carefivers if their world is planned, organized and routine.
07 A {{c1::backboard}} is a A long, flat board made of rigid, rectangular material that is used to provide support to a patient who is suspected of having a hip, pelvic, spinal, or lower extremity injury; also called a spine board, trauma board, and longboard.    EMS_Ch8 {{c1::Bariatrics}} is a branch of medicine concerned with the management (prevention or control) of obesity and allied diseases.
EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::basket stretcher}} is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom; also called a Stokes litter. This is very useful in rough terrain. EMS_Ch8 {{c1::Body mehanics}} is the relationship between the body’s anatomical structures and the physical forces associated with lifting, moving, and carrying; the ways in which the body moves to achieve a specific action.
EMS_Ch8 The {{c1::diamond carry}} is a carrying technique in which one provider is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the two providers at the sides uses one hand to support the stretcher or backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::direct ground lift}} is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. EMS_Ch8 An {{c1::emergency move}} is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided.    EMS_Ch8 An {{c1::extremity lift}} is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries. EMS_Ch8 {{c1::Extrication}} is the removal of a patient from entrapment or a dangerous situation or position, such as removal from a wrecked vehicle, industrial incident, or collapsed building.   
EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::flexible stretcher}} is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use.    "" EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::portable stretcher}} is a stretcher with a strong, rectangular, tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. EMS_Ch8 {{c1::Power grip}} is a technique in which the stretcher or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb.
EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::power lift}} is a lifting technique in which the EMT’s back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. EMS_Ch8 The {{c1::rapid extrication technique}} is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::scoop stretcher}} is a stretcher that is designed to be split into two or four sections that can be fitted around a patient who is lying on the ground or other relatively flat surface; also called an orthopedic stretcher. EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::stairchair}} is a lightweight folding device that is used to carry a conscious, seated patient up or down stairs. EMS_Ch8 A {{c1::wheeled ambulance stretcher}} is a specially designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground. A collapsible undercarriage allows it to be loaded into the ambulance; also called an ambulance stretcher. EMS_Ch8 The {{c1::accessory muscles}} are the secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Altered mental status}} is any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event, or any deviation from a patient’s normal baseline mental status; may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body.
EMS_Ch9 To {{c1::auscultate}} is to listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Breath sounds}} are an indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Capillary refill }} is a test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Capnography}} is a test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Carbon dioxide}} is a component of air that typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system.
EMS_Ch9 To {{c1::coagulate}} is to form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Conjuctiva}} is the delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.
"" EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Crackles}} are crackling, rattling breath sounds signaling fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; formerly called rales.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Crepitus}} is a grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::DCAP-BTLS}} is a mnemonic for assessment in which each area of the body is evaluated for {{c2::Deformities}}, {{c3::Contusions}}, {{c4::Abrasions}}, {{c5::Punctures/penetrations}}, {{c6::Burns}}, {{c7::Tenderness}}, {{c8::Lacerations}}, and {{c9::Swelling}}.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Diaphoretic}} means profuse sweating.
EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::distracting injury}} is any injury that prevents the patient from noticing other injuries he or she may have, even severe injuries; for example, a painful femur or tibia fracture that prevents the patient from noticing back pain associated with a spinal fracture. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Emphysema}} is a disease of the lungs in which there is extreme dilation and eventual destruction of the pulmonary alveoli with poor exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide; it is one form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
"" EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::focused assessment}} is a type of physical assessment typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Frostbite}} is damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen or partially frozen body parts.   
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::general impression}} is the overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient’s surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Golden hour}} is the time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best; also called the Golden Period.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Guarding}} is involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall to minimize the pain of movement and protect the inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::History taking}} is a step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient’s chief complaint and an account of the patient’s signs and symptoms.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Hypothermia}} is a condition in which the internal or core body temperature falls below 95°F (35°C).
EMS_Ch9 An {{c1::incident command system}} is a system implemented to manage disasters and mass and multiple casualty incidents in which sectin chieds, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning report to the incident commander. Also rreferred to as the incident management system. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Jaundice}} is yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::mechanism of injury (MOI) }} are the forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Metabolism}} is th biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within the cells.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Nasal flaring}} is the widening of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::nature of illness (NOI)}} is the general type of illness a patient is experiencing.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::OPQRST}} is a mneumonic used in evaluating a patient's pain.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Orientation}} is the mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened).
EMS_Ch9 To {{c1::palpate}} is to examine by touch. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Paradoxical motion}} is the motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion—in during inhalation, out during exhalation—is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Pertinent negatives}} are negative findings that warrant no care or intervention.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Priapism}} is a painful, tender, persistent erection of the penis; can result from spinal cord injury, erectile dysfunction drugs, or sickle cell disease.
"" EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::primary assessment}} is a step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Pulse oximetry}} is an assessment tool that measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the capillary beds.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Reassessment}} is a step within the patient assessment process performed at regular intervals during the assessment process to identify and treat changes in a patient’s condition. This should occur every 5 minutes for a patient in unstable condition and every 15 minutes for a patient in stable condition.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Responsiveness}} is the way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli (sound), tactile stimuli (touch), and painful stimuli.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Retractions}} are movements in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Rhonchi}} are coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::SAMPLE history}} is a brief history of a patient’s condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::sclera}} is the tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures. EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::secondary assessment}} is a step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic exam or an assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Shallow respirations}} are respirations characterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Situational awareness}} is knowledge and understanding of one’s surroundings and the ability to recognize potential risks to the safety of the patient or EMS team.
EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::sign}} is an objective finding that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled or measured. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Sniffing position}} is an upright position in which the patient’s head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open; the optimum position for the uninjured child who requires airway management.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Spontaneous respirations}} is breathing that occurs without assistance.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Stridor}} is a harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope.
EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::subcutaneous emphysema}} is a characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Symptoms}} are subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be identified only by the patient. EMS_Ch9 A rapid heart rate, more than 100 beats/min is called {{c1::tachycardia.}} EMS_Ch9 A slow heart rate, less than 60 beats/min is called {{c1::bradycardia.}} EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Traction}} is longitudinal force applied to a structure.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Triage}} is the process of sorting patients based on the severity of injury and medical need to establish treatment and transportation priorities.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Tripod position}} is an upright position in which the patient leans forward onto outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::2 to 3 word dyspnea}} is a severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Vasoconstriction}} is the narrowing of a blood vessel, such as with hypoperfusion or cold extremities. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Vital signs}} are the key signs that are used to evaluate the patient’s overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Wheezing}} is a high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma, bronchiolitis, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::airway}} is the upper tract or the passage above the larynx, which includes the nose, mouth, and throat. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Aveolar minute volume}} is the volume of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space; calculated by multiplying tidal volume (minus dead space) and respiratory rate. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Alveolar ventilation}} is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli. It is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume. EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::American Standard Safety System}} is a safety system for large oxygen cylinders, designed to prevent the accidental attachment of a regulator to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas. "" EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Apnea}} is the absence of spontaneous breathing.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Aspiration}} in the context of airway, is the introduction of vomitus or other foreign material into the lungs.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Ataxic respirations}} are irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern.
EMS_Ch9 An {{c1::automatic transport ventilator}} is a ventilation device attached to a control box that allows the variables of ventilation to be set. It frees the EMT to perform other tasks while the patient is being ventilated. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::bag-valve mask}} is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, it delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::barrier device}} is a protective item, such as a pocket mask with a valve, that limits exposure to a patient’s body fluids. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Bronchioles}} are a subdivision of the smaller bronchi in the lungs; made of smooth muscle and dilate or constrict in response to various stimuli.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Canpometry}} is the use of a capnometer, a device that measures the amount of expired carbon dioxide.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::carina}} is the point at which the trachea bifurcates (divides) into the left and right mainstem bronchi. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Chemoreceptors}} monitor the levels of o2, co2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body’s needs at any given time.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Compliance}} is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Continuous Positive Airway Pressyre (CPAP)}} is method of ventilation used primarily in the treatment of critically ill patients with respiratory distress; can prevent the need for endotracheal intubation. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::End-tidal CO2}} is the amount of carbon dioxide present at the end of an exhaled breath.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Exhalation}} is the passive part of the breathing process in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::External respiration}} is the exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood cells in the pulmonary capillaries; also called pulmonary respiration.
EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::gag reflex}} is a normal reflex mechanism that causes retching; activated by touching the soft palate or the back of the throat. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Gastric distention}} is a condition in which air fills the stomach, often as a result of high volume and pressure during artificial ventilation.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Good air exchange}} is a term used to distinguish the degree of distress in a patient with a mild airway obstruction. With this, the patient is still conscious and able to cough forcefully, although wheezing may be heard.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::head tilt-chin lift maneuver}} is a combination of two movements to open the airway by tilting the forehead back and lifting the chin; not used for trauma patients.   EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Hypercarbia}} is increased carbon dioxide level in the bloodstream.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Hypoxia}} is a dangerous condition in which the body’s tissues and cells do not have enough oxygen.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Inhalation}} is the active, muscular part of breathing that draws air into the airway and lungs; also a medication delivery route.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Internal respiration}} is the exchange of gases between the blood cells and the tissues.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Intrapulmonary shunting}} is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::jaw-thrust maneuver}} is a technique to open the airway by placing the fingers behind the angle of the jaw and bringing the jaw forward; used for patients who may have a cervical spine injury.    EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::larynx}} is  a complex structure formed by many independent cartilaginous structures that all work together; where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins; also called the voice box. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::manually triggered ventilation device}} is a fixed flow rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed; also referred to as a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. "" EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::mediastinum}} is the space within the chest that contains the heart, major blood vessels, vagus nerve, trachea, major bronchi, and esophagus; located between the two lungs. "" EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::mild airway obstruction}} occurs when a foreign body partially obstructs the patient’s airway. The patient is able to move adequate amounts of air, but also experiences some degree of respiratory distress. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::nasal cannula}} is an oxygen-delivery device in which oxygen flows through two small, tubelike prongs that fit into the patient’s nostrils; delivers 24% to 44% supplemental oxygen, depending on the flow rate.    EMS_Ch9 An {{c1::NPA}} is an airway adjunct inserted into the nostril of an unresponsive patient or a patient with an altered level of consciousness who is unable to maintain airway patency independently. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::nonrebreathing mask}} is a combination mask and reservoir bag system that is the preferred way to give oxygen in the prehospital setting; delivers up to 90% inspired oxygen and prevents inhaling the exhaled gases (carbon dioxide).    EMS_Ch9 An {{c1::OPA}} is an airway adjunct inserted into the mouth of an unresponsive patient to keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway and to facilitate suctioning the airway, if necessary. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Oxygen toxicity}} is a condition of excessive oxygen consumption resulting in cellular and tissue damage.   
