What is dyspnea? This is when a patient reports feeling short of breath or has difficulty breathing. This is when a patient reports feeling short of breath or has difficulty breathing. What is dyspnea? What structures make up the upper airway? This consists of the nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx. This consists of the nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx. What structures make up the upper airway? What divides the upper and lower airway? These are divided by the larnyx. These are divided by the larnyx. What divides the upper and lower airway? What is carbon dioxide retention? This is the failure of the respiratory center in the brain to respond normally to a rise in arterial levels of carbon dioxide. This is the failure of the respiratory center in the brain to respond normally to a rise in arterial levels of carbon dioxide. What is carbon dioxide retention? What is the hypoxic drive? This is a secondary drive which stimulates the respiratory center. This is a secondary drive which stimulates the respiratory center. What is the hypoxic drive? What is the normal breathing rate of an adult patient? This is 12-20 BPM. This is 12-20 BPM. What is the normal breathing rate of an adult patient? What are the signs and symptoms of asthma? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Wheezing on inspiration / expiration
Bronchospasm
Signs and symptoms of this include:
Wheezing on inspiration / expiration
Bronchospasm
What are the signs and symptoms of asthma? What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? Signs and symptoms include:
Flushed skin or hives
Generalized edema
Decreased blood pressure
Laryngeal edema with dyspnea
Signs and symptoms include:
Flushed skin or hives
Generalized edema
Decreased blood pressure
Laryngeal edema with dyspnea
What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? What are the signs and symptoms of bronchitis? Signs and symptoms include:
Chronic cough
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Productive cough
Signs and symptoms include:
Chronic cough
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Productive cough
What are the signs and symptoms of bronchitis? What are the signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? Signs and symptoms include:
Dependent edema
Rales
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Signs and symptoms include:
Dependent edema
Rales
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
What are the signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? What are the signs and symptoms of croup? Signs and symptoms include:
Fever
Barking cough
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
Signs and symptoms include:
Fever
Barking cough
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
What are the signs and symptoms of croup? What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema? Signs and symptoms include:
Barrel chest
Pursed lip breathing
Dyspnea on exertion
Signs and symptoms include:
Barrel chest
Pursed lip breathing
Dyspnea on exertion
What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema? What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia? Signs and symptoms include:
Dyspnea
Chills, fever
Cough
Dark sputum
Signs and symptoms include:
Dyspnea
Chills, fever
Cough
Dark sputum
What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia? What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax? Signs and symptoms include:
Sudden chest pain with dyspnea
Decreased lung sounds/affected side
Signs and symptoms include:
Sudden chest pain with dyspnea
Decreased lung sounds/affected side
What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax? What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism? Signs and symptoms include:
Sharp, pinpoint pain
Dyspnea
Sudden onset
After childbirth or surgery
Signs and symptoms include:
Sharp, pinpoint pain
Dyspnea
Sudden onset
After childbirth or surgery
What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism? What are the signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax? Signs and symptoms include:
Progressive shortness of breath
Increasing altered level of consciousness
Neck vein distention
Tracheal deviation
Signs and symptoms include:
Progressive shortness of breath
Increasing altered level of consciousness
Neck vein distention
Tracheal deviation
What are the signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax? What are the signs and symptoms of pertussis? "Signs and symptoms include:
Coughing spells
""Whooping"" sound
Fever
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
" "Signs and symptoms include:
Coughing spells
""Whooping"" sound
Fever
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
" What are the signs and symptoms of pertussis? As you treat patients with disorders of the lungs, what situations should you be aware of? While treating these kinds of patients, be aware of these situations:
Gas exchange between alveoli and pulmonary circulation is obstructed by fluid in the lung, infection, or collapsed alveoli (atelectasis)
The alveoli are damaged and cannot transport gases properly across their own walls
The air passages are obstructed by muscle spasm, mucus, or weakened floppy airway walls
Blood flow to the lungs is obstructed by blood clots
The pleural space is filled with air or excess fluid, so the lungs cannot properly expand
While treating these kinds of patients, be aware of these situations:
Gas exchange between alveoli and pulmonary circulation is obstructed by fluid in the lung, infection, or collapsed alveoli (atelectasis)
The alveoli are damaged and cannot transport gases properly across their own walls
The air passages are obstructed by muscle spasm, mucus, or weakened floppy airway walls
Blood flow to the lungs is obstructed by blood clots
The pleural space is filled with air or excess fluid, so the lungs cannot properly expand
As you treat patients with disorders of the lungs, what situations should you be aware of? What is atelectasis? This is the collapse of the alveolar space in the lungs. This is the collapse of the alveolar space in the lungs. What is atelectasis? What are the characteristics of bronchitis? Characteristics of this are:
An acute or chronic inflammation of the air passages (bronchi and bronchioles) often due to infection, usually associated with productive cough, and usually presents without fever
Accumulation of fluid within the air passages, as well as swelling of the walls, resticts air flow and may lead to signs of asthma such as wheezing. It is often associated with rhonchi. Crackles are not usually present unless pneumonia has developed.
The breathing pattern in bronchitis does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
Characteristics of this are:
An acute or chronic inflammation of the air passages (bronchi and bronchioles) often due to infection, usually associated with productive cough, and usually presents without fever
Accumulation of fluid within the air passages, as well as swelling of the walls, resticts air flow and may lead to signs of asthma such as wheezing. It is often associated with rhonchi. Crackles are not usually present unless pneumonia has developed.
The breathing pattern in bronchitis does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
What are the characteristics of bronchitis? What are the characteristics of the common cold? Characteristics of this are:
A viral infection usually associated with swollen nasal mucous membranes and the production of fluid from the sinuses and nose.
Dyspnea is not severe; patients complain of stuffiness of difficulty breathing through the nose.
Characteristics of this are:
A viral infection usually associated with swollen nasal mucous membranes and the production of fluid from the sinuses and nose.
Dyspnea is not severe; patients complain of stuffiness of difficulty breathing through the nose.
What are the characteristics of the common cold? What are the characteristics of TB? Characteristics of this are:
A disease that can lay dormant in a person's lungs for decades, then reactivate.
Dangerous because many TB strains are resistant to many antibiotics.
Spread by cough. Droplet nuclei can remain intact for decades.
Use a high-efficiency air particulate, or HEPA, respirator.
Characteristics of this are:
A disease that can lay dormant in a person's lungs for decades, then reactivate.
Dangerous because many TB strains are resistant to many antibiotics.
Spread by cough. Droplet nuclei can remain intact for decades.
Use a high-efficiency air particulate, or HEPA, respirator.
What are the characteristics of TB? What are the characteristics of diphtheria? Characteristics of this are:
Highly contagious and serious when it occurs
The formation of diphtheritic membrane lining the pharynx that is composed of debris, inflammatory cells, and mucus. This membrane can rapidly and severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.
Characteristics of this are:
Highly contagious and serious when it occurs
The formation of diphtheritic membrane lining the pharynx that is composed of debris, inflammatory cells, and mucus. This membrane can rapidly and severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.
What are the characteristics of diphtheria? What are the characteristics of pneumonia? Characteristics of this are:
An acute bacterial or viral infection of the lung that damages lung tissue, usually associated with fever, cough, and production of sputum.
Fluid also accumulates in the surrounding normal lung tissue, separating the alveoli from their capillaries (fluid can also accumulate in the pleural space).
The lung's ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired
The breathing pattern in pneumonia does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
Characteristics of this are:
An acute bacterial or viral infection of the lung that damages lung tissue, usually associated with fever, cough, and production of sputum.
Fluid also accumulates in the surrounding normal lung tissue, separating the alveoli from their capillaries (fluid can also accumulate in the pleural space).
The lung's ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired
The breathing pattern in pneumonia does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
What are the characteristics of pneumonia? What are the characteristics of epiglottitis? Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation of the epiglottis due to bacterial infection that can produce severe swelling of the flap over the larynx.
Can swell to two or three times its normal size, especially in young children.
The airway may become almost completely obstructed, sometimes quite suddenly.
Stridor (harsh, high-pitched, continued rough, barking inspiratory sounds) may be heard late in the development of airway obstruction.
Characterized in adults by a severe sore throat.
Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation of the epiglottis due to bacterial infection that can produce severe swelling of the flap over the larynx.
Can swell to two or three times its normal size, especially in young children.
The airway may become almost completely obstructed, sometimes quite suddenly.
Stridor (harsh, high-pitched, continued rough, barking inspiratory sounds) may be heard late in the development of airway obstruction.
Characterized in adults by a severe sore throat.
What are the characteristics of epiglottitis? What are the characteristics of croup? Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation and swelling of the whole airway (pharynx, larynx, and trachea) typically seen in children 6 months - 3 years old.
Stridor and a seal-bark cough, which signal a significant narrowing of the air passage of the trachea that may progress to significant obstruction.
Often responds well to the administration of humidified oxygen.
Rarely seen in adults because that airways are larger.
Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation and swelling of the whole airway (pharynx, larynx, and trachea) typically seen in children 6 months - 3 years old.
Stridor and a seal-bark cough, which signal a significant narrowing of the air passage of the trachea that may progress to significant obstruction.
Often responds well to the administration of humidified oxygen.
Rarely seen in adults because that airways are larger.
What are the characteristics of croup? What are the characteristics of Respiratory syncytial virus? Characteristics of this are:
A major cause of illness in young children
Causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages
Can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia
Highly contagious and spread through droplets
Survives on surfaces, including hands and clothing
Look for signs of dehydration
Humidified oxygen is helpful if available
Characteristics of this are:
A major cause of illness in young children
Causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages
Can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia
Highly contagious and spread through droplets
Survives on surfaces, including hands and clothing
Look for signs of dehydration
Humidified oxygen is helpful if available
What are the characteristics of Respiratory syncytial virus? What are the characterisitcs of pertussis (whooping cough)? "Characteristics of this include:
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years.
Patient will be feverish and exhibit a ""whoop"" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack.
Highly contagious through droplet infection
Coughing spells, which can last for more than a minute, in which the child may turn red or purple.
Does not cause the typical whooping illness in adults. It causes a severe upper respiratory infection that could be an entry pathway to pneumonia in older people.
" "Characteristics of this include:
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years.
Patient will be feverish and exhibit a ""whoop"" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack.