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Oxygenation}} is the process of delivering oxygen to the blood by diffusion from the alveoli following inhalation into the lungs.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::parietal pleura}} is the thin membrane that lines the chest cavity. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Partial pressure}} describes the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood.
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Passive ventilation}} is the act of air moving in and out of the lungs during chest compressions.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::phrenic nerve}} is the nerve that innervates the diaphragm; necessary for adequate breathing to occur. EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::pin-indexing system}} is a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::pneumothorax}} is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space. EMS_Ch9 A patient with a mild airway obstruction has {{c1::poor air exchange}}. With this, the patient often has a weak, ineffective cough, increased difficulty breathing, or possible cyanosis and may produce a high-pitched noise during inhalation (stridor).
EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Recovery position}} is a side-lying position used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients who are breathing adequately and do not have suspected injuries to the spine, hips, or pelvis.
EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::stoma}} is an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure; for example, in the neck, it connects the trachea directly to the skin. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::surfactant}} is a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome. EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::tension pneumothorax}} is an accumulation of air or gas in the pleural space that progressively increases pressure in the chest that interferes with cardiac function with potentially fatal results. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Tonsil tips}} are large, semirigid suction tips recommended for suctioning the pharynx; also called Yankauer tips.
EMS_Ch9 A {{c1::tracheostomy}} is a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin. EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::visceral pleura}} is a thin membrane the covers the lungs. EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Vital capactiy}} is the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing in as deeply as possible.
EMS_Ch9 The {{c1::vocal cords}} are thin white bands of tough muscular tissue that are lateral borders of the glottis and serve as the primary center for speech production. "" EMS_Ch9 {{c1::Absorbtion}} is The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
11 {{c1::Action}} is the therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.
"" 11 {{c1::Activated charcol}} is oral medication that binds and adsorbs ingested toxins in the gastrointestinal tract for treatment of some poisonings and medication overdoses. It is ground into a very fine powder that provides the greatest possible surface area for binding medications that have been taken by mouth; it is carried on the EMS unit.
{{c1::Adsorption}} is the process of binding or sticking to a surface.
11 An {{c1::agonist}} is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. 11 An {{c1::antagonist}} is a medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications. 11 {{c1::Aspirin}} is a medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).
11 {{c1::Contraindications}} are conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.   
11 {{c1::Enteral medications}} are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.
11 {{c1::Epinephrine}} is a medication that increases heart rate, blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.
11 A {{c1::gel}} is a semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes. "" 11 The {{c1::generic name}} is the original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or trade names); the name is not capitalized. 11 The {{c1::indications}} are the therapeutic uses for a specific medication. 11 An {{c1::intraosseous injection}} is an injection into the bone; a medication delivery route. 11 A {{c1::medication}} is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain. 11 A {{c1::medication error}} is the inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm. 11 A {{c1::metered-dose inhaled (MDI)}} is a miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles of medication may be inhaled through the mouth and into the lungs. 11 A {{c1::mucosal atomizer device}} is a device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril. 11 {{c1::Nitroglycerin}} is a medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.
11 {{c1::Oral glucose}} is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.
11 {{c1::Oxygen}} is a gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without it.
11 {{c1::Parenteral medications}} are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.   
11 Per os (PO) means {{c1::take by mouth.}} 11 {{c1::Pharmacodynamics}} is the process by which a medication works on the body. 11 {{c1::Pharmacology}} is the study of the properties and effects of medications.
11 {{c1::Polypharmacy}} is the use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
11 {{c1::Side effects}} are any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.
11 A {{c1::solution}} is a liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. 11 A {{c1::subcutaneous injection (SC)}} is an injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route. 11 A {{c1::suspension}} is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. 11 The {{c1::therapeutic effect}} is the desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body. 11 The {{c1::trade name}} is the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication; the name is capitalized. 11 Transcutaneous means {{c1::through the skin}}; a medication delivery route. 11 {{c1::Unintended effects}} are actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.
11 {{c1::Untoward effects}} are actions that can be harmful to the patient.
11 The {{c1::afterload}} is the force or resistance the heart pumps against when ejecting blood. "" EMS_Ch12 An {{c1::aneurysm}} is an abnormal enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the vessel wall. EMS_Ch12 The {{c1::autonomic nervous system}} is the part of the nervous system that regulates involuntary activities of the body, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food. EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Cardiac tamponade}} is the compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Cardiogenic shock}} is a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Compensated shock}} is the early stage of shock, in which the body can still compensate for blood loss.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Decompensated shock}} is the late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Dehydration}} is the loss of water from the tissues of the body.
EMS_Ch12 "{{c1::Distributive shock}} is a condition that occurs when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both.

(Ie. EXCESSIVE VASODILATION)

""DISTRIBUTED DILATION""
" EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Edema}} is the presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area. EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Homeostasis}} is a balance of all systems of the body.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Hypovolemic shock}} is a condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion. (Ie; VOLUME DEPLETION)
"
" EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Myocardial contractility}} is the ability of the heart muscle to contract.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Neurogenic shock}} is circulatory failure caused by paralysis of the nerves that control the size of the blood vessels, leading to widespread dilation; seen in patients with spinal cord injuries.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Obstructive shock}} is shock that occurs when there is a block to blood flow in the heart or great vessels, causing an insufficient blood supply to the body’s tissues.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Perfusion}} is the flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.
EMS_Ch12 A {{c1::pericardial effusion}} is a collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium. EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Preload}} is the precontraction pressure in the heart as the volume of blood builds up.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Psychogenic shock}} is shock caused by a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the brain that causes fainting (syncope).
EMS_Ch12 A {{c1::pulmonary embolism}} is a blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung causing obstruction of blood flow. EMS_Ch12 The {{c1::pulse pressure}} is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. "
" EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Sensitization}} is the process of developing a sensitivity to a substance that initially caused no allergic reaction.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Septic shock}} is shock caused by severe infection, usually a bacterial infection.
EMS_Ch12 {{c1::Shock}} is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to enable every body part to perform its function;  also called hypoperfusion.
EMS_Ch12 The {{c1::abdominal-thrust maneuver}} is the preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver. EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Active compression-decompression CPR}} is a technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression); may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart, and thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase.
EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Basic life support (BLS)}} is noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Cardiopulmonary resuscitation}} is the combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.  
EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Chest compression fraction}} is the total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed. 
EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Hyperventilation}} is the rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return, and hypotension when associated with BVM use.
EMS_Ch13 An {{c1::impedance threshold device}} is a valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-valve mask that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.
EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Ischemia}} is a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.
EMS_Ch13 A {{c1::load-distributing band}} is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax. EMS_Ch13 A {{c1::mechanical piston device}} is a device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard. EMS_Ch13 A {{c1::return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)}} is the return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.   EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Rigor mortis}} is the stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.
EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Dependent lividity}} is blood settling to the lowest point of the body; causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
EMS_Ch13 {{c1::Epidemic}} occurs when new cases of a disease in a human population substantially exceed the number expected based on recent experience.   
EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Herpes simplex}} is a common virus that is asymptomatic in 80% of people carrying it, but characterized by small blisters on the lips or genitals in symptomatic infections. EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Index of suspicion}} is the awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist.
EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Influenza}} is a virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and infected humans and that kills thousands of people every year.
EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Medical emergencies}} are emergencies that are not caused by an outside force; illnesses or conditions.
EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Meningitis}} is an inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord; it is usually caused by a virus or a bacterium.
"" EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Meningococcal meningitis}} is an inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord; can be highly contagious.
EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)}} is a bacterium that can cause infections in different parts of the body and is often resistant to commonly used antibiotics; it is transmitted by different routes, including the respiratory route, and can be found on the skin, in surgical wounds, in the bloodstream, in the lungs, and urinary tract. EMS_Ch14 A {{c1::pandemic}} is an outbreak that occurs on a global scale. EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Trauma emergencies}} are emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to the body.
EMS_Ch14 {{c1::Virulence}} is the strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease.
EMS_Ch14 While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of {{c1::100 to 120}}/min to a depth of at least {{c2::2}} inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression EMS_Ch13 What population is most likely to present with atypical or unusual signs and symptoms than any other patient population for an AMI? Eldery females with diabetes EMS_Randos .... is a disorganized, ineffective quivering of the heart muscle. No blood is pumped through the body and the patient is pulseless.  Ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib) EMS_Randos Regarding cardiac arrest and ventricular fibrillation, for each minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of survival decreases by as much as {{c1::10}}%. EMS_Randos Stroke, respiratory failure, and myocardial infarction can all cause cardiac arrest in the adult, but a {{c1::cardiac dysrhythmia}} is the most common cause (such as V-fib). EMS_Randos {{c1::Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)}} is any organized cardiac rhythm, slow or fast, that does not produce a palpable pulse
EMS_Randos Regardless of whether a patient's cardiac arrest is witnessed or unwitnessed, the single most important initial treatment is {{c1::high-quality CPR}}. EMS_Randos The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle is to  form a general impression of the child without touching him or her. EMS_Randos If the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck (nuchal cord), the EMT should: make one attempt to gently remove the cord from around its neck. If this is unsuccessful, clamp and cut the cord and continue with the delivery.  EMS_Randos {{c1::Abruptio placenta}} is the premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus. EMS_Ch33 The ... is the fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. Amniotic sac EMS_Ch33 ... describes a condition in which the patient has too few red blood cells, resulting in a decreased ability to transport oxygen throughout the body via the bloodstream.
Anemia EMS_Ch33 The {{c1::apgar score}} is a scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas. EMS_Ch33 The vagina and cervix are the components of the {{c1::birth canal.}} EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::bloody show}} is a small amount of blood in the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and may include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate. EMS_Ch33 A delivery in which the buttocks come out first is called a {{c1::breech presentation.}} EMS_Ch33 The {{c1::cervix}} is the narrowest portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina. EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Crowning}} is the appearance of the fetus’s head at the vaginal opening during labor.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Eclampsia}} is severe hypertension in a pregnant woman, resulting in seizures (convulsions).
EMS_Ch33 An {{c1::ectopic pregnancy}} is a pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, typically in a fallopian tube. EMS_Ch33 The {{c1::embryo stage}} is the early stage of development after the fertilization of the egg (first 10 weeks). EMS_Ch33 The {{c1::endometrium}} is the lining of the inside of the uterus. "" EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Fetal alcohol syndrome}} is a condition caused by the consumption of alcohol by a pregnant woman; characterized by growth and physical problems, mental retardation, and a variety of congenital abnormalities.
EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::fetus}} is the developing, unborn infant inside the uterus, from 10 weeks after fertilization until birth. EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::fundus}} is the dome-shaped top of the uterus. EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Gestational diabetes}} is diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before pregnancy.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Lightening}} is the movement of the fetus down into the pelvis late in pregnancy.
"" EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::limb presentation}} is a delivery in which the presenting part is a single arm or leg. EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Meconium}} is fetal stool. When appearing as a dark green material in the amniotic fluid, it can indicate distress or disease in the newborn; it can be aspirated into the fetus’s lungs during delivery.
"" EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::miscarriage}} is the spontaneous passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; also called spontaneous abortion. EMS_Ch33 The term {{c1::multigravida}} is used to describe a woman who has had previous pregnancies.
EMS_Ch33 The {{c1::nuchal cord}} is an umbilical cord that is wrapped around the fetus’s neck. EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::placenta}} is the tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord. EMS_Ch33 The {{c1::perineum}} is the area between the vagina and anus in a woman. EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Placenta previa}} is a condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix.
"
" EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Preeclampsia}} is a pregnancy complication that is characterized by high blood pressure, headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy-induced hypertension or toxemia of pregnancy.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Pregnancy-induced hypertension}} is a condition of late pregnancy that is characterized by headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia or toxemia of pregnancy.
EMS_Ch33 A {{c1::presentation}} is the position in which an infant is born; defined by the part of the body that appears first. EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Primagravida}} is a woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Prolapse of the umbilical cord}} is a situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the fetus.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Spina bifida}} is a developmental defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Supine hypotensive syndrome}} is low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the woman is supine.
"" EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Term gestation}} is a pregnancy that has reached full term, between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, 6 days.
EMS_Ch33 An {{c1::umbilical cord}} is the structure that connects the pregnant woman to the fetus via the placenta; contains two arteries and one vein. EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Venix caseosa}} is a white, cheesy substance that covers the body of the fetus.
EMS_Ch33 {{c1::Vertex presentation}} is a delivery in which the head of the newborn comes out first.
EMS_Ch33 An {{c1::apparent life-threatening event}} is an event that causes unresponsiveness, cyanosis, and apnea in an infant, who then resumes breathing with stimulation. EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Blanch}} is a term that means to turn white.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Bradypnea}} is a slow respiratory rate; in a child it is an ominous sign that indicates impending respiratory arrest.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Bronchiolitis}} is the inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 years and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Central pulses}} are pulses that are closest to the core (central) part of the body where the vital organs are located; include the carotid, femoral, and apical pulses.
EMS_Ch34 A {{c1::generalized seizure}} is a seizure that features rhythmic back-and-forth motion of an extremity and body stiffness, or extreme twitching of all of the body’s muscles, that may last several minutes or more; formerly known as a grand mal seizure. EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Grunting}} is an “uh” sound heard during exhalation; reflects the child’s attempt to keep the alveoli open; a sign of increased work of breathing.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Infancy}} is the first year of life.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Length-based resuscitation tape}} is a tape used to estimate an infant or child’s weight on the basis of length; appropriate drug doses and equipment sizes are listed on the tape.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Neisseria meninitides}} is a form of bacterial meningitis characterized by rapid onset of symptoms, often leading to shock and death.
EMS_Ch34 The {{c1::pediatric assessment triangle}} is a structured assessment tool used to rapidly form a general impression of the infant or child without touching him or her; consists of assessing appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin. "" EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Pertussis}} is an airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years, in which the patient is feverish and exhibits a “whoop” sound on inspiration after a coughing attack; highly contagious through droplet infection. Also called whooping cough.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Shaken baby syndrome}} is a syndrome seen in abused infants and children; the patient has been subjected to violent, whiplash-type shaking injuries inflicted by the abusing individual that may cause coma, seizures, and increased intracranial pressure due to tearing of the cerebral veins with consequent bleeding into the brain.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Sudden infant death syndrome}} is the death of an infant or young child that remains unexplained after a complete autopsy.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Tracheitis}} is the inflammation of the trachea.
EMS_Ch34 {{c1::Abdominal aortic aneurysm}} is a rapidly fatal condition in which the walls of the aorta in the abdomen weaken and blood leaks into the layers of the vessel, causing it to bulge.
EMS_Ch35 An {{c1::aneurysm}} is an abnormal enlargement of a part of an artery, resulting from weakening of the arterial wall. EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Ascites}} is fluid in the abdomen.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Cataracts}} is a term for clouding of the lens of the eye or its surrounding transparent membranes.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Decubitus ulcers}} are sores caused by the pressure of skin against a surface for long periods; can range from a pink discoloration of the skin to a deep wound that may invade into bone or organs; also known as bedsores.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Deep venous thrombosis}} is the formation of a blood clot within the larger veins of an extremity, typically following a period of prolonged immobilization.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Dementia}} is the slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function; this condition is generally chronic and irreversible.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Jugular vein distention}} is a visual bulging of the jugular veins in the neck that can be caused by fluid overload, pressure in the chest, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Kyphosis}} is a forward curling of the back caused by an abnormal increase in the curvature of the spine.
"" EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Neuropathy}} is a group of conditions in which the nerves leaving the spinal cord are damaged, resulting in distortion of signals to or from the brain.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Osteoporosis}} is a generalized bone disease, commonly associated with postmenopausal women, in which there is a reduction in the amount of bone mass leading to fractures after minimal trauma in either sex.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Peptic ulcer disease}} is an abrasion of the stomach or small intestine.
"" EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Presbycusis}} is an age-related condition of the ear that produces progressive bilateral hearing loss that is most noted at higher frequencies.
EMS_Ch35 A {{c1::pulmonary embolism}} is a condition that causes a sudden blockage of the pulmonary artery by a venous clot. EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Respiratory syncytial virus}} is a highly contagious virus that causes an infection of the upper and lower respiratory system.
EMS_Ch35 {{c1::Autism spectrum disorder}} is a group of complex disorders of brain development, characterized by difficulties in social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and verbal and nonverbal communication.
EMS_Ch36 {{c1::Cerebral palsy}} is a group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement.
EMS_Ch36 A {{c1::colostomy}} is a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the colon and the surface of the body. EMS_Ch36 {{c1::Conductive hearing loss}} is hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sound waves.
EMS_Ch36 {{c1::Developmental disability}} is the insufficient development of the brain, resulting in some level of dysfunction or impairment.
EMS_Ch36 {{c1::Down syndrome}} is a genetic chromosomal defect that can occur during fetal development and that results in intellectual impairment as well as certain physical characteristics, such as a round head with a flat occiput and slanted, wide-set eyes.
EMS_Ch36 An {{c1::ileostomy}} is a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the colon and the surface of the body. EMS_Ch36 {{c1::Sensorineural deafness}} is a permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear.
EMS_Ch36 {{c1::Shunts}} are tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain, such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain.