Highly contagious through droplet infection
Coughing spells, which can last for more than a minute, in which the child may turn red or purple.
Does not cause the typical whooping illness in adults. It causes a severe upper respiratory infection that could be an entry pathway to pneumonia in older people.
" What are the characterisitcs of pertussis (whooping cough)? What are the characteristics of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)?
Characteristics of this are:
A serious, potentially life-threatening viral infection caused by a recently discovered family of viruses best known as the second most common cause of the common cold.
Usually starts with flu-like symptoms, and may progress to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and, in some cases, death.
SARS is thought to be transmitted primarily by close person-to-person contact.
Characteristics of this are:
A serious, potentially life-threatening viral infection caused by a recently discovered family of viruses best known as the second most common cause of the common cold.
Usually starts with flu-like symptoms, and may progress to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and, in some cases, death.
SARS is thought to be transmitted primarily by close person-to-person contact.
What are the characteristics of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)? What are the characteristics of Influenza type A? Characteristics of this are:
A virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans.
A flu that has the potential to spread at a pandemic level.
Characteristics of this are:
A virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans.
A flu that has the potential to spread at a pandemic level.
What are the characteristics of Influenza type A? What are the characteristics of Meningococcal meningitis? Characteristics of this include:
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord that can be highly contagious.
The bacteria can be spread through the exchange of respiratory and throat secretions through coughing and sneezing.
The effects are lethal in some cases. Victims who survive can be left with brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disabilities.
Patients may present with flulike symptoms, but unique to this are high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and a stiff neck in adults. Patients soemtimes have an altered level of consciousness and can have red blotches on skin.
Use respiratory protection, and report and potential cases.
Characteristics of this include:
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord that can be highly contagious.
The bacteria can be spread through the exchange of respiratory and throat secretions through coughing and sneezing.
The effects are lethal in some cases. Victims who survive can be left with brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disabilities.
Patients may present with flulike symptoms, but unique to this are high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and a stiff neck in adults. Patients soemtimes have an altered level of consciousness and can have red blotches on skin.
Use respiratory protection, and report and potential cases.
What are the characteristics of Meningococcal meningitis? What is pulmonary edema? This is a build up of fluid between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries, which interferes with the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen. It can result from heart muscle so injured after a heart attack or other illness that it cannot circulate blood properly; in these cases, the left side of the heart cannot remove blood from the lung as fast as the right side delivers it. Patients with this usually experience dyspnea with rapid, shallow respirations, or frothy pink sputum at the nose in mouth in severe cases. This is a build up of fluid between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries, which interferes with the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen. It can result from heart muscle so injured after a heart attack or other illness that it cannot circulate blood properly; in these cases, the left side of the heart cannot remove blood from the lung as fast as the right side delivers it. Patients with this usually experience dyspnea with rapid, shallow respirations, or frothy pink sputum at the nose in mouth in severe cases. What is pulmonary edema? What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? The is the slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction. An estimated 12.1 million adults are reported to have this disease, and is the fourth leading cause of death. The is the slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction. An estimated 12.1 million adults are reported to have this disease, and is the fourth leading cause of death. What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? What is chronic bronchitis? This is an ongoing irritation of the trachea and bronchi; excess mucus obstructs small airways and alveoli. This can lead to right-sided heart failure and fluid retention, such as edema in the legs. This is an ongoing irritation of the trachea and bronchi; excess mucus obstructs small airways and alveoli. This can lead to right-sided heart failure and fluid retention, such as edema in the legs. What is chronic bronchitis? What is emphysema? This is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli when inflamed airways (due to smoking for example) obstruct easy explusion of gases. This is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli when inflamed airways (due to smoking for example) obstruct easy explusion of gases. What is emphysema? What are the characteristics of COPD? Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the lung characterized by shortness of breath and wheezing.
Home oxygen, bronchodilators, and steroids for treatment.
Breathing progressively worse over time.
Usually in long-term smokers
Shortness of breath mostly on exertion
Chronic coughing
Sputum may be thick
No jugular vein distention or dependent edema
Patient usually thin with a barrel chest
Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the lung characterized by shortness of breath and wheezing.
Home oxygen, bronchodilators, and steroids for treatment.
Breathing progressively worse over time.
Usually in long-term smokers
Shortness of breath mostly on exertion
Chronic coughing
Sputum may be thick
No jugular vein distention or dependent edema
Patient usually thin with a barrel chest
What are the characteristics of COPD? What are the characteristics of Congestive Heart Failure? Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the heart characterized by shortness of breath, edema, and weakness.
Diuretics prescribed to help promote cardiac function and to reduce fluid loads on the heart.
Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Patient may or may not smoke.
Shortness of breath all the time.
Coughing
Sputum may be pink and frothy.
Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.
May have distended abdomen.
Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the heart characterized by shortness of breath, edema, and weakness.
Diuretics prescribed to help promote cardiac function and to reduce fluid loads on the heart.
Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Patient may or may not smoke.
Shortness of breath all the time.
Coughing
Sputum may be pink and frothy.
Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.
May have distended abdomen.
What are the characteristics of Congestive Heart Failure? What is the sequence of events in anaphylaxis? The sequence of events for this is:
A. The antigen is introduced to the body.
B. The antigen-antibody reaction at the surface of a mast cell.
C. Release of a cell chemical mediators.
D. Chemical mediators exert their effects on end organs.
The sequence of events for this is:
A. The antigen is introduced to the body.
B. The antigen-antibody reaction at the surface of a mast cell.
C. Release of a cell chemical mediators.
D. Chemical mediators exert their effects on end organs.
What is the sequence of events in anaphylaxis? What is pneumothorax? This is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space. It is often caused by trauma. This is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space. It is often caused by trauma. What is pneumothorax? When may spontaneous pneumothorax occur? This tends to occur in patients with certain chronic lung infections or in young people born with weak areas of the lung, and often during severe coughing. This tends to occur in patients with certain chronic lung infections or in young people born with weak areas of the lung, and often during severe coughing. When may spontaneous pneumothorax occur? What is pleuritic chest pain? This is a sharp, stabbing pain on one side that is worse during inspiration and expiration or with certain movements of the chest wall. This is a sharp, stabbing pain on one side that is worse during inspiration and expiration or with certain movements of the chest wall. What is pleuritic chest pain? What is a pleural effusion? This is a collection of fluid outside the lung on one or both sides of the chest. Patients will have decreased lung sounds and will feel better sitting upright. This is a collection of fluid outside the lung on one or both sides of the chest. Patients will have decreased lung sounds and will feel better sitting upright. What is a pleural effusion? What is a tonic-clonic seizure? This, also called a grand mal seizure, is one in which the patient has a sudden loss of consciousness, rapid muscle movement of the body, and often incontinence. This type of seizure typically only lasts minutes. This, also called a grand mal seizure, is one in which the patient has a sudden loss of consciousness, rapid muscle movement of the body, and often incontinence. This type of seizure typically only lasts minutes. What is a tonic-clonic seizure? What is status epilipticus? This is when a patient continues to have seizures every few minutes without regaining consciousness, and/or the seizure lasts longer than 30 minutes. It could be life threatening. This is when a patient continues to have seizures every few minutes without regaining consciousness, and/or the seizure lasts longer than 30 minutes. It could be life threatening. What is status epilipticus? What is an embolus? This is anything in the circulatory system that moves from it's point of origin to a distant site and lodges there, obstructing subsequent blood flow in that area. This is anything in the circulatory system that moves from it's point of origin to a distant site and lodges there, obstructing subsequent blood flow in that area. What is an embolus? What is a pulmonary embolism? This is the passage of a blood clot formed in a vein, usually in the legs or pelvis, that breaks off and circulates through the venous system, enters the pulmonary artery, where it becomes lodged, significantly decreasing or blocking blood flow. Arterial carbon dioxide rises, and oxygen level may drop enough to cause cyanosis. This is the passage of a blood clot formed in a vein, usually in the legs or pelvis, that breaks off and circulates through the venous system, enters the pulmonary artery, where it becomes lodged, significantly decreasing or blocking blood flow. Arterial carbon dioxide rises, and oxygen level may drop enough to cause cyanosis. What is a pulmonary embolism? What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolisms? Signs and symptoms of these include:
Dyspnea
Acute chest pain
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
Cyanosis
Tachypnea
Vary degrees of hypoxia
Signs and symptoms of these include:
Dyspnea
Acute chest pain
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
Cyanosis
Tachypnea
Vary degrees of hypoxia
What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolisms? What is acidosis? This is the buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from the primary illness. This is the buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from the primary illness. What is acidosis? What is alkalosis? This is the buildup of excess base in the body fluids. This is the buildup of excess base in the body fluids. What is alkalosis? What is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? This is a bacterium that can cause infection in different parts of the body and is transmitted by different routes. It is resistant to many commonly used antibiotics. This is a bacterium that can cause infection in different parts of the body and is transmitted by different routes. It is resistant to many commonly used antibiotics. What is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? What is tuberculosis (TB)? This is an infection most commonyl found in the lungs but can also affect any organ of the body, including the kidneys, bones, and meninges. This is an infection most commonyl found in the lungs but can also affect any organ of the body, including the kidneys, bones, and meninges. What is tuberculosis (TB)? What are adventitious breath sounds? These are abnormal, decreased, or absent breath sounds. These are abnormal, decreased, or absent breath sounds. What are adventitious breath sounds? What are vesicular breath sounds? These are normal breath sounds in a patient. These are normal breath sounds in a patient. What are vesicular breath sounds? What are some risk factors for congestive heart failure? Risk factors for this include hypertension and a history of coronary artery disease and/or atrial fibrillation, a condition in which the atria no longer contract, but quiver. Risk factors for this include hypertension and a history of coronary artery disease and/or atrial fibrillation, a condition in which the atria no longer contract, but quiver. What are some risk factors for congestive heart failure? What are some signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? Signs and symptoms of this are:
cool, diaphoretic, and/or cyanotic skin
Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles, wheezing, or rales
A tachycardiac pulse.
Signs and symptoms of this are:
cool, diaphoretic, and/or cyanotic skin
Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles, wheezing, or rales
A tachycardiac pulse.