EMS_Ch36 A {{c1::stoma}} is an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure. EMS_Ch36 A {{c1::urostomy}} is a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) that connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall. EMS_Ch36 DCAP-BTLS
D:{{c1::Deformities}}
C:{{c2::Contusions}}
A:{{c3::Abraisions}}
P:{{c4::Punctures/Penetrations}}
B:{{c5::Burns}}
T:{{c6::Tenderness}}
L:{{c7::Lacerations}}
S:{{c8::Swelling}}
EMS_Lab In order to call a trauma alert, you need {{c1::1 red criteria}}, {{c2::2 blue criteria}} or {{c3::ejection from a vehicle.}} EMS_Lab Active airway assist (OPA/NPA/BVM) or advanced airway is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Lack of radial pulse with a heart rate of greater than {{c1::120}} is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab A blood pressure less than {{c1::90}} is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, A GCS less than {{c1::12}} is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab A score of or less than {{c1::4}} in motor response on the GCS index is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Paralysis / loss of sensation / suspected spinal injury is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Partial and/or full thickness burns that take up {{c1::15}}% or more of the body surface area is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, An amputation proximal to the wrist or ankle is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Penetration to the head / neck / torso is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab Two or more long bone fracture sites is a code {{c1::red}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Age {{c1::55}} or older is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Pulse rates at {{c1::30}} or greater is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab Heart rates at {{c2::120}} or greater is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab A score of {{c1::5}} in motor response on the GCS index is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab An avulsion greater than {{c1::4}} inches in length is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, A gunshot wound to extremities is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab A single long bone fracture due to a fall at or greater than {{c1::10}} feet is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab A single long bone fracture due to MVA is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab In a Trauma Alert, Ejection from a motor vehicle (not motorcycle) is a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab If a steering wheel is deformed by a patient, this is considered a code {{c1::blue}} criteria. EMS_Lab Burns: First degree burns are also called {{c1::superficial}} burns and are {{c3::red}} in color with no {{c2::blistering}}. EMS_Lab Burns: Second degree burns are also called {{c1::deep, partial thickness}} burns and are {{c3::red}} in color with {{c2::blistering}}. EMS_Lab Burns: Third degree burns are also called {{c1::full thickness}} burns and are {{c3::yellow and white}} in color with no {{c2::blistering}} and some {{c4::charring}}. EMS_Lab Rule of Nines (Provide a percentage):
Head: {{c6::Front 4.5%, Back 4.5%}}
Arms: {{c5::Each Arm 9%}}
Chest:{{c4::Upper Chest 9%, Lower Chest 9%}}
Back: {{c3::Upper Back 9%, Lower Back 9%}}
Legs: {{c2:: Each Front Leg 9%, Each Back Leg 9%}}
Genitalia: {{c1::1%}}
EMS_Lab A {{c1::traction}} splint is only used in the case of closed {{c2::femur}} fractures. "" EMS_Lab A {{c1::SAM}} splint can be used on any joint, regardless of whether it is a closed or open fracture. "" EMS_Lab Always check {{c1::pulse, motor and sensation}} before and after applying a splint. EMS_Lab Always use a {{c1::cervical collar}} for MVA, beck pain or back pain. EMS_Lab In situations of trauma, vital signs should be checked: en route and never at the scene. EMS_Lab "[Trauma] Patient Assessment Order:
1. {{c1::Scene Safe/ BSI / PPE}}
2. {{c2::NOI}}
3. {{c3::# of Patients}}
4. {{c4::Request Additional Resources}}
5. {{c5::Consider C-Spine}}
6. {{c6::What is my general impression?}}
7. {{c7::AVPU}}
8. {{c8::""What seems to be the problem?""}}
9. {{c9::Determine Chief Compaint & Life Threats}}
10. {{c10::ABCs}}
10a. A: {{c11::Airway patent?}}
10b. B: {{c12::Check RRQ Lung Sounds}}
10c. C: {{c13::Check RRQ Pulse, Check Skin, Control major bleeding (if present)}}
11. {{c14::Shock Management (Position Properly & Conserve Body Heat)}}
12. {{c15::Rapid Trauma Assessment}}
13. {{c16::Transport (verbalize ""trauma patient / trauma alert"")}}
14. {{c18::Focused Assessment}}
15. {{c17::Vitals}}
16. {{c19::SAMPLE}}
17. {{c20::Reassessment}}
" EMS_Lab Rapid Trauma Assessment:
**Expose Patient and Look for {{c14::Life Threats}}**
✓ for {{c1::DCAP-BTLS}}
1. {{c2::✓ Back of Head & Face}}
2. {{c15::✓ Eyes PERRL?}}
3. {{c4::✓ Neck - JVD? Tracheal Deviation?}}
4. {{c13::✓Clavicle - in place?}}
5. {{c6::✓ Chest - crepitus? stability? equal chest rise and fall?}}
6.{{c8:: ✓ Abdomen - guarding? rigid? gastrodistention?}}
8. {{c9::✓ Pelvis - press in and down. stability? rocking? swelling crepitus? priapism?}}
9. {{c10::✓ Long Bone (Femurs) - swelling? PMS in feet?}}
10. {{c11::✓  Long Bone (Arms) - PMS in hands?}}
11. {{c12::✓ Back & Glutes (during backboard move)}}
EMS_Lab Rigidness or gastrodistention in the abdomen is indicative of {{c1::internal bleeding.}} EMS_Lab If the pelvis is unstable, apply a {{c1::pelvic binder}}. EMS_Lab Priapism is indicative of {{c1::spinal injury.}} EMS_Lab JVD indicates {{c1::pressure build up}} and {{c2::right}} sided heart failure. EMS_Lab A swollen femur indicates a {{c1::fracture.}} EMS_Lab Always check {{c1::PMS}} before and after {{c2::splinting.}} EMS_Lab Seconary Assesment:
1. ✓ {{c1::Head - scalp and ears (Battle signs? CSF?)}}
2. ✓ {{c2::Face - nose, mouth, eyes (PERRL?)}}
3. ✓ {{c3::Neck - JVD, Tracheal deviation?}}
4. ✓ {{c4::Chest - palpate/auscultate}}
5. ✓ {{c5::Abdomen/Pelvis - palpate, priapism?}}
6. ✓ {{c6::Legs - PMS, splint}}
7. ✓ {{c7::Arms - PMS, splint}}
EMS_Lab In the case of impaled eyes, you should remember to {{c1::wrap both eyes.}} EMS_Lab In cases of an evisceration, apply {{c1::wet sterile dressing}} and cover with an {{c2::occlusive dressing.}} EMS_Lab Open chest wounds require an {{c1::occlusive dressing}} taped on 3 sides. EMS_Lab Altered mental status and unequal or fixed pupils are signs of {{c1::intracranial pressure (ICP) }} and should be treated with hyperventilation with BVM.
EMS_Lab {{c1::cCerebrospinal fluid (CSF}} drainage from the ears can indicate a skull fracture or brain damage.
EMS_Lab Focused Trauma Assessment:
1. {{c2::✓ Head: ears/mouth - battle signs? halo?}}
2. {{c15::✓ Eyes PERRL?}}
3. {{c4::✓ Neck - JVD? Tracheal Deviation?}}
4. {{c13::✓Clavicle - in place?}}
5. {{c6::✓ Chest - crepitus? stability? equal chest rise and fall?}}
6.{{c8:: ✓ Abdomen - guarding? rigid? gastrodistention?}}
8. {{c9::✓ Pelvis - press in and down. Do not check if injured.}}
9. {{c10::✓ Long Bone (Femurs) - swelling? PMS in feet?}}
10. {{c11::✓  Long Bone (Arms) - PMS in hands?}}

EMS_Lab "Glawgow Coma Scale (GCS): [EVM]
1. {{c5::Eye Opening}}

S: {{c1::""So"" - Spontaneous - 4}}
S: {{c2::""Soft"" - Sound - 3}}
P: {{c3::""Prince"" - Pressure - 2 }}
N : {{c4::""Nose"" - None - 1}}
" EMS_Lab "Glawgow Coma Scale (GCS): [EVM]
2. {{c6::Verbal Response}}

O - {{c1::""Owls"" - Oriented - 5}}
C - {{c2::""Can"" - Confused - 4}}
W - {{c3::""Wait"" - Words - 3}}
S - {{c4::""So"" - Sound -2}}
N - {{c5::""Nicely"" - None - 1}}
" EMS_Lab "Glawgow Coma Scale (GCS): [EVM]
3. {{c1::Motor Response}}

O - {{c2::""Oliver"" - Obeys Commands -6}}
L - {{c3::""Lands"" - Localising - 5}}
N - {{c4::""No"" - Normal Flexion - 4}}
A - {{c5::""Ass"" - Abnormal Flexion- 3}}
E - {{c6::""Every"" - Extension - 2}}
N - {{c7::""Night"" - None - 1}}


" EMS_Lab "Glawgow Coma Scale (GCS): [EVM]

E - {{c1::""Every"" - EyeOpening}}
V - {{c2::""Villian"" - Verbal Response}}
M - {{c3::""Melts"" - Motor Response}}
" EMS_Lab AA Alcoholics Anonymous, African American abbreviations A-a Alveolar Arterial gradient abbreviations AAA Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm abbreviations AB Antibody, also Abortion abbreviations ABC airway, breathing, circulation 05 abbreviations terminology ABG Arterial Blood Gas abbreviations ABI Ankle Brachial Index abbreviations ABPA Allergic Broncho Pulmonary Aspergillosis abbreviations ABX Antibiotics abbreviations ac before meals 05 abbreviations terminology ACE-I Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor abbreviations ACL Anterior Cruciate Ligament abbreviations ACLS advanced cardiac life support 05 abbreviations terminology ACS Acute Coronary Syndrome abbreviations ad lib as desired 05 abbreviations terminology ADA American Diabetes Association abbreviations ADE Adverse Drug Effect abbreviations ADL activities of daily living 05 abbreviations terminology ADR Adverse Drug Reaction abbreviations ADTP Alcohol and Drug Treatment Program abbreviations AED Automatic External Defibrillator, Anti-Epileptic Drug abbreviations AFB Acid Fast Bacterium abbreviations AFP α-fetoprotein abbreviations AGN Antigen abbreviations AI Aortic Insufficiency abbreviations AIDS Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome 05 abbreviations terminology AIN Acute Interstitial Nephritis abbreviations AK Actinic Keratosis abbreviations AKA Above Knee Amputation abbreviations ALL Allergies, also Acute Lymphoblastic (Lymphocytic) Leukemia abbreviations ALS Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis, also Advanced Life Support abbreviations AMA Against Medical Advice, American Medical Association, antimitochondrial antibody abbreviations AMD Aging Macular Degeneration abbreviations AMI Acute Myocardial Infarction, Anterior Myocardial Infarction abbreviations A-MIBI Adenosine MIBI abbreviations AML Acute Myelogenous (Myeloid) Leukemia abbreviations AMS Altered Mental Status, Acute Mountain Sickness abbreviations ANC Absolute Neutrophil Count abbreviations AND Axillary Node Dissection abbreviations ANGIO Angiography abbreviations A&O Alert And Oriented abbreviations AP Anterior-Posterior abbreviations A&P anatomy and physiology 05 abbreviations terminology APC Atrial Premature Contraction abbreviations APD Afferent Pupillary Defect abbreviations APPY Appendectomy abbreviations APS Adult Protective Services abbreviations ARB Angiotensin Receptor Blocker abbreviations ARDS Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome abbreviations ARF Acute Renal Failure abbreviations AS Aortic Stenosis, also Anklyosing Spondylitis abbreviations ASA Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin), anterior spinal artery abbreviations ASD Atrial Septal Defect abbreviations ASU Ambulatory Surgery Unit abbreviations ATN Acute Tubular Necrosis abbreviations A/V Nicking Arteriolar/Venous Nicking abbreviations A/V Ratio Arteriolar/Venous Ratio abbreviations AVF Arterio-Venous Fistula abbreviations AVM Arterial Venous Malformation abbreviations AVN Avascular Necrosis, Atrio-Ventricular abbreviations AVNRT Atrio-Ventricular Nodal Reentrant Tachycardia abbreviations AVR Aortic Valve Replacement abbreviations AVSS Afebrile, Vital Signs Stable abbreviations B Bilateral abbreviations B&C Board and Care abbreviations BAE Barium Enema abbreviations BBB Bundle Branch Block abbreviations BCC Basal Cell Carcinoma abbreviations BCG Bacille Calmette-Guerin abbreviations BDR Background Diabetic Retinopathy abbreviations BE Bacterial Endocarditis, also Barium Enema abbreviations BET Benign Essential Tremor abbreviations BIB Brought In By abbreviations BID Twice a Day abbreviations BIPAP Bi-Level Positive Airway Pressure abbreviations BIVAD Bi-Ventricular Assist Device abbreviations BKA Below Knee Amputation abbreviations BL CX Blood Culture abbreviations BM Bone Marrow, also Bowel Movement, Basement Membrane abbreviations BMI Body Mass Index abbreviations BMT Bone Marrow Transplant abbreviations BP Blood Pressure, Bisphosphonate abbreviations BPD Borderline Personality Disorder, also Bi-Polar Disorder and Broncho-Pulmonary Dysplasia abbreviations BPV Benign Positional Vertigo abbreviations BR Bed Rest abbreviations BRAO Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion abbreviations BRB Bright Red Blood abbreviations BRBPR Bright Red Blood Per Rectum abbreviations BRP Bathroom Privileges abbreviations BRVO Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion abbreviations BS blood sugar <br> breath sounds <br> bowel sounds <br> bachelor of science (degree) 05 abbreviations terminology BSA Body Surface Area abbreviations BUN Blood Urea Nitrogen abbreviations BX Biopsy abbreviations C With abbreviations CABG Coronary Artery By-Pass Graft abbreviations CAD Coronary Artery Disease abbreviations CAP Prostate Cancer, Community Acquired Pneumonia abbreviations CARDS Cardiology abbreviations CAT Cataract abbreviations CATH Catheterization abbreviations CB Cerebellar abbreviations C/B Complicated By abbreviations CBC Complete Blood Count abbreviations CBD Common Bile Duct, Closed Bag Drainage abbreviations CBI Continuous Bladder Irrigation abbreviations CC Chief Complaint abbreviations CCB Calcium Channel Blocker abbreviations CCC Central Corneal Clouding abbreviations CCK Cholycystectomy abbreviations CCE Clubbing, Cyanosis, Edema abbreviations C/D Cup to Disk ratio abbreviations CDI Clean Dry Intact abbreviations C DIF Clostridium Difficile abbreviations CEA Carcinoembryonic Antigen abbreviations Chemo Chemotherapy abbreviations CHI Closed Head Injury abbreviations CHF Congestive Heart Failure abbreviations Choly Cholycystectomy abbreviations CI Cardiac Index abbreviations CIC Clean Intermittent Catheterization abbreviations CIDP Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy abbreviations CK Creatinine Kinase abbreviations CL Chloride abbreviations CLL Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia abbreviations CM Cardiomegaly abbreviations CML Chronic Myelogenous (Myeloid) Leukemia abbreviations CMP Cardiomyopathy abbreviations CMR Chief Medical Resident abbreviations CMT Cervical Motion Tenderness, Charcot Marie Tooth abbreviations CMV Cyto-Megalo Virus abbreviations CN Cranial Nerves abbreviations CNIS Carotid Non-Invasive Study abbreviations CNS Central Nervous System abbreviations CO carbon monoxide, cardiac output abbreviations C/O Complains Of abbreviations COPD Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease abbreviations COX 2 Cyclooxygenase 2 abbreviations CPAP Continuous Positive Airway Pressure abbreviations CPP Cerebral Perfusion Pressure abbreviations CPPD Calcium Pyrophosphate Disease abbreviations CPR Cardiopulmonary Resucitation abbreviations CPS Child Protective Services abbreviations CPU Chest Pain Unit abbreviations CRAO Central Retinal Artery Occlusion abbreviations CRFs Cardiac Risk Factors abbreviations CRI Chronic Renal Insufficiency abbreviations CRP C Reactive Protein abbreviations CRVO Central Retinal Vein Occlusion abbreviations CSF Cerebral Spinal Fluid abbreviations CT computed tomography Scan, also Chest Tube and Cardio-Thoracic abbreviations CTA Clear To Auscultation abbreviations CVA Cerebral Vascular Accident, Costovertebral Angle abbreviations CVL Central Venous Line abbreviations CVP Central Venous Pressure abbreviations C/W Consistent With, Compared With abbreviations CX Culture abbreviations CXR Chest X-Ray abbreviations D Diarrhea, also Disk abbreviations D5W Dextrose 5% in Water abbreviations DB Direct Bilirubin abbreviations DBP Diastolic Blood Pressure abbreviations DC Discharge, Discontinue, Doctor of Chiropractics abbreviations D&C Dilatation and Currettage abbreviations DCIS Ductal Carcinoma In Situ abbreviations DDX Differential Diagnosis abbreviations DF Dorsiflexion abbreviations DFA Direct Fluorescent Antibody abbreviations DFE Dilated Fundus Examination abbreviations DI Diabetes Insipidus, Detrusor Instability abbreviations DIC Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy abbreviations DIF Differential abbreviations DIP Distal Inter-Phalangeal abbreviations DJD Degenerative Joint Disease abbreviations DKA Diabetic Ketoacidosis abbreviations DM Diabetes Mellitus abbreviations DNI Do Not Intubate abbreviations DNR Do Not Resusitate abbreviations DO Doctor of Osteopathy abbreviations D/O Disorder abbreviations DOT Directly Observed Therapy abbreviations DOU Direct Observation Unit abbreviations DP Dorsalis Pedis abbreviations DPL Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage abbreviations DPOA Durable Power Of Attorney abbreviations DR Diabetic Retinopathy abbreviations DRE Digital Rectal Exam abbreviations D/T Due To abbreviations DTs Delirium Tremens abbreviations DTR Deep Tendon Reflex abbreviations DVT Deep Venous Thrombosis abbreviations DX Diagnosis abbreviations DU Duodenal Ulcer abbreviations EBL Estimated Blood Loss abbreviations EBM Evidence Based Medicine abbreviations EBRT External Beam Radiation Therapy abbreviations EBV Epstein Barr Virus abbreviations ECG Electrocardiogram (also known as EKG) abbreviations ECHO Echocardiography abbreviations ECMO Extra-Corporeal Membrane Oxygenation abbreviations ECT Electro-Convulsive Therapy abbreviations ED Erectile Dysfunction abbreviations EEG Electroencephalogram abbreviations EF Ejection Fraction (in reference to ventricular function) abbreviations EGD Esophago-Gastro Duodenoscopy abbreviations EIC Epidermal Inclusion Cyst abbreviations EJ External Jugular abbreviations EKG Electrocardiogram (also known as ECG) abbreviations EM Electron Microscopy abbreviations EMG Electromyelogram abbreviations EMS Emergency Medical System abbreviations EMT Emergency Medical Technician abbreviations E/O Evidence Of abbreviations EOMI Extra Ocular Muscles Intact abbreviations Eos Eosinophils abbreviations EPO Erythropoeitin abbreviations EPS Electro-Physiologic Study abbreviations ER External Rotation, also Emergency Room abbreviations ERCP Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-Pancreotography abbreviations ES Epidural Steroids abbreviations ESI Epidural Steroid Injection abbreviations ESLD End Stage Liver Disease abbreviations ESR Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate abbreviations ESRD End Stage Renal Disease abbreviations ESWL Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy abbreviations ETOH Alcohol abbreviations ETT Exercise Tolerance Test, also Endotracheal Tube abbreviations EWCL Extended Wear Contact Lens abbreviations EX LAP Exploratory Laparotomy abbreviations EX FIX External Fixation abbreviations EXT Extremities abbreviations FB Foreign Body abbreviations F/B Followed By abbreviations FBS Fasting Blood Sugar abbreviations FE Iron abbreviations FEM Femoral abbreviations FENA Fractional Excretion of Sodium abbreviations FEV1 Forced Expiratory Volume 1 Second abbreviations FFP Fresh Frozen Plasma abbreviations Flex Sig Flexible Sigmoidoscopy abbreviations FLU Influenza abbreviations FMG Foreign Medical Graduate abbreviations F&N Febrile and Neutropenic abbreviations FNA Fine Needle Aspiration abbreviations FOOSH Fall On Outstretched Hand abbreviations FOS Full of Stool, Force Of Stream abbreviations FP Family Practitioner abbreviations FRC Functional Residual Capacity abbreviations FSG Finger Stick Glucose abbreviations FSH Follicle Stimulating Hormone abbreviations FTT Failure To Thrive abbreviations F/U Follow-Up abbreviations FUO Fever of Unknown Origin abbreviations FX Fracture abbreviations G Guiac (followed by + or -) abbreviations GA General Anesthesia abbreviations GAD Generalized Anxiety Disorder abbreviations GAS Group A Strep, Guaiac All Stools abbreviations GB Gall Bladder, also Guillain Barre abbreviations GBM Glioblastoma Multiforme abbreviations GBS Group B Strep abbreviations GC Gonorrhea abbreviations GCS Glascow Coma Scale abbreviations GCSF Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor abbreviations GERD Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease abbreviations GERI Geriatrics abbreviations GET General Endotracheal abbreviations GI Gastrointestinal abbreviations GIB Gastrointestinal Bleeding abbreviations GLC Glaucoma abbreviations GMR Gallups, Murmurs, Rubs abbreviations GN Glomerulonephritis abbreviations GNR Gram Negative Rod abbreviations GOO Gastric Outlet Obstruction abbreviations GP