What are some signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? What is cystic fibrosis (CF)? This is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. This disrupts the normal function of cells that make up the sweat glands in the skin and that also line the lungs and digestive and reproductive systems. This is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. This disrupts the normal function of cells that make up the sweat glands in the skin and that also line the lungs and digestive and reproductive systems. What is cystic fibrosis (CF)? What does croup often respond well to? This often responds well to humidified oxygen. This often responds well to humidified oxygen. What does croup often respond well to? What is proper treatment for hyperventilation? Proper treatment for this consists of: reassuing the patient, supplying supplemental oxygen, and providing prompt transport to the emergency department. Proper treatment for this consists of: reassuing the patient, supplying supplemental oxygen, and providing prompt transport to the emergency department. What is proper treatment for hyperventilation? What is the proper treatment for pulmonary embolism? Proper treatment for this consists of: Placing the patient in a comfrotable position, be aware of possible hemoptysis as an airway obstruction, and transport promptly, as this may cause cardiac arrest. Proper treatment for this consists of: Placing the patient in a comfrotable position, be aware of possible hemoptysis as an airway obstruction, and transport promptly, as this may cause cardiac arrest. What is the proper treatment for pulmonary embolism? What should you watch for in patients with COPD? Oftentimes these patients will overuse their inhalers, so watch for side effects. Oftentimes these patients will overuse their inhalers, so watch for side effects. What should you watch for in patients with COPD? "What does PASTE stand for?" "This stands for:
Progression: You want to know if the problem started suddenly or has worsened
Associated chest pain: Dyspnea can be a significant symptom of a cardiac problem.
Sputum: Mucus like sputum could indicate a respiratory infection, while frothy pink sputum indicates fluid in the lungs.
Talking tiredness: How many words a patient can saw between breaths.
Exercise tolerance: What activity was the patient doing before the problem started.
" What is wheezing? This is a sound that is generally heard on exhalation as a high-pitched, almost whistling sound. It is extremely common in patients with asthma and sometimes in patients with COPD; it indicates constriction and/or inflammation in the bronchus. This is a sound that is generally heard on exhalation as a high-pitched, almost whistling sound. It is extremely common in patients with asthma and sometimes in patients with COPD; it indicates constriction and/or inflammation in the bronchus. What is wheezing? What are rales? "These are the sounds of air trying to pass through fluid in the alveoli. It is a crackling or bubbling sound typically heard on inspiration. There are high-pitched ""fine"" sounds and low-pitched ""coarse"" sounds. These often indicate congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other fluid in the lungs." "These are the sounds of air trying to pass through fluid in the alveoli. It is a crackling or bubbling sound typically heard on inspiration. There are high-pitched ""fine"" sounds and low-pitched ""coarse"" sounds. These often indicate congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other fluid in the lungs." What are rales? What are rhonchi? "These are lower pitched sounds caused by secretions or mucus in the larger airway. The sound resembles rattling or is sometimes referred to as ""junky"" lung sounds. It indicates infections, pneumonia, or bronchitis." "These are lower pitched sounds caused by secretions or mucus in the larger airway. The sound resembles rattling or is sometimes referred to as ""junky"" lung sounds. It indicates infections, pneumonia, or bronchitis." What are rhonchi? What is stridor? This is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration as air tries to pass through obstruction in the upper airway. This indicates a partial obstruction of the trachea and is seen in patients with anatomic or foreign body airway obstruction. This is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration as air tries to pass through obstruction in the upper airway. This indicates a partial obstruction of the trachea and is seen in patients with anatomic or foreign body airway obstruction. What is stridor? What is the order of BLS if you suspect cardiac arrest? If this is suspected, BLS order becomes CAB. If this is suspected, BLS order becomes CAB. What is the order of BLS if you suspect cardiac arrest? What is the chain of survival? This is:
1. Early access (ie Access EMS by calling 911)
2. Early CPR (keeps blood flowing)
3. Early defibrillation
4. Early advanced care
5. Integrated post-arrest care (including controlling temperature and maintaining glucose levels in the patient who is hypoglycemic)
This is:
1. Early access (ie Access EMS by calling 911)
2. Early CPR (keeps blood flowing)
3. Early defibrillation
4. Early advanced care
5. Integrated post-arrest care (including controlling temperature and maintaining glucose levels in the patient who is hypoglycemic)
What is the chain of survival? What is important to remember regarding time and CPR? It's important to remember regarding this that few patients survive cardiac arrest if this is not administered within the first few minutes, and if the time from cardiac arrest to defibrillation is more than 10 minutes, the chance of survival is minimal. It's important to remember regarding this that few patients survive cardiac arrest if this is not administered within the first few minutes, and if the time from cardiac arrest to defibrillation is more than 10 minutes, the chance of survival is minimal. What is important to remember regarding time and CPR? What is arrhythmia? This is sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance. This is sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance. What is arrhythmia? What is ventricular fibrillation? This is the disorganized twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest. This is the disorganized twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest. What is ventricular fibrillation? For each minute the patient remains in V-fib or pulseless V-tach, how much does the chance of survival decrease? For each minute in these states, there is a 7% to 10% less chance of survival. For each minute in these states, there is a 7% to 10% less chance of survival. For each minute the patient remains in V-fib or pulseless V-tach, how much does the chance of survival decrease? What is a common cause of cardiac arrest in children? Respiratory failure is usually the cause of this in children. Respiratory failure is usually the cause of this in children. What is a common cause of cardiac arrest in children? Where should you place the AED electrode on patients with an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker? If you see a patient with one of these, you should place the AED electrode at least 1 inch to the side of the device. If you see a patient with one of these, you should place the AED electrode at least 1 inch to the side of the device. Where should you place the AED electrode on patients with an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker? On average, how much blood is pumped through the body when external chest compressions are performed as proficiently as possible? Only one third of the blood that is normally pumped by is circulated through this method. Only one third of the blood that is normally pumped by is circulated through this method. On average, how much blood is pumped through the body when external chest compressions are performed as proficiently as possible? Where should the patient's head be while administring chest compressions? This should not be elevated at a level above the heart because this will further reduce blood flow to the brain. This should not be elevated at a level above the heart because this will further reduce blood flow to the brain. Where should the patient's head be while administring chest compressions? What kind of surface should a patient receiving chest compressions be placed on? During this, the patient should be palced on the floor or have a board placed under the back. During this, the patient should be palced on the floor or have a board placed under the back. What kind of surface should a patient receiving chest compressions be placed on? When performing CPR on an adult, how many chest compressions should be given a minute? Give at least 100 compressions per minute for this type of patient. Give at least 100 compressions per minute for this type of patient. When performing CPR on an adult, how many chest compressions should be given a minute? What is the recovery position? This is a side-lying position (patient's hand under their head) used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are adequately breathing. This is a side-lying position (patient's hand under their head) used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are adequately breathing. What is the recovery position? What is the focus of pediatric BLS? The focus of BLS for these types of patients is airway and breathing. The focus of BLS for these types of patients is airway and breathing. What is the focus of pediatric BLS? Where do you check the pulse on infants? You check the pulse on the brachial artery for these patients. You check the pulse on the brachial artery for these patients. Where do you check the pulse on infants? Where do you check the pulse on children (1-12 years)? You check the pulse on the carotid or femoral artery for these patients. You check the pulse on the carotid or femoral artery for these patients. Where do you check the pulse on children (1-12 years)? What is the compression rate for infants and children in CPR? For these patients, the compression rate is at least 100/min. For these patients, the compression rate is at least 100/min. What is the compression rate for infants and children in CPR? What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR for infants and children? For these patients, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for one rescuer, and 15:2 for 2 rescuers. For these patients, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for one rescuer, and 15:2 for 2 rescuers. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR for infants and children? With infants and children, what is the ventilation rate during CPR? With these patients, the ventilation rate is 1 breath every 3-5 seconds. With these patients, the ventilation rate is 1 breath every 3-5 seconds. With infants and children, what is the ventilation rate during CPR? What should you do with a patient who has a mild airway obstruction? With these patients, you should encourage him or her to cough or to continue coughing if they are already doing so. With these patients, you should encourage him or her to cough or to continue coughing if they are already doing so. What should you do with a patient who has a mild airway obstruction? When will brain tissue start to die without oxygen? This will begin to die within 4 to 6 minutes. This will begin to die within 4 to 6 minutes. When will brain tissue start to die without oxygen? What anatomic structures make up the upper airway? The nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx are located here. The nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx are located here. What anatomic structures make up the upper airway? What is the major function of the upper airway? The major function of this is to:
Warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the body.
The major function of this is to:
Warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the body.
What is the major function of the upper airway? What is the pharynx and what is it composed of? This is a muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea. It is composed of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (A.K.A. the hypopharynx). This is a muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea. It is composed of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (A.K.A. the hypopharynx). What is the pharynx and what is it composed of? What is the lowest portion of the pharynx? This is the laryngopharynx. At its base, it splits into two lumens, the larynx anteriorly, and the esophagus posteriorly. This is the laryngopharynx. At its base, it splits into two lumens, the larynx anteriorly, and the esophagus posteriorly. What is the lowest portion of the pharynx? What is the nasopharynx? This is formed by the union of the facial bones, and is lined with a cilated mucous membrane that keeps contaminants such as dust and other small particles out of the respiratory tract. The membrane also warms and humidifies air as it enters the body. This is formed by the union of the facial bones, and is lined with a cilated mucous membrane that keeps contaminants such as dust and other small particles out of the respiratory tract. The membrane also warms and humidifies air as it enters the body. What is the nasopharynx? What is the oropharynx? This forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue.  This forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue.  What is the oropharynx? What is the larynx? This marks where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins. This marks where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins. What is the larynx? What is the thyroid cartilage? "This is a shield-shaped structure formed by two plates that join in a ""V"" shape anteriorly to form the larnygeal prominence known as the Adam's apple." "This is a shield-shaped structure formed by two plates that join in a ""V"" shape anteriorly to form the larnygeal prominence known as the Adam's apple." What is the thyroid cartilage? What is the cricoid cartilage? This lies inferiorly to the thyroid cartilage; it forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is the only airway structure that forms a complete ring. This lies inferiorly to the thyroid cartilage; it forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is the only airway structure that forms a complete ring. What is the cricoid cartilage? What is the glottis? This is space in between the vocal cords and the narrowest portion of the adult's airway. This is space in between the vocal cords and the narrowest portion of the adult's airway. What is the glottis? What is the trachea? This is the conduit for air entry into the lungs. It is approximately 10 to 12 centimeters in length and consists of C-shaped cartilaginous rings. It descends anteriorly into the thoracic cavity. This is the conduit for air entry into the lungs. It is approximately 10 to 12 centimeters in length and consists of C-shaped cartilaginous rings. It descends anteriorly into the thoracic cavity. What is the trachea? What is the carina? This is the point at which the trachea bifurcates into the left and right mainstream bronchi. This is the point at which the trachea bifurcates into the left and right mainstream bronchi. What is the carina? What is visceral pleura? This is a thin, slippery outer membrane that covers all lung tissue. This is a thin, slippery outer membrane that covers all lung tissue. What is visceral pleura? What is the parietal pleura? This lines the inside of the thoracic cavity. This lines the inside of the thoracic cavity. What is the parietal pleura? What lies between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura? Between these is a small amount of fluid, which serves as a lubricant to prevent friction during breathing. Between these is a small amount of fluid, which serves as a lubricant to prevent friction during breathing. What lies between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura? What should you remember about children's airways? With these patients' airway, remember that:
They have a proportionately smaller mandible and a proportionately larger tongue, both of which increase the incidence of airway obstruction.
They have a proportionately larger occipital lobe, so when positioning the airway, place a folded towel under the shoulders to maintain a neutral position.
In general, the airway of these patients are smaller and narrower at all levels.
With these patients' airway, remember that:
They have a proportionately smaller mandible and a proportionately larger tongue, both of which increase the incidence of airway obstruction.
They have a proportionately larger occipital lobe, so when positioning the airway, place a folded towel under the shoulders to maintain a neutral position.
In general, the airway of these patients are smaller and narrower at all levels.
What should you remember about children's airways? What is the mediastinum? This is the space between the lungs, and is surrounded by tough, connective tissue. This space contains the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, major bronchi, and nerves. This is the space between the lungs, and is surrounded by tough, connective tissue. This space contains the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, major bronchi, and nerves. What is the mediastinum? What is the phrenic nerve? This is one of the most important nervous structures in the body. It innervates the diaphragm muscle. This is one of the most important nervous structures in the body. It innervates the diaphragm muscle. What is the phrenic nerve? What is ventilation? This is the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs. This is the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs. What is ventilation? What is oxygenation? This is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream. This is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream. What is oxygenation? What is respiration? This is the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli as well as the tissues of the body. This is the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli as well as the tissues of the body. What is respiration? What is inhalation? This is the active, muscular part of breathing. This is the active, muscular part of breathing. What is inhalation? How much air does 1 breath draw in? This is approximately 500 ml in an adult. This is approximately 500 ml in an adult. How much air does 1 breath draw in? What is partial pressure? This is the term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (Hg). This is the term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (Hg). What is partial pressure? What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air in the alveoli? This pressure is 104 mm Hg. This pressure is 104 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air in the alveoli? What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air in the alveoli? This pressure is 40 mm Hg. This pressure is 40 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air in the alveoli? What is alveolar ventilation, and how is it determined? This is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli, and is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume. This is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli, and is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume. What is alveolar ventilation, and how is it determined? What is tidal volume? This is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. The average volume for an adult man is approximately 500 ml. This is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. The average volume for an adult man is approximately 500 ml. What is tidal volume? What is dead space? This is the portion of tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and thus does not participate in gas exchange. It contains the air that remains in the mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. This can add up to approximately 150 mL in adults. This is the portion of tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and thus does not participate in gas exchange. It contains the air that remains in the mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. This can add up to approximately 150 mL in adults. What is dead space? What is minute ventilation (A.K.A. minute volume)? This is the amount of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space. An average adult male patient might have a rate of 4200 mL , (12 breaths per minute, a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath, and a dead space of 150 mL) This is the amount of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space. An average adult male patient might have a rate of 4200 mL , (12 breaths per minute, a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath, and a dead space of 150 mL) What is minute ventilation (A.K.A. minute volume)? What is vital capacity? This refers to the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing deeply. This refers to the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing deeply. What is vital capacity? What is residual volume? This is the air that remains after maximal expiration. It is approximately 1200 mL in the average adult male. This is the air that remains after maximal expiration. It is approximately 1200 mL in the average adult male. What is residual volume? What is exhalation? This is the passive part of the breathing process, in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs. This is the passive part of the breathing process, in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs. What is exhalation? How are ventilation changes primarily regulated? These are regulated primarily by the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid, which is directly related to the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood. These are regulated primarily by the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid, which is directly related to the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood. How are ventilation changes primarily regulated? What is the hypoxic drive? This is a condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; it is seen in patients with end-stage C.O.P.D. This is a condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; it is seen in patients with end-stage C.O.P.D. What is the hypoxic drive? What is C.O.P.D. (A.K.A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases)? "This is when patients have difficulty eliminating carbon dioxide through exhalation; thus, they always have higher levels of carbon dioxide. This potentially alters their drive for breathing. The body uses a ""backup system"", the hypoxic drive, to control breathing. This is different from the primary control of breathing that uses carbon dioxide. Caution should be taken when administering high concentrations of oxygen to these kinds of patients, as providing high concentrations of oxygen over time will increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma; this could potentially negatively affect their body's drive to breathe." "This is when patients have difficulty eliminating carbon dioxide through exhalation; thus, they always have higher levels of carbon dioxide. This potentially alters their drive for breathing. The body uses a ""backup system"", the hypoxic drive, to control breathing. This is different from the primary control of breathing that uses carbon dioxide. Caution should be taken when administering high concentrations of oxygen to these kinds of patients, as providing high concentrations of oxygen over time will increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma; this could potentially negatively affect their body's drive to breathe." What is C.O.P.D. (A.K.A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases)? What is dyspnea? This is shortness of breath. This is shortness of breath. What is dyspnea? What is another name for metabolism? Another name for this is cellular respiration. Another name for this is cellular respiration. What is another name for metabolism? What is the chemical composition of air on average? On average, the chemical composition of this is about 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and 0.3% carbon dioxide. On average, the chemical composition of this is about 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and 0.3% carbon dioxide. What is the chemical composition of air on average? What is surfactant? This is a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome. This is a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome. What is surfactant? Under normal conditions, what percentage of hemoglobin receptor sites contain oxygen? Under normal conditions, 96% to 100% of these contain oxygen. Under normal conditions, 96% to 100% of these contain oxygen. Under normal conditions, what percentage of hemoglobin receptor sites contain oxygen? What is aerobic respiration? This can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.  Energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (A.K.A., A.T.P.) is produced through a series of processes known as the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Together, these chemical processes yield nearly 40 molecules of energy-rich ATP for each molecule of glucose metabolized. This can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.  Energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (A.K.A., A.T.P.) is produced through a series of processes known as the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Together, these chemical processes yield nearly 40 molecules of energy-rich ATP for each molecule of glucose metabolized. What is aerobic respiration? What are chemoreceptors? These monitor the levels of O2, CO2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any given time. These monitor the levels of O2, CO2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any given time. What are chemoreceptors? How will an elevation in carbon dioxide levels affect the pH balance in CSF? This will decrease the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. This will decrease the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. How will an elevation in carbon dioxide levels affect the pH balance in CSF? What is the normal resting minute ventilation? The normal rate of this is approximately 6000 mL per minute. About a third of this volume fills dead space; therefore, resting alveolar ventilation is approximately 4000 mL per minute. The normal rate of this is approximately 6000 mL per minute. About a third of this volume fills dead space; therefore, resting alveolar ventilation is approximately 4000 mL per minute. What is the normal resting minute ventilation? What is intrapulmonary shunting? This is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart, inhibiting diffusion and perfusion. This is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart, inhibiting diffusion and perfusion. What is intrapulmonary shunting? What is a bag-mask device? This is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, this delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen. This is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, this delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen. What is a bag-mask device? What is the normal respiratory rate of adults? For this group, the average respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. For this group, the average respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. What is the normal respiratory rate of adults? What is the normal respiratory rate of children? The normal respiratory rate of this group is 15 to 30 breaths per minute. The normal respiratory rate of this group is 15 to 30 breaths per minute. What is the normal respiratory rate of children? What is the normal respiratory rate of infants? The normal respiratory rate of this group is 25 to 50 breaths per minute. The normal respiratory rate of this group is 25 to 50 breaths per minute. What is the normal respiratory rate of infants? What are retractions? This is when the skin pulls in around the ribs or above the clavicle during respiration. It is a sign of inadequate breathing. This is when the skin pulls in around the ribs or above the clavicle during respiration. It is a sign of inadequate breathing. What are retractions? What are agonal gasps? These are occasional gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped. They occur when the respiratory center in the brain continues to send signals to the respiratory muscles. These are occasional gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped. They occur when the respiratory center in the brain continues to send signals to the respiratory muscles. What are agonal gasps? What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations? This is an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations that is followed by a period of apnea, or lack of spontaneous breathing, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration. This is an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations that is followed by a period of apnea, or lack of spontaneous breathing, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration. What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations? What is ataxic respirations? This is a pattern of irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern. This is a pattern of irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern. What is ataxic respirations? What are Kussmaul respirations? This is an irregular breathing pattern characterized as deep, gasping respirations commonly seen in patients with metabolic acidosis. This is an irregular breathing pattern characterized as deep, gasping respirations commonly seen in patients with metabolic acidosis. What are Kussmaul respirations? What maneuver should you use on a patient if you suspect a cervical spine injury to open the airway? In this situation, use the the jaw-thrust maneuver.
In this situation, use the the jaw-thrust maneuver.
What maneuver should you use on a patient if you suspect a cervical spine injury to open the airway? What are the principle purposes of an oropharyngeal airway? The principle purposes of this are to:
1) Keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway.
and 2) Make it easier to suction the the oropharynx if necessary.
The principle purposes of this are to:
1) Keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway.
and 2) Make it easier to suction the the oropharynx if necessary.