General Practitioner abbreviations G#P# Gravida # Para # abbreviations GP 2b/3a Glycoprotein 2b/3a Inhibitor abbreviations GPC Gram Positive Coccus abbreviations GS Gram Stain abbreviations GSW Gun Shot Wound abbreviations GTT Glucose Tolerance Test abbreviations G-Tube Gastric Feeding Tube abbreviations GU Genito-Urinary, also Gastric Ulcer abbreviations GVHD Graft Versus Host Disease abbreviations H FLU Haemophilus Influenza abbreviations HA Headache abbreviations HAART Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy abbreviations HACE High Altitude Cerebral Edema abbreviations HAPE High Altitude Pulmonary Edema abbreviations H2 Histamine 2 abbreviations HCC Hepatocellular Carcinoma abbreviations HCG Human Chorionic Gonadotropin abbreviations HCL Hard Contact Lens abbreviations HCM Health Care Maintenance abbreviations HCT Hematocrit abbreviations HCV Hepatitis C Virus abbreviations HD Hemodialysis abbreviations HDL High Density Lipoprotein abbreviations HEENT Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, Throat abbreviations HELLP Hemolysis Elevated Liver tests Low Platelets abbreviations HEME/ONC Hematology/Oncology abbreviations HGB Hemoglobin abbreviations HH Hiatal Hernia abbreviations H&H Hemoglobin and Hematocrit abbreviations HI Homicidal Ideation abbreviations HIB Haemophilus Influenza B vaccine abbreviations HIT Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia abbreviations HIV Human Immunodeficiency Virus abbreviations HL Heparin Lock abbreviations HOB Head Of Bed abbreviations HOCM Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy abbreviations HOH Hard Of Hearing abbreviations HONK Hyperosmolar Non-Ketotic State abbreviations HPI History of Present Illness abbreviations HPV Human Papilloma Virus abbreviations HR Heart Rate abbreviations HRT Hormone Replacement Therapy abbreviations HS At Bedtime abbreviations HSM Holo-Systolic Murmur, also Hepato-Splenomegaly abbreviations HSP Henoch Shonlein Purpura abbreviations HSV Herpes Simplex Virus abbreviations HTN Hypertension abbreviations HU Holding Unit abbreviations HUS Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome abbreviations HX History abbreviations I+ With Ionic Contrast (in reference to a CAT Scan) abbreviations I- Without Ionic Contrast (in reference to a CAT Scan) abbreviations IA Intra-Articular abbreviations IABP Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump abbreviations IBD Inflammatory Bowel Disease abbreviations IBS Irritable Bowel Syndrome abbreviations IBW Ideal Body Weight abbreviations ICD Implantable Cardiac Defibrillator abbreviations ICH Intra-Cranial Hemorrhage abbreviations ICP Intra-Cranial Pressure abbreviations ID Infectious Diseases abbreviations I&D Incise and Drain abbreviations IDDM Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus abbreviations IFN Interferon abbreviations IH Inguinal Hernia (usually preceded by L or R) abbreviations IJ Internal Jugular abbreviations IL Interleukin, Indirect Laryngoscopy abbreviations ILD Interstitial Lung Disease abbreviations IM Intramuscular also Intramedullary abbreviations IMI Inferior Myocardial Infarction abbreviations IMP Impression abbreviations INR International Normalized Ratio abbreviations I&O Ins and Outs abbreviations IOL Intra-Ocular Lens abbreviations IOP Intra-Ocular Pressure abbreviations IP Inter-Phalangeal abbreviations IPF Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis abbreviations IR Interventional Radiology, Internal Rotation abbreviations IRB Indications Risks Benefits, Institutional Review Board abbreviations IT Intrathecal, Information Technology abbreviations ITP Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura abbreviations IUD Intrauterine Device abbreviations IUP Intrauterine Pregnancy abbreviations IV Intravenous abbreviations IVC Inferior Vena Cava abbreviations IVDU Intravenous Drug Use abbreviations IVF Intravenous Fluids, also In Vitro Fertilization abbreviations IVP Intravenous Pyelogram abbreviations JP Jackson Pratt abbreviations J-Tube Jejunal Feeding Tube abbreviations JVD Jugular Venous Distention abbreviations JVP Jugular Venous Pressure abbreviations K Potassium abbreviations KCAL Kilocalories abbreviations KUB Kidneys Ureters and Bladder abbreviations KVO Keep Vein Open abbreviations L Left, Liver abbreviations LA Left Atrium abbreviations LAC Laceration abbreviations LAD Left Anterior Descending (coronary artery), Left Axis Deviation abbreviations LAP Laproscopic, also Laparotomy abbreviations LAR Low Anterior Resection abbreviations LBBB Left Bundle Branch Block abbreviations LBO Large Bowel Obstruction abbreviations LBP Low Back Pain abbreviations LCL Lateral Collateral Ligament abbreviations LCX Left Circumflex (coronary artery) abbreviations L&D Labor and Delivery abbreviations LDH Lactate Dehydrogenase abbreviations LDL Low Density Lipoprotein abbreviations LE Lower Extremity (usually preceded by R or L), Leukocyte Esterase abbreviations LENIS Lower Extremity Non-Invasive Study abbreviations LFT Liver Function Test abbreviations LH Leutinizing Hormone, Left Handed, Light Headed abbreviations LHC Left Heart Cath abbreviations LHRH Leutinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone abbreviations LIMA Left Internal Mammary Artery abbreviations LLE Left Lower Extremity abbreviations LLL Left Lower Lobe, Left Lower Lid abbreviations LLQ Left Lower Quadrant abbreviations LM Left Main Coronary Artery, light microscopy abbreviations LMA Laryngeal Mask Airway abbreviations LMD Local Medical Doctor abbreviations LMN Lower Motor Neuron abbreviations LMP Last Menstrual Period abbreviations LN Lymph Node also Liquid Nitrogen abbreviations LND Lymph Node Dissection abbreviations LOA Lysis Of Adhesions abbreviations LOC Loss Of Consciousness abbreviations LP Lumbar Puncture abbreviations LPN Licensed Practical Nurse abbreviations LR Lactated Ringers abbreviations LS Lumbro-Sacral abbreviations LT Light Touch abbreviations LUE Left Upper Extremity abbreviations LUL Left Upper Lobe, also Left Upper Lid abbreviations LUTS Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms abbreviations LUQ Left Upper Quadrant abbreviations LV FXN Left Ventricular Function abbreviations LVAD Left Ventricular Assist Device abbreviations LVEDP Left Ventricular End Diastolic Pressure abbreviations LVH Left Ventricular Hypertrophy abbreviations LVN Licensed Vocational Nurse abbreviations LMWH Low Molecular Weight Heparin abbreviations LYTES Electrolytes abbreviations MAC Monitored Anesthesia Care abbreviations MCL Medial Collateral Ligament abbreviations MCP metacarpophalangeal [joint] abbreviations MCV Mean Corpuscular Volume abbreviations MDRTB Multi-Drug Resistant Tuberculosis abbreviations MEDS Medicines abbreviations MFM Maternal-Fetal Medicine abbreviations MI Myocardial Infarction abbreviations MICU Medical Intensive Care Unit abbreviations MIDCAB Minimally Invasive Direct Coronary Artery Bypass abbreviations MM Multiple Myeloma abbreviations M&M Morbidity and Mortality abbreviations MMP Multiple Medical Problems abbreviations MMR Measles, Mumps and Rubella vaccine abbreviations MOM Milk Of Magnesia abbreviations MR Mitral Regurgitation abbreviations MRCP Magnetic Resonance Cholangio Pancreatography abbreviations MRI Magnetic Resonance Imaging abbreviations MRSA Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus abbreviations MS Mental Status, also Mitral Stenosis, Multiple Sclerosis and Morphine Sulfate abbreviations MSSA Methicillin Sensitive Staph Aureus abbreviations MTP metatarsophalangeal [joint] abbreviations MVP Mitral Valve Prolapse abbreviations MVR Mitral Valve Replacement abbreviations N Nausea abbreviations NA Not Available, also Sodium abbreviations NAD No Apparent Distress, No Acute Disease abbreviations NABS Normal Active Bowel Sounds abbreviations NCAT Normocephalic Atraumatic abbreviations NCS Nerve Conduction Study abbreviations NEB Nebulizer abbreviations NGT Naso-Gastric Tube abbreviations NGU Non-Gonococcal Urethritis abbreviations NH Nursing Home abbreviations NHL Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma abbreviations NICU Neonatal Intensive Care Unit abbreviations NIDDM Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus abbreviations NIF Negative Inspiratory Force abbreviations NKDA No Known Drug Allergies abbreviations NMS Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome abbreviations NOS Not Otherwise Specified abbreviations NP Nurse Practitioner abbreviations NPO Nothing By Mouth abbreviations NS Normal Saline abbreviations NSBGP Non-Specific Bowel Gas Pattern abbreviations NSCLCA Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer abbreviations NSR Normal Sinus Rhythm abbreviations NT Non-Tender abbreviations NTD Nothing To Do abbreviations NUCS Nuclear Medicine abbreviations NYHA New York Heart Association abbreviations OA Osteoarthritis abbreviations OB Occult Blood (followed by '+' or '-') abbreviations OCD Obsessive Compulsive Disorder abbreviations OCP Oral Contraceptive Pill abbreviations OD Right Eye, Overdose abbreviations OE Otitis Externa abbreviations OLT Orthotopic Liver Transplant abbreviations OM Otitis Media abbreviations ON Optic Nerve, Over Night abbreviations OOB Out Of Bed abbreviations OP Opening Pressure abbreviations O/P Oropharynx abbreviations O&P Ovum and Parasites abbreviations ORIF Open Reduction with Internal Fixation abbreviations ORL Oto-Rhino Laryngology abbreviations OS Left Eye abbreviations OSA Obstructive Sleep Apnea abbreviations OT Occupational Therapy abbreviations OTC Over The Counter abbreviations OTD Out The Door abbreviations OU Both Eyes abbreviations O/W Otherwise abbreviations P Pulse, Pending, After abbreviations PA Posterior-Anterior, also Physician's Assistant, pulmonary artery abbreviations PACU Post Anesthesia Care Unit abbreviations PAD Peripheral Arterial Disease abbreviations PALS Pediatric Advanced Life Support abbreviations PBC Primary Billiary Cirrhosis abbreviations PC After Meals abbreviations PCA Patient Controlled Analgesia abbreviations PCI Percutaneous Coronary Intervention abbreviations PCKD Polycystic Kidney Disease abbreviations PCL Posterior Cruciate Ligament