What are the principle purposes of an oropharyngeal airway? What is the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway in children? With this group, the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway is to use a tongue blade to hold the tongue down. With this group, the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway is to use a tongue blade to hold the tongue down. What is the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway in children? When should you consult medical control about inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? You should consult medical control about this when a patient has sustained severe trauma to the head or face. You should consult medical control about this when a patient has sustained severe trauma to the head or face. When should you consult medical control about inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? How much airflow and vacuum should a suctioning unit be able to generate? This should generate airflow of more than 40 L per minute, and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. This should generate airflow of more than 40 L per minute, and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. How much airflow and vacuum should a suctioning unit be able to generate? What is a suction catheter? This is a hollow cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient's airway. This is a hollow cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient's airway. What is a suction catheter? How long should you suction a patient's mouth or nose? You should never do this for more than 15 seconds at a time for adults, 10 seconds for children, and 5 for infants. You should never do this for more than 15 seconds at a time for adults, 10 seconds for children, and 5 for infants. How long should you suction a patient's mouth or nose? What is the recovery position? This position is used to maintain a clear airway in an unconscious patient who is not injured and is breathing on his or her own with a normal respiratory rate and adequate tidal volume. The patient is rolled onto their left sidewith a hand underneath the head for support. Never put a patient in this position if you suspect spinal trauma. This position is used to maintain a clear airway in an unconscious patient who is not injured and is breathing on his or her own with a normal respiratory rate and adequate tidal volume. The patient is rolled onto their left sidewith a hand underneath the head for support. Never put a patient in this position if you suspect spinal trauma. What is the recovery position? What is the pin-indexing system? This is a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas. This is a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas. What is the pin-indexing system? What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nasal cannula? This device has a flow rate of 1000 to 6000 mL per minute, and delivers 24% to 44% oxygen. This device has a flow rate of 1000 to 6000 mL per minute, and delivers 24% to 44% oxygen. What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nasal cannula? What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nonre-breathing mask? This device has a flow rate of 10 to 15 L per minute, and delivers up to 90% oxygen. This device has a flow rate of 10 to 15 L per minute, and delivers up to 90% oxygen. What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nonre-breathing mask? What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a bag-mask device with reservoir? This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 100% oxygen. This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 100% oxygen. What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a bag-mask device with reservoir? What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a mouth-to-mask device? This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 55% oxygen. This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 55% oxygen. What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a mouth-to-mask device? What is a partial rebreathing mask? This is similar to a nonrebreathing mask except that there is no one-way valve between the mask and reservoir. Consequently, patients rebreathe a small amount of their exhaled air. This is advantageous for patients who you think are suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. You can easily convert a nonrebreathing mask to this by removing the one-way valve between the mask and the reservoir bag. This is similar to a nonrebreathing mask except that there is no one-way valve between the mask and reservoir. Consequently, patients rebreathe a small amount of their exhaled air. This is advantageous for patients who you think are suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. You can easily convert a nonrebreathing mask to this by removing the one-way valve between the mask and the reservoir bag. What is a partial rebreathing mask? What is the nature of air movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation? Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
air is sucked into the lungs due to the negative intrathoracic created when the diaphragm contracts.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the lungs through a means of mechanical ventilation.
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
air is sucked into the lungs due to the negative intrathoracic created when the diaphragm contracts.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the lungs through a means of mechanical ventilation.
What is the nature of air movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
What is the nature of blood movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
Normal breathing allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Intrathoracic pressure is increased, not allowing blood to be adequately pulled back to the heart. This causes the amount of blood pumnped by the heart to be reduced.
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
Normal breathing allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Intrathoracic pressure is increased, not allowing blood to be adequately pulled back to the heart. This causes the amount of blood pumnped by the heart to be reduced.
What is the nature of blood movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
What is the nature of airway wall pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
More volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. As a result, the walls are pushed out of their normal anatomic shape.
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
More volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. As a result, the walls are pushed out of their normal anatomic shape.
What is the nature of airway wall pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
What is the nature of esophageal opening pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the stomach, causing gastric distention that could result in vomiting and aspiration.
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the stomach, causing gastric distention that could result in vomiting and aspiration.
What is the nature of esophageal opening pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
What is the nature of overventilation in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not typical of normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Forcing volume and rate results in increased intrathoracic pressure, gastric distention, and a decrease in cardiac output.
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not typical of normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Forcing volume and rate results in increased intrathoracic pressure, gastric distention, and a decrease in cardiac output.
What is the nature of overventilation in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in adults? For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds. For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds. For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in adults? For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in children and infants? For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds. For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds. For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in children and infants? When should you use a bag-mask device? This should be used when you need to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients who not ventilating adequately. The device is also used for patients in respiratory arrest, cardiopulmonary arrest, and respiratory failure. You should use an oral or nasal airway adjunct. This should be used when you need to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients who not ventilating adequately. The device is also used for patients in respiratory arrest, cardiopulmonary arrest, and respiratory failure. You should use an oral or nasal airway adjunct. When should you use a bag-mask device? What is the volume capability of the adult bag-mask device? The volume capability for this device is 1200 to 1600 mL. The volume capability for this device is 1200 to 1600 mL. What is the volume capability of the adult bag-mask device? What is the volume capability of the pediatric bag-mask device? The volume capability of this device is 500 to 700 mL. The volume capability of this device is 500 to 700 mL. What is the volume capability of the pediatric bag-mask device? What is the volume capability of the infant bag-mask device? The volume capability of this device is 150 to 240 mL. The volume capability of this device is 150 to 240 mL. What is the volume capability of the infant bag-mask device? What is a manually triggered ventilation device, AKA a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? This is a fixed flow/rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed. The major advantage of this device is that it allows a single rescuer to use both hand to maintain a mask-to-face seal. This is a fixed flow/rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed. The major advantage of this device is that it allows a single rescuer to use both hand to maintain a mask-to-face seal. What is a manually triggered ventilation device, AKA a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? What is compliance? This is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation. This is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation. What is compliance? What is CPAP, AKA, Continuous Positive Airway Pressure? This is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress.
Indications for this include:
Patient must be alert and able to follow commands.
Patient is displaying obvious signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress from an underlying pathology, such as pulmonary edema or obstructive pulmonary disease.
The patient is breathing rapidly, such that it affects over-all minute volume.
And,
Pulse oximetry reading is less than 90%.

Contraindications include:
A patient who is in respiratory arrest.
Signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax or chest trauma.
Tracheostomy.
Active gastrointestinal bleeding or vomiting.
And,
The patient is unable to follow verbal commands.
This is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress.
Indications for this include:
Patient must be alert and able to follow commands.
Patient is displaying obvious signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress from an underlying pathology, such as pulmonary edema or obstructive pulmonary disease.
The patient is breathing rapidly, such that it affects over-all minute volume.
And,
Pulse oximetry reading is less than 90%.

Contraindications include:
A patient who is in respiratory arrest.
Signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax or chest trauma.
Tracheostomy.
Active gastrointestinal bleeding or vomiting.
And,
The patient is unable to follow verbal commands.
What is CPAP, AKA, Continuous Positive Airway Pressure? What is pharmacology? This is the science of drugs. This is the science of drugs. What is pharmacology? What is pharmacodynamics? This is the process by which a medication works on the body. This is the process by which a medication works on the body. What is pharmacodynamics? What is an agonist? This is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. This is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. What is an agonist? What is an antagonist? This is medication that binds to a receptor and block other medications. This is medication that binds to a receptor and block other medications. What is an antagonist? What is a medication's action? This is the therapeutic effect or intended effect it is expected to have on the body. This is the therapeutic effect or intended effect it is expected to have on the body. What is a medication's action? What should you remember about doses in the elderly population? These may also need to be decreased for this population because they cannot process medications as efficiently as others. These may also need to be decreased for this population because they cannot process medications as efficiently as others. What should you remember about doses in the elderly population? What are indication? These are the reasons or conditions for which a particular medication is given. These are the reasons or conditions for which a particular medication is given. What are indication? What are contraindications? These are reasons or conditions for which a particular medication should not be given, even if it usually is indicated for that person's condition. These are reasons or conditions for which a particular medication should not be given, even if it usually is indicated for that person's condition. What are contraindications? What are side effects? These are any actions of a medication other than the desired ones. These are any actions of a medication other than the desired ones. What are side effects? What are unintended effects? These are the effects that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient. These are the effects that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient. What are unintended effects? What are untoward effects? These are the effects that can be harmful to the patient. These are the effects that can be harmful to the patient. What are untoward effects? What is the difference between a medication's generic name and its trade name? The first is a simple, clear, nonproprietary name. The second is the brand name; as a proper noun, it begins with a capital letter. The first is a simple, clear, nonproprietary name. The second is the brand name; as a proper noun, it begins with a capital letter. What is the difference between a medication's generic name and its trade name? What are OTC medications? These are medications that can be purchased without a prescription. These are medications that can be purchased without a prescription. What are OTC medications? What are enteral medications? These are medications that enter the body through the digestive system. These are medications that enter the body through the digestive system. What are enteral medications? What are parenteral medications? These are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes. These are absorbed much more quickly and offer a more predictable and measurable dose. These are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes. These are absorbed much more quickly and offer a more predictable and