abbreviations PCM Pacemaker abbreviations PCOD Poly-Cystic Ovarian Disease abbreviations PCP Primary Care Physician, also Pneumocystis Pneumonia abbreviations PCR Polymerase Chain Reaction abbreviations PCWP Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure abbreviations PD Parkinson's Disease, also Personality Disorder and Peritoneal Dialysis abbreviations PDA Patent Ductus Arteriosus, posterior descending artery abbreviations PE Physical Exam, also Pulmonary Embolism abbreviations PEG Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy abbreviations PERRL Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light abbreviations PET Positron Emission Tomography abbreviations PF Peak Flow, also Plantar Flexion abbreviations PFO Patent Foramen Ovale abbreviations PFTs Pulmonary Function Tests abbreviations PH Pin Hole abbreviations PICC Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter abbreviations PICU Pediatric Intensive Care Unit abbreviations PID Pelvic Inflammatory Disease abbreviations PIH Pregnancy Induced Hypertension abbreviations PIP proximal interphalangeal [joint] abbreviations PLT Platelets abbreviations PMD Primary Medical Doctor abbreviations PMH Past Medical History abbreviations PMI Point of Maximum Impulse abbreviations PMN Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes (neutrophils) abbreviations PMRS Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Service abbreviations PN Progress Note abbreviations PNA Pneumonia abbreviations PNBX Prostate Needle Biopsy abbreviations PND Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea also Post Nasal Drip abbreviations PNS Peripheral Nervous System abbreviations PO Per Os (by mouth) abbreviations POP Popliteal abbreviations PP Pin Prick abbreviations PPD Purified Protein Derivative abbreviations PPH Primary Pulmonary Hypertension abbreviations PPI Proton Pump Inhibitor abbreviations PPN Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition abbreviations PPTL Post Partum Tubal Ligation abbreviations PR Per Rectum abbreviations PRBCs Packed Red Blood Cells abbreviations PRN "Refers to treatments which patient can receive on an ""as needed"" basis" abbreviations PSA Prostate Specific Antigen abbreviations PSC Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis abbreviations PSH Past Surgical History abbreviations PT Physical Therapy, Posterior Tibial, Prothrombin Time, Patient abbreviations PTA Prior To Admission, Peritonsilar Abscess abbreviations PTCA Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty abbreviations P-Thal Persantine Thallium abbreviations PTSD Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder abbreviations PTT Partial Thromboplastin Time abbreviations PTX Pneumothorax abbreviations PUD Peptic Ulcer Disease abbreviations PV Polycythemia Vera, Portal Vein abbreviations P VAX Pneumococcal Vaccination abbreviations PVC Premature Ventricular Contraction abbreviations PVD Peripheral Vascular Disease, Posterior Vitreous Detachment abbreviations PVR Post Void Residual abbreviations Q "Every (refers to a time interval...eg. if followed by 6, means ""Every 6 Hours"", if followed by AM, D, W, or M =s ""Every Morning Day, Week, or Month"" respectively)" abbreviations QHS Every Night abbreviations QID Four times per day abbreviations QNS Quantity Not Sufficient abbreviations QOD Every Other Day abbreviations R Right abbreviations RA Right Atrium abbreviations RAD Right Axis Deviation, also Reactive Airways Disease abbreviations R/B Referred By, Relieved By abbreviations RBBB Right Bundle Branch Block abbreviations RBC Red Blood Cell abbreviations RCA Right Coronary Artery abbreviations RCC Renal Cell Cancer abbreviations RCT Randomized Controlled Trial, Rotator Cuff Tear abbreviations RD Retinal Detachment, also Registered Dietician abbreviations RDI Respiratory Disturbance Index abbreviations RF Rheumatoid Factor, also Risk Factor abbreviations RFA Radio Frequency Ablation, Right Femoral Artery abbreviations RHC Right Heart Cath abbreviations RHD Rheumatic Heart Disease abbreviations Rheum Rheumatology abbreviations R/I Rule In abbreviations RIG Rabies Immunoglobulin abbreviations RIMA Right Internal Mammary Artery abbreviations RLE Right Lower Extremity abbreviations RLL Right Lower Lobe, also Right Lower Lid abbreviations RLQ Right Lower Quadrant abbreviations RML Right Middle Lobe abbreviations RNEF Radionuclide Ejection Fraction abbreviations R/O Rule Out abbreviations ROM Range Of Motion abbreviations ROMI Rule Out Myocardial Infarction abbreviations ROS Review Of Systems abbreviations RPGN Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis abbreviations RPLND Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection abbreviations RPR Rapid Plasma Reagin abbreviations RR Respiratory Rate abbreviations RRP Radical Retropubic Prostatectomy abbreviations RRR Regular Rate and Rhythm abbreviations RSD Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy abbreviations RSV Respiratory Syncytial Virus abbreviations RT Respiratory Therapy abbreviations RTC Return To Clinic abbreviations RUE Right Upper Extremity abbreviations RUG Retrograde Urethrogram abbreviations RUL Right Upper Lobe, Right Upper Lid abbreviations RUQ Right Upper Quadrant abbreviations RV Right Ventricle, Residual Volume abbreviations RVAD Right Ventricular Assist Device abbreviations RVG Right Ventriculogram abbreviations RVR Rapid Ventricular Response abbreviations RX Treatment abbreviations S Without abbreviations 2/2 Secondary To abbreviations SA Sino-Atrial, Staph Aureus abbreviations SAAG Serum Ascites Albumin Gradient abbreviations SAB Spontaneous Abortion abbreviations SAH Sub-Arachnoid Hemorrhage abbreviations SBE Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis abbreviations SBO Small Bowel Obstruction abbreviations SBP Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis, Systolic Blood Pressure abbreviations SC Subcutaneous abbreviations SCCA Squamous Cell Cancer abbreviations SCL Soft Contact Lens abbreviations SCLCA Small Cell Lung Cancer abbreviations SEM Systolic Ejection Murmur (with reference to cardiac exam) abbreviations SFA Superficial Femoral Artery abbreviations SFV Superficial Femoral Vein abbreviations SI Suicidal Ideation abbreviations SIADH Syndrome of Inappropriate [secretion of] Anti-Diuretic Hormone abbreviations SICU Surgical Intensive Care Unit abbreviations SIDS Sudden Infant Death Syndrome abbreviations SIRS Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome abbreviations SK Seborrheic Keratosis, also Streptokinase abbreviations SL Sublingual abbreviations SLE Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, also Slit Lamp Exam abbreviations SLR Straight Leg Raise abbreviations SNF Skilled Nursing Facility abbreviations S/P Status Post, also Supra Pubic abbreviations SPEP Serum Protein Electro-Pheresis abbreviations SPF Sun Protection Formula abbreviations SQ Subcutaneous abbreviations SSI Sliding Scale Insulin abbreviations SSRI Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor abbreviations STAT Immediately abbreviations STD Sexually Transmitted Disease abbreviations STS Soft Tissue Swelling abbreviations STX Stricture abbreviations SVC Superior Vena Cava abbreviations SVG Saphenous Vein Graft abbreviations SW Social Work, Stab Wound abbreviations SX Symptoms abbreviations SZR Seizure abbreviations T Temperature abbreviations T&A Tonsillectomy and Adenoidectomy abbreviations TAA Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm abbreviations TAB Threatened Abortion, also Therapeutic Abortion abbreviations TAH Total Abdominal Hysterectomy abbreviations TB Tuberculosis, Total Bilirubin abbreviations T&C Type and Cross abbreviations TCA Tricyclic Antidepressant abbreviations TC Current Temperature abbreviations TCC Transitional Cell Cancer abbreviations TD Tetanus and Diptheria Vaccination, Tardive Dyskinesia abbreviations TDWBAT Touch Down Weight Bearing As Tolerated abbreviations TFs Tube Feeds abbreviations TG Triglycerides abbreviations THA Total Hip Arthroplasty abbreviations THR Total Hip Replacement abbreviations TIA Transient Ischemic Attack abbreviations TIBC Total Iron Binding Capacity abbreviations TID Three times per day abbreviations TIPS Transvenous Intrahepatic Porto-Systemic Shunt abbreviations TKA Total Knee Arthroplasty abbreviations TKR Total Knee Replacement abbreviations TLC Triple Lumen Catheter, Total Lung Capacity abbreviations TM Tympanic Membrane, Maximum Temperature abbreviations TMJ Temporo-Mandibular Joint abbreviations TMN Tumor Metastases Nodes (universal tumor staging system) abbreviations TNF Tumor Necrosis Factor abbreviations TOA Tubo-Ovarian Abscess abbreviations TOX Toxicology abbreviations TOXO Toxoplasmosis abbreviations TP Total Protein abbreviations TPA Tissue Plasminogen Activator abbreviations TPN Total Parenteral Nutrition abbreviations TR Tricuspid Regurgitation abbreviations TRUS Transrectal Ultrasound abbreviations T&S Type and Screen abbreviations TSH Thyroid Stimulating Hormone abbreviations TTE Trans-Thoracic Echocardiogram abbreviations TTP Tender To Palpation, Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura abbreviations TURBT Transurethral Resection Bladder Tumor abbreviations TURP Transurethral Prostatectomy abbreviations TV Tidal Volume abbreviations TVC True Vocal Cord abbreviations TX Transfusion, Treatment abbreviations UA Urinalysis, also Uric Acid abbreviations UC Ulcerative Colitis abbreviations UCC Urgent Care Center abbreviations UCX Urine Culture abbreviations UDS Urodynamic Study abbreviations UE Upper Extremity (usually preceded by R or L) abbreviations UF Ultra Filtration abbreviations UFH Unfractionated Heparin abbreviations UMBO Umbillical abbreviations UMN Upper Motor Neuron abbreviations UNSA Unstable Angina abbreviations UO Urine Output abbreviations UPEP Urine Protein Electro-Pheresis abbreviations UPPP Uvulopalatopharyngeoplasty abbreviations URI Upper Respiratory Infection abbreviations US Ultrasound abbreviations UTD Up To Date abbreviations UTI Urinary Tract Infection abbreviations UV Ultraviolet abbreviations V Vomiting abbreviations VA Visual Acuity abbreviations VATS Video Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery abbreviations VAX Vaccine abbreviations VBAC Vaginal Birth After Cesearean Section abbreviations VBG Venous Blood Gas abbreviations VC Vital Capacity, Vocal Cord abbreviations VCUG Voiding Cysto-Urethrogram abbreviations VF Ventricular Fibrillation abbreviations VIP Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide abbreviations VP Ventriculo-Peritoneal abbreviations V&P Vagotomy and Pyloroplasty abbreviations VS Vital Signs abbreviations VSD Ventricular Septal Defect abbreviations VSS Vital Signs Stable abbreviations VT Ventricular Tachycardia abbreviations VWF Von Willebrand Factor abbreviations WBAT Weight Bearing As Tolerated abbreviations WBC White Blood Cells abbreviations WDWN Well Developed, Well Nourished abbreviations WNL Within Normal Limits abbreviations W/O Without abbreviations W/U Work-Up abbreviations X Except abbreviations XLR Crossed Leg Raise abbreviations XRT Radiation Therapy abbreviations ZE Zollinger Ellison abbreviations
TEE
Trans-Esophageal Echocardiogram abbreviations ā before 05 abbreviations terminology adduction Motion of a limb toward the midline. 05 terminology anterior The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position. 05 terminology apex (plural apices) The pointed extremity of a conical structure. 05 terminology bilateral A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline. 05 terminology deep Farther inside the body and away from the skin. 05 terminology distal Further from the trunk or nearer to the free end of the extremity. 05 terminology dorsal The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand. 05 terminology extension The straightening of a joint. 05 terminology flexion The bending of a joint. 05 terminology Fowler position An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised. 05 terminology inferior Below a body part or nearer to the feet. 05 terminology lateral Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline; also called outer structures. 05 terminology medial Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline; also called inner structures. 05 terminology palmar The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position. 05 terminology plantar The bottom surface of the foot. 05 terminology posterior The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position. 05 terminology prone Lying face down. 05 terminology proximal Closer to the trunk. 05 terminology quadrants Describes the sections of the abdominal cavity, in which two imaginary lines intersect at the umbilicus, dividing the abdomen into four equal areas. 05 terminology superficial Closer to or on the skin. 05 terminology superior Above a body part or nearer to the head. 05 terminology supine Lying face up. 05 terminology ventral The anterior surface of the body. 05 terminology AF, A-fib atrial fibrillation 05 abbreviations terminology AICD automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator 05 abbreviations terminology amb ambulatory 05 abbreviations terminology ant anterior 05 abbreviations terminology ASHD arterioscleroticatherosclerotic heart disease 05 abbreviations terminology BGL blood glucose level 05 abbreviations terminology bid/b.i.d/BID twice daily 05 abbreviations terminology BP, B/P blood pressure 05 abbreviations terminology BVM bag-valve mask 05 abbreviations terminology bx biopsy 05 abbreviations terminology CC, C/C chief complaint 05 abbreviations terminology CCU coronary care unit 05 abbreviations terminology C diff Clostridium difficile 05 abbreviations terminology cm centimeter 05 abbreviations terminology c/o complaining of 05 abbreviations terminology C02 carbon dioxide 05 abbreviations terminology COLD chronic obstructive lung disease 05 abbreviations terminology CP chest pain OR chemically pure OR cerebral palsy 05 abbreviations terminology CRNA certified registered nurse anesthetist 05 abbreviations terminology CRT capillary refill time OR cathode ray tube 05 abbreviations terminology DOA dead on arrival 05 abbreviations terminology DOE dyspnea on exertion 05 abbreviations terminology DON director of nursing 05 abbreviations terminology DPT diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine OR Doctor of Physical Therapy 05 abbreviations terminology DSD dry sterile dressing 05 abbreviations terminology DtaP diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine 05 abbreviations terminology DTP diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine 05 abbreviations terminology Dx diagnosis 05 abbreviations terminology EDC estimated date of confinement 05 abbreviations terminology ENT ears, nose, and throat 05 abbreviations terminology EOC Emergency Operations Center 05 abbreviations terminology ET, ETT endotracheal tube, endotracheal 05 abbreviations terminology ETA estimated time of arrival 05 abbreviations terminology ETCO2 end-tidal carbon dioxide 05 abbreviations terminology °F degrees Fahrenheit 05 abbreviations terminology Fio2 fraction of inspired oxygen 05 abbreviations terminology Fe iron 05 abbreviations terminology FHR fetal heart rate 05 abbreviations terminology FHx family history 05 abbreviations terminology fl, fid fluid 05 abbreviations terminology fx fracture 05 abbreviations terminology Gl gastrointestinal 05 abbreviations terminology gtt drop(s) 05 abbreviations terminology gyn gynecology 05 abbreviations terminology h hour 05 abbreviations terminology H&P history and physical 05 abbreviations terminology HBV hepatitis B virus 05 abbreviations terminology Hct hematocrit 05 abbreviations terminology H2O water 05 abbreviations terminology hr hour 05 abbreviations terminology Hx history 05 abbreviations terminology l&O intake and output 05 abbreviations terminology ICS incident command system OR intercostal space 05 abbreviations terminology ICU intensive care unit 05 abbreviations terminology IMS incident management system 05 abbreviations terminology IO intraosseous 05 abbreviations terminology IPPB intermittent positive pressure breathing 05 abbreviations terminology kg kilogram 05 abbreviations terminology L/M, LPM liters per minute 05 abbreviations terminology MAE moves all extremities 05 abbreviations terminology MAEW moves all extremities well 05 abbreviations terminology mg milligram 05 abbreviations terminology Ml myocardial infarction 05 abbreviations terminology min minute 05 abbreviations terminology mL milliliter 05 abbreviations terminology mm millimeter 05 abbreviations terminology mm Hg millimeters of mercury 05 abbreviations terminology MOI mechanism of injury 05 abbreviations terminology MVA motor vehicle accident 05 abbreviations terminology MVC motor vehicle crash 05 abbreviations terminology NA, N/A not applicable 05 abbreviations terminology NC nasal cannula 05 abbreviations terminology NG nasogastric 05 abbreviations terminology NKA no known allergies 05 abbreviations terminology NPA naso-pharyngeal airway 05 abbreviations terminology NRB, NRBM nonrebreathing mask 05 abbreviations terminology NTG nitroglycerin 05 abbreviations terminology N/V nausea and vomiting 05 abbreviations terminology N/V/D nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 05 abbreviations terminology O2 oxygen 05 abbreviations terminology OBS organic brain syndrome 05 abbreviations terminology OPA oropharyngeal airway 05 abbreviations terminology OR operating room 05 abbreviations terminology oz ounce 05 abbreviations terminology p̄ after 05 abbreviations terminology Pco2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide 05 abbreviations terminology PDR Physicians' Desk Reference 05 abbreviations terminology PEARL, PERL pupils equal and reactive to light 05 abbreviations terminology PEARLA pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation 05 abbreviations terminology PEARRL pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light 05 abbreviations terminology ped, peds pediatric 05 abbreviations terminology PEEP positive end expiratory pressure 05 abbreviations terminology po per os (by mouth) 05 abbreviations terminology psi pounds per square inch 05 abbreviations terminology PSVT paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia 05 abbreviations terminology Pt patient 05 abbreviations terminology q̄ every 05 abbreviations terminology Rh Rhesus blood factor OR rhodium 05 abbreviations terminology RN registered nurse 05 abbreviations terminology Rx prescription 05 abbreviations terminology s̄ without 05 abbreviations terminology Sao2 oxygen saturation 05 abbreviations terminology SOB shortness of breath 05 abbreviations terminology Spo2 saturation of peripheral oxygen 05 abbreviations terminology S/S, S&S signs and symptoms 05 abbreviations terminology stat immediately 05 abbreviations terminology STEMI ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction 05 abbreviations terminology subcut subcutaneous 05 abbreviations terminology SVT supraventricular tachycardia 05 abbreviations terminology sym, Sx symptoms 05 abbreviations terminology tab tablet 05 abbreviations terminology TBA to be admitted OR to be announced 05 abbreviations terminology tech technician OR technologist 05 abbreviations terminology tid/t.i.d/TID three times a day 05 abbreviations terminology Tx treatment 05 abbreviations terminology VD venereal disease 05 abbreviations terminology VRE vancomycin-resistant enterococcus 05 abbreviations terminology VT/V tach ventricular tachycardia 05 abbreviations terminology W/ with 05 abbreviations terminology WMD weapon of mass destruction 05 abbreviations terminology wt weight 05 abbreviations terminology x̄ except 05 abbreviations terminology AO X 4, A/O X 4  alert and oriented to person, place, time, and self 05 abbreviations terminology
BPM
beats per minute 05 abbreviations terminology
c̄
with 05 abbreviations terminology
°C
degrees Celsius (centigrade) 05 abbreviations terminology CA
cancer <br> cardiac arrest <br> chronologic age <br> coronary artery <br> cold agglutinin
05 abbreviations terminology HA, H/A headache 05 abbreviations terminology Hb, Hgb hemoglobin 05 abbreviations terminology VT/V tach
ventricular tachycardia
05 abbreviations terminology yo, y/o year old 05 abbreviations terminology