measurable dose. What are parenteral medications? What is absorption? This is the process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream. This is the process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream. What is absorption? What is the per retum (PR) route of administration? This is medication administrated by the rectum. It is most commonly used with children and patients who cannot swallow or are unconscious. This is medication administrated by the rectum. It is most commonly used with children and patients who cannot swallow or are unconscious. What is the per retum (PR) route of administration? What is the intravenous (IV) route of administration? This is medication administed into the vein. This is the fastest way to deliver a chemical substance. This is medication administed into the vein. This is the fastest way to deliver a chemical substance. What is the intravenous (IV) route of administration? What is the intraosseous (IO) route of administration? This is medication delivered into the bone, reaching the bloodstream via the bone marrow. This is very painful, and so this route is used most often in patients who are unconscious as a result of cardiac arrest or extreme shock, as well as children who have fewer available IV sites. This is medication delivered into the bone, reaching the bloodstream via the bone marrow. This is very painful, and so this route is used most often in patients who are unconscious as a result of cardiac arrest or extreme shock, as well as children who have fewer available IV sites. What is the intraosseous (IO) route of administration? What is the subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route of administration? This is medication delivered beneath the skin as an injection into the tissue between the skin and muscle. Because there is less blood here than in the muscles, medications that are given by this route are generally absorbed more slowly, and their effects last longer. Daily insulin injections for patients with diabetes are given this way, as well as some forms of epinephrine. This is medication delivered beneath the skin as an injection into the tissue between the skin and muscle. Because there is less blood here than in the muscles, medications that are given by this route are generally absorbed more slowly, and their effects last longer. Daily insulin injections for patients with diabetes are given this way, as well as some forms of epinephrine. What is the subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route of administration? What is the intramuscular (IM) route of administration? This is medication administered into the muscle. Usually, medications given this way are absorbed quickly because muscles have a lot of blood vessels. Possible problems with this method are damage to muscle tissue and uneven, unreliable absorption, especially in people with decreased tissue perfusion. Auto-injectors frequently use this method. This is medication administered into the muscle. Usually, medications given this way are absorbed quickly because muscles have a lot of blood vessels. Possible problems with this method are damage to muscle tissue and uneven, unreliable absorption, especially in people with decreased tissue perfusion. Auto-injectors frequently use this method. What is the intramuscular (IM) route of administration? What is the inhalation route of administration? This is medication inhaled into the lungs so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly, or so they work in the lungs. Generally, this minimizes the effects of the medication in other body tissues. This is medication inhaled into the lungs so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly, or so they work in the lungs. Generally, this minimizes the effects of the medication in other body tissues. What is the inhalation route of administration? What is the sublingual (SL) route of administration? This is medication administered under the tongue. The medication enters through the oral mucosa under the tongue and are absorbed into the bloodstream within minutes. This method is faster than the oral route, and it protects medications from chemicals in the digestive system, such as acids that can weaken or inactivate them. This is medication administered under the tongue. The medication enters through the oral mucosa under the tongue and are absorbed into the bloodstream within minutes. This method is faster than the oral route, and it protects medications from chemicals in the digestive system, such as acids that can weaken or inactivate them. What is the sublingual (SL) route of administration? What is the transcutaneous, or transdermal route of administration? This is medication administered through the skin, and usually have longer-lasting effects. Nicotine patches or adhesive patches containing nitroglycerin are examples of this. This is medication administered through the skin, and usually have longer-lasting effects. Nicotine patches or adhesive patches containing nitroglycerin are examples of this. What is the transcutaneous, or transdermal route of administration? What is the intranasal (IN) route of administration? This is medication administered into the nostril, typically via a specialized atomizer device called a Mucosal Atomizer Device (AKA M.A.D.). Blood flow to the head and face is very high; therefore, absorption is rather quick with this route. Naloxone can be administered to some overdose patients via this route. This is medication administered into the nostril, typically via a specialized atomizer device called a Mucosal Atomizer Device (AKA M.A.D.). Blood flow to the head and face is very high; therefore, absorption is rather quick with this route. Naloxone can be administered to some overdose patients via this route. What is the intranasal (IN) route of administration? What is a solution? This is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. This is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. What is a solution? What is a suspension? This is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. It is very important that you shake or swirl a suspesion before administering it to ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication. This is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. It is very important that you shake or swirl a suspesion before administering it to ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication. What is a suspension? What is a metered-dose inhaler (A.K.A. an MDI)? This is a miniature spray canister used to direct such substances through the mouth and into the lungs. It delivers the same amount of medication each time it is used, and must be shaken vigorously before the medication is administered. This is a miniature spray canister used to direct such substances through the mouth and into the lungs. It delivers the same amount of medication each time it is used, and must be shaken vigorously before the medication is administered. What is a metered-dose inhaler (A.K.A. an MDI)? What are topical medications? These are lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin. These are lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin. What are topical medications? "What are the ""Six Rights"" of medication administration?" These are:
1) Right patient,
2) Right medication,
3) Right dose,
4) Right route,
5) Right time,
and 6) Right documentation
These are:
1) Right patient,
2) Right medication,
3) Right dose,
4) Right route,
5) Right time,
and 6) Right documentation
"What are the ""Six Rights"" of medication administration?" What is the echo technique? This is repeating the order you receive from the physician for the administration of a medication. It is essential that you do this anytime you receive an order from a physician. This is repeating the order you receive from the physician for the administration of a medication. It is essential that you do this anytime you receive an order from a physician. What is the echo technique? What are the 3 circumstances for administering medication? These are:
1) peer-assisted medication (administering medication to yourself or your partner)
2) patient-assisted medication (assisting the patient with the administration of his or her own medication)
and,
3) EMT-administered medication (directly administering the medication to the patient.
These are:
1) peer-assisted medication (administering medication to yourself or your partner)
2) patient-assisted medication (assisting the patient with the administration of his or her own medication)
and,
3) EMT-administered medication (directly administering the medication to the patient.
What are the 3 circumstances for administering medication? What are the medications that may be administered by EMTs (depending of course on local protocol)? These medications are:
Oxygen,
Activated charcoal,
Oral glucose,
Aspirin,
Epinephrine auto-injector,
Meter-dose inhaler medications,
and,
Nitroglycerin.
These medications are:
Oxygen,
Activated charcoal,
Oral glucose,
Aspirin,
Epinephrine auto-injector,
Meter-dose inhaler medications,
and,
Nitroglycerin.
What are the medications that may be administered by EMTs (depending of course on local protocol)? What is Lipitor AKA atorvastatin used for? This is used to lower cholesterol. This is used to lower cholesterol. What is Lipitor AKA atorvastatin used for? What is montelukast AKA Singulair used for? This is used to help prevent asthma attacks. This is used to help prevent asthma attacks. What is montelukast AKA Singulair used for? What is escitalopram AKA Lexapro used for? This is used to treat depression. This is used to treat depression. What is escitalopram AKA Lexapro used for? What is esomeprazole AKA Nexium used for? This is used to treat gastric reflux. This is used to treat gastric reflux. What is esomeprazole AKA Nexium used for? What is levothyroxine AKA Synthroid used for? This is used to treat decreased thyroid functioning. This is used to treat decreased thyroid functioning. What is levothyroxine AKA Synthroid used for? What is clopidogrel AKA Plavix used for? This is used to prevent stroke and heart attack. This is used to prevent stroke and heart attack. What is clopidogrel AKA Plavix used for? What is metroprolol AKA Toprol used for? This is used to lower blood pressure. This is used to lower blood pressure. What is metroprolol AKA Toprol used for? What is lansoprazole AKA Prevacid used for? This is used to treat stomach ulcers. This is used to treat stomach ulcers. What is lansoprazole AKA Prevacid used for? What is ezetimibe and simvastatin AKA Vytorin AKA Zetia used for? This is used to lower cholesterol. This is used to lower cholesterol. What is ezetimibe and simvastatin AKA Vytorin AKA Zetia used for? What is fluticasone and salmeterol AKA Advair Diskus used for? This is used to treat asthma. This is used to treat asthma. What is fluticasone and salmeterol AKA Advair Diskus used for? What is cetirizine AKA Zyrtec used for? This is used to treat allergies. This is used to treat allergies. What is cetirizine AKA Zyrtec used for? What is venlafaxine AKA Effexor used for? This is used to treat depression. This is used to treat depression. What is venlafaxine AKA Effexor used for? What is pantoprazole AKA Protonix used for? This is used to treat gastic reflux. This is used to treat gastic reflux. What is pantoprazole AKA Protonix used for? What is valsartan AKA Diovan used for? This is used to treat high blood pressure. This is used to treat high blood pressure. What is valsartan AKA Diovan used for? What is alendronate AKA Fosamax used for? This is used to treat osteoporosis. This is used to treat osteoporosis. What is alendronate AKA Fosamax used for? What is potassium chloride AKA Klor-Con used for? This is used to treat low potassium levels. This is used to treat low potassium levels. What is potassium chloride AKA Klor-Con used for? What is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide AKA Diovan HCT used for? This is used to treat hypertension. This is used to treat hypertension. What is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide AKA Diovan HCT used for? What is levofloxacin AKA Levaquin? This is an antibiotic. This is an antibiotic. What is levofloxacin AKA Levaquin? What is polypharmacy? This refers to the use of multiple medications by one person. This refers to the use of multiple medications by one person. What is polypharmacy? What is a common bronchodilator? A common kind of this medication is albuterol (AKA Proventil or Ventolin). A common kind of this medication is albuterol (AKA Proventil or Ventolin). What is a common bronchodilator? What is another name for asthma? This is also known as reactive airway disease. This is also known as reactive airway disease. What is another name for asthma? What is the standard dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector? The standard dose for this is 0.3 mg. The standard dose for this is 0.3 mg. What is the standard dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector? What is epinephrine (AKA adrenaline), and what are its characteristics? This is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response and is the primary medication EMTs will administer IM. It is sympathomimetic, meaning it mimics the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
Characteristics of this chemical are:
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands.
Dilates passages in the lungs.
Constricts blood vessels, causing increased blood pressure.
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.

Contraindication for this include:
hypertension,
hypothermia,
myocardial infarction,
and,
no sign of wheezing or hypotension
This is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response and is the primary medication EMTs will administer IM. It is sympathomimetic, meaning it mimics the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
Characteristics of this chemical are:
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands.
Dilates passages in the lungs.
Constricts blood vessels, causing increased blood pressure.
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.

Contraindication for this include:
hypertension,
hypothermia,
myocardial infarction,
and,
no sign of wheezing or hypotension
What is epinephrine (AKA adrenaline), and what are its characteristics? What is nitroglycerin? The purpose of this is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to dilate. It does this by relaxing the muscular walls of the coronary arteries and veins. Always take the patient's blood pressure before administering this; if systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, do not administer this medication.
Contraindications for this include:
sildenafil (Viagra), tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or any other medications that are used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction taken in the previous 24 hours.
The purpose of this is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to dilate. It does this by relaxing the muscular walls of the coronary arteries and veins. Always take the patient's blood pressure before administering this; if systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, do not administer this medication.
Contraindications for this include:
sildenafil (Viagra), tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or any other medications that are used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction taken in the previous 24 hours.
What is nitroglycerin? What is the standard dose for nitroglycerin? The standard dose for this is .4 mg / pill. The standard dose for this is .4 mg / pill. What is the standard dose for nitroglycerin? How long should you wait between doses of nitroglycerin? You should wait 5 minutes before administering another dose of this. You should wait 5 minutes before administering another dose of this. How long should you wait between doses of nitroglycerin? What is aspirin (A.K.A. acetylsalicylic acid or A.S.A.)? This is an antipyretic (fever reducer), analgesic (reduces pain), and anti-inflammatory medication that also inhibits platelet aggregation. Taken during a heart attack, this may prove lifesaving. It should not be given to children during episodes of fever-causing illness due to its association with Reye syndrome (which causes swelling in the brain and liver). This is an antipyretic (fever reducer), analgesic (reduces pain), and anti-inflammatory medication that also inhibits platelet aggregation. Taken during a heart attack, this may prove lifesaving. It should not be given to children during episodes of fever-causing illness due to its association with Reye syndrome (which causes swelling in the brain and liver). What is aspirin (A.K.A. acetylsalicylic acid or A.S.A.)? What is adsorption? This means to bind or stick to a surface. This means to bind or stick to a surface. What is adsorption? What is the usual dose for activated charcoal? This is usually 1 to 2 grams per kilogram of body weight. This is usually 1 to 2 grams per kilogram of body weight. What is the usual dose for activated charcoal? As an EMT, what is the only way you can administer oral glucose? As an EMT, you can only administer this orally. As an EMT, you can only administer this orally. As an EMT, what is the only way you can administer oral glucose? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Acetaminophen / Tylenol? For this medication:
Action: Analgesic and antifever
Indications: Relief of mild pain or fever, headache, and muscle aches
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Allergic reaction
Interactions: Caution must be taken when EMTs are administering this to avoid potential overdosing.
Adult dose: 500 to 1000 mg every 4 hours as needed; dose is weight based for children.
Administration concerns: Weight of child is more important than age.
For this medication:
Action: Analgesic and antifever
Indications: Relief of mild pain or fever, headache, and muscle aches
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Allergic reaction
Interactions: Caution must be taken when EMTs are administering this to avoid potential overdosing.
Adult dose: 500 to 1000 mg every 4 hours as needed; dose is weight based for children.
Administration concerns: Weight of child is more important than age.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Acetaminophen / Tylenol? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of activated charcoal / actidose with Sorbitol? For this medication:
Action: Adsorbs toxic substances in the digestive tract.
Indications: Most oral poisonings; overdose.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness; overdose of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances.
Routes: PO.
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, constipation, black stool.
Interactions: Bonds with and inactivates most medications / substance in the digestive tract.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 grams per kilogram
Administration concerns: Stains; protect patient and provider clothing; do not give when giving other PO medications.
For this medication:
Action: Adsorbs toxic substances in the digestive tract.
Indications: Most oral poisonings; overdose.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness; overdose of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances.
Routes: PO.
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, constipation, black stool.
Interactions: Bonds with and inactivates most medications / substance in the digestive tract.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 grams per kilogram
Administration concerns: Stains; protect patient and provider clothing; do not give when giving other PO medications.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of activated charcoal / actidose with Sorbitol? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Aspirin / Bayer? For this medication:
Action: Anti-inflammatory agent and anti-fever agent; prevents platelets from clumping, thereby decreasing formation of new clots.
Indications: Relief of mild pain, headache, muscle aches, chest pain when considering myocardial infarction.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, recent bleeding.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Caution should be used in patients who are taking anticoagulants.
Adult dose: 160 to 325 mg for chest pain.
Administration concerns: Do not administer for pain cause by trauma or for fevers in children; patients with chest pain must be able to chew tablets.
For this medication:
Action: Anti-inflammatory agent and anti-fever agent; prevents platelets from clumping, thereby decreasing formation of new clots.
Indications: Relief of mild pain, headache, muscle aches, chest pain when considering myocardial infarction.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, recent bleeding.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Caution should be used in patients who are taking anticoagulants.
Adult dose: 160 to 325 mg for chest pain.
Administration concerns: Do not administer for pain cause by trauma or for fevers in children; patients with chest pain must be able to chew tablets.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Aspirin / Bayer? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Albuterol / Proventil, Ventolin? For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Asthma / difficulty breathing with wheezing.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, tachycardia, myocardial infarction.
Routes: MDI / inhalation.
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 inhalations; wait 5 minutes before repeating dose.
Administration concerns: Patient must inhale all medication in 1 breath; coach patient to hold breath for 5 seconds after inhalation.
For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Asthma / difficulty breathing with wheezing.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, tachycardia, myocardial infarction.
Routes: MDI / inhalation.
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 inhalations; wait 5 minutes before repeating dose.
Administration concerns: Patient must inhale all medication in 1 breath; coach patient to hold breath for 5 seconds after inhalation.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Albuterol / Proventil, Ventolin? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of diphenhydramine / Benadryl? For this medication:
Action: Antihistamine.
Indications: Mild allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Asthma, glaucoma, pregnancy, hypertension, infants.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Sleepiness, dry mouth, and throat.
Interactions: Do not take with alcohol or MAO inhibitors (a type of psychiatric medication).
Adult dose: 25 to 50 mg.
Administration concerns: Can use in severe allergic reaction; however, epinephrine is administered first.
For this medication:
Action: Antihistamine.
Indications: Mild allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Asthma, glaucoma, pregnancy, hypertension, infants.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Sleepiness, dry mouth, and throat.
Interactions: Do not take with alcohol or MAO inhibitors (a type of psychiatric medication).
Adult dose: 25 to 50 mg.
Administration concerns: Can use in severe allergic reaction; however, epinephrine is administered first.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of diphenhydramine / Benadryl? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Epinephrine / EpiPen? For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Severe allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Myocardial infarction, hypothermia, hypertension.
Routes: IM (auto-injector).
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 auto-injector.
Administration concerns: Medication will last approximately 5 minutes; do not repeat dose; ensure ALS is en route for continuing treatment.
For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Severe allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Myocardial infarction, hypothermia, hypertension.
Routes: IM (auto-injector).
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 auto-injector.
Administration concerns: Medication will last approximately 5 minutes; do not repeat dose; ensure ALS is en route for continuing treatment.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Epinephrine / EpiPen? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of ibuprofen / Advil, Motrin, Nuprin? For this medication:
Action: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that reduces inflammation and fever, analgesic.
Indications: Mild pain or fever, headache, muscle aches.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Do not take with aspirin.
Adult dose: 200 to 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours; dose is weight based in children.
Administration concerns: Do not take for pain caused by trauma; weight of child is more important than age.
For this medication:
Action: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that reduces inflammation and fever, analgesic.
Indications: Mild pain or fever, headache, muscle aches.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Do not take with aspirin.
Adult dose: 200 to 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours; dose is weight based in children.
Administration concerns: Do not take for pain caused by trauma; weight of child is more important than age.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of ibuprofen / Advil, Motrin, Nuprin? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of nitroglycerin / Nitrostat? For this medication:
Action: Dilates blood vessels.
Indications: Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.
Contraindications: Hypotension, having taken sildenafil (Viagra) or another treatment for erectile dysfunction with the past 24 hours; head injury.
Routes: SL / Spray.
Side Effects: Headache, burning under tongue, hypotension, nausea.
Interactions: Increases dilating effects of other blood vessel-dilating medications.
Adult dose: 0.3 to 0.4 mg SL; 0.4 mg spray.
Administration concerns: Ensure ALS is en route.
For this medication:
Action: Dilates blood vessels.
Indications: Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.
Contraindications: Hypotension, having taken sildenafil (Viagra) or another treatment for erectile dysfunction with the past 24 hours; head injury.
Routes: SL / Spray.
Side Effects: Headache, burning under tongue, hypotension, nausea.
Interactions: Increases dilating effects of other blood vessel-dilating medications.
Adult dose: 0.3 to 0.4 mg SL; 0.4 mg spray.
Administration concerns: Ensure ALS is en route.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of nitroglycerin / Nitrostat? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oral glucose / Glutose? For this medication:
Action: When absorbed, provides glucose for cell use.
Indications: Hypoglycemia.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting.
Interactions: None.
Adult dose: 1/2 to 1 tube.
Administration concerns: Patient must have control of airway and be awake and able to follow commands.
For this medication:
Action: When absorbed, provides glucose for cell use.
Indications: Hypoglycemia.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting.
Interactions: None.
Adult dose: 1/2 to 1 tube.
Administration concerns: Patient must have control of airway and be awake and able to follow commands.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oral glucose / Glutose? What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oxygen? For this medication:
Action: Reverses hypoxia, provides oxygen to be absorbed by lungs.
Indications: Hypoxia or suspected hypoxia.
Contraindications: Very rarely in patients with C.O.P.D.
Routes: Gas / Inhalation.
Side Effects: Decreased respiratory effort in rare cases in patients with C.O.P.D.
Interactions: Can support combustion.
Adult dose: Use oxygen delivery to administer 28% to 100% oxygen.
Administration concerns: No open flames nearby; do not withhold oxygen from patients in respiratory distress.
For this medication:
Action: Reverses hypoxia, provides oxygen to be absorbed by lungs.
Indications: Hypoxia or suspected hypoxia.
Contraindications: Very rarely in patients with C.O.P.D.
Routes: Gas / Inhalation.
Side Effects: Decreased respiratory effort in rare cases in patients with C.O.P.D.
Interactions: Can support combustion.
Adult dose: Use oxygen delivery to administer 28% to 100% oxygen.
Administration concerns: No open flames nearby; do not withhold oxygen from patients in respiratory distress.
What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oxygen? What is a neonate? This is a baby from birth to 1 month. This is a baby from birth to 1 month. What is a neonate? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of neonates (0 to 1 month)? For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 180;
Respirations: 30 to 60;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 50 to 70;
and,
Temperature: 98 to 100° Farenhait
For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 180;
Respirations: 30 to 60;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 50 to 70;
and,
Temperature: 98 to 100° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of neonates (0 to 1 month)? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of infants (1 month to 1 year)? For this group:
Pulse: 100 to 160;
Respirations: 25 to 50;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 70 to 95;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
For this group:
Pulse: 100 to 160;
Respirations: 25 to 50;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 70 to 95;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of infants (1 month to 1 year)? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of toddler (1 to 3 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 150;
Respirations: 20 to 30;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 150;
Respirations: 20 to 30;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of toddler (1 to 3 years)? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of preschool age children (3 to 6 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 80 to 140;
Respirations: 20 to 25;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
For this group:
Pulse: 80 to 140;
Respirations: 20 to 25;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of preschool age children (3 to 6 years)? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of school age children (6 to 12 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 70 to 120;
Respirations: 15 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
For this group:
Pulse: 70 to 120;
Respirations: 15 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of school age children (6 to 12 years)? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of early adults (19 to 40 years) and middle adults (41 to 60 years)? For these groups:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 140;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
For these groups:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 140;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of early adults (19 to 40 years) and middle adults (41 to 60 years)? What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of adolescents (12 to 18 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
For this group:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of adolescents (12 to 18 years)? What is the general rule for age and pulse rates / respirations? The general rule is: the younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations. The general rule is: the younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations. What is the general rule for age and pulse rates / respirations? What is the tidal volume in neonates? In this age group, the tidal volume is 6 to 8 mL per kg. In this age group, the tidal volume is 6 to 8 mL per kg. What is the tidal volume in neonates? How much does a neonate usually weigh at birth, what percent of their weight does their head account for, and how much weight do they gain as they develop? This group usually weighs 6 to 8 lbs (3 to 3.5 kg) at birth, with the head accounting for 25% of its body weight. In the first week, 5% to 10% of their birth weight is lost due to fluid loss. I n the second week, they start growing at a rate of about 30g a day. This group usually weighs 6 to 8 lbs (3 to 3.5 kg) at birth, with the head accounting for 25% of its body weight. In the first week, 5% to 10% of their birth weight is lost due to fluid loss. I n the second week, they start growing at a rate of about 30g a day. How much does a neonate usually weigh at birth, what percent of their weight does their head account for, and how much weight do they gain as they develop? What are some important considerations regarding a neonate's pulmonary system? "In the group:
1) Their first breath is forceful, as they must inflate their lungs.
2) This group is particularly prone to nasal congestion, which causes upper respiratory infections. If you recieve a call for choking, make sure the nasal passages are clear and unobstructed by mucus.
3) Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. This explains their diaphragmatic breathing (AKA ""belly breathing"").
" "In the group:
1) Their first breath is forceful, as they must inflate their lungs.
2) This group is particularly prone to nasal congestion, which causes upper respiratory infections. If you recieve a call for choking, make sure the nasal passages are clear and unobstructed by mucus.
3) Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. This explains their diaphragmatic breathing (AKA ""belly breathing"").
" What are some important considerations regarding a neonate's pulmonary system? What is barotrauma? This is trauma resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs. This is trauma resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs. What is barotrauma? What is the moro reflex? This (AKA startle reflex) is when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone; the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things. This (AKA startle reflex) is when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone; the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things. What is the moro reflex? What is the palmer grasp? This is an infant reflex; when an is object is placed in their palm, they grasp at the object. This is an infant reflex; when an is object is placed in their palm, they grasp at the object. What is the palmer grasp? What is the rooting reflex? This takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek; the neonate will instinctively turn his or her head toward the touch. This takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek; the neonate will instinctively turn his or her head toward the touch. What is the rooting reflex? What is the sucking reflex? This occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked. This occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked. What is the sucking reflex? What are fontanelles? These are areas where the infat's skull has not fused together; the posterior fuses by the third month; the anterior between 9 and 18 months. These are areas where the infat's skull has not fused together; the posterior fuses by the third month; the anterior between 9 and 18 months. What are fontanelles? If an infant's fontanelles' is depressed or bulging, what does that mean? If these are depressed, the infant is most likely dehydrated.
These bulging is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
If these are depressed, the infant is most likely dehydrated.
These bulging is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
If an infant's fontanelles' is depressed or bulging, what does that mean? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 2 months? At this age, the infant can recognize familar faces, and is able to track objects with their eyes. At this age, the infant can recognize familar faces, and is able to track objects with their eyes. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 2 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 3 months? At this age, the infant can bring objects to the mouth, and can smile and frown. At this age, the infant can bring objects to the mouth, and can smile and frown. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 3 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 4 months? At this age, the infant can reach out to people and drool. At this age, the infant can reach out to people and drool. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 4 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 5 months? At this age, the infant can sleep through the night, and can tell family from strangers. At this age, the infant can sleep through the night, and can tell family from strangers. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 5 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 6 months? At this age, teething begins; the infant can sit upright in a chair, and one-syllable words are spoken. At this age, teething begins; the infant can sit upright in a chair, and one-syllable words are spoken. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 6 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 7 months? At this age, the infant is afraid of strangers, and has mood swings. At this age, the infant is afraid of strangers, and has mood swings. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 7 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 8 months? "At this age, the infant responds to ""no"", can sit alone, and plays peek-a-boo." "At this age, the infant responds to ""no"", can sit alone, and plays peek-a-boo." What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 8 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 9 months? At this age, the infant can pull himself or herself up, and places objects in mouth to explore them, At this age, the infant can pull himself or herself up, and places objects in mouth to explore them, What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 9 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 10 months? At this age, the infant responds to his or her name, and crawls efficiently. At this age, the infant responds to his or her name, and crawls efficiently. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 10 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 11 months? At this age, the infant starts to walk without help, and can be frustrated with restrictions. At this age, the infant starts to walk without help, and can be frustrated with restrictions. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 11 months? What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 12 months? At this age, the infant knows his or her name, and can walk. At this age, the infant knows his or her name, and can walk. What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 12 months? What a secure attachment? "This occurs when an infant understands that parents or caregivers will be responsive to his or her needs. This realization encourages a child to reach out and explore, knowing that the parents will provide a ""safety net""." "This occurs when an infant understands that parents or caregivers will be responsive to his or her needs. This realization encourages a child to reach out and explore, knowing that the parents will provide a ""safety net""." What a secure attachment? What is anxious-avoidant attachment? In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others. In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others. What is anxious-avoidant attachment? What are some physical developments in toddlers and preschoolers? In these age groups:
1) The children do not have well-developed lung musculature. This anomaly prevents them from sustaining deep or rapid respirations for an extended period of time.
2) They lose passive immunity and acquire their own immunity as the body is exposed to various viruses and germs.
3) The average age for completion of toilet training is 28 months of age.
In these age groups:
1) The children do not have well-developed lung musculature. This anomaly prevents them from sustaining deep or rapid respirations for an extended period of time.
2) They lose passive immunity and acquire their own immunity as the body is exposed to various viruses and germs.
3) The average age for completion of toilet training is 28 months of age.
What are some physical developments in toddlers and preschoolers? At what age do children transition from using language to communicate what they want to using language creatively and playfully. This transition occurs by the age of 3 or 4. This transition occurs by the age of 3 or 4. At what age do children transition from using language to communicate what they want to using language creatively and playfully. How much do most school age children grow each year? This group grows about 4 lbs (2 kg) and 2 1/2 inches (6 cm) each year. This group grows about 4 lbs (2 kg) and 2 1/2 inches (6 cm) each year. How much do most school age children grow each year? What is pre-conventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. In this stage of development, children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. What is pre-conventional reasoning? What is conventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children look for approval from their peers and society. In this stage of development, children look for approval from their peers and society. What is conventional reasoning? What is postconventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children make decisions guided by their conscience. In this stage of development, children make decisions guided by their conscience. What is postconventional reasoning? What is atherosclerosis? In this disorder, cholesterol and calcium build-up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque. More than 60% of people older than 65 years ahve atherosclerotic disease. In this disorder, cholesterol and calcium build-up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque. More than 60% of people older than 65 years ahve atherosclerotic disease. What is atherosclerosis? What happens to the respiratory system of late adults? In this group:
1) The size of the airway increases.
2) The surface of the alveoli decreases.
and
3) Factors such as loss of respiratory muscle mass and an increased stiffness of the thoracic cage leads to up to a 50% decresse of vital capacity by age 75.
In this group:
1) The size of the airway increases.
2) The surface of the alveoli decreases.
and
3) Factors such as loss of respiratory muscle mass and an increased stiffness of the thoracic cage leads to up to a 50% decresse of vital capacity by age 75.
What happens to the respiratory system of late adults? What happens to the endocrine system of late adults? In this group:
As a person gains weight, more insulin is need to control the body's metabolism and blood glucose level. The pancreas may not be able to produce enough insulin for the person's body size, which can lead to diabetes mellitus.
In this group:
As a person gains weight, more insulin is need to control the body's metabolism and blood glucose level. The pancreas may not be able to produce enough insulin for the person's body size, which can lead to diabetes mellitus.
What happens to the endocrine system of late adults? What happens to the digestive system of late adults? In this group:
Blood flow may drop by as much as 50%, decreasing the ability of the intestines to extract vitamins and minerals from digested food.
In this group:
Blood flow may drop by as much as 50%, decreasing the ability of the intestines to extract vitamins and minerals from digested food.
What happens to the digestive system of late adults? What happens to the renal system of late adults? In this group:
1) The filtration function of the kidneys declines by 50% from age 20 to age 90.
2) Kidney mass decreases by 20% over the same span.
3) The number of nephrons (capillaries that perform filtering in the kidney) also decreases, which leads to a decrease in the ability to clear wastes from the body.
In this group:
1) The filtration function of the kidneys declines by 50% from age 20 to age 90.
2) Kidney mass decreases by 20% over the same span.
3) The number of nephrons (capillaries that perform filtering in the kidney) also decreases, which leads to a decrease in the ability to clear wastes from the body.
What happens to the renal system of late adults? What happens to the nervous system of late adults? In this group:
1) The brain may shrink 10% to 20% by age 80, increasing the possibility of internal trauma.
2) The number of neurons (brain cells) declines over one's lifetime.
3) The peripheral nervous system also slows with age.
In this group:
1) The brain may shrink 10% to 20% by age 80, increasing the possibility of internal trauma.
2) The number of neurons (brain cells) declines over one's lifetime.
3) The peripheral nervous system also slows with age.
What happens to the nervous system of late adults? What is the terminal drop hypothesis? This is a theory that a person's mental function declines in the last five years of life. This is a theory that a person's mental function declines in the last five years of life. What is the terminal drop hypothesis? What percentage of single women of 60 years of age or older live at or below the poverty line in the United States. More than 50% of this group live at or below the poverty line in the United States. More than 50% of this group live at or below the poverty line in the United States. What percentage of single women of 60 years of age or older live at or below the poverty line in the United States. What is topographic anatomy? This is the landmarks of the surface of the body used to orient treatment. This is the landmarks of the surface of the body used to orient treatment. What is topographic anatomy? What is the anatomic position? This is a position of reference in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward. To be consistent, health care providers use the patient's left and right as reference point. This is a position of reference in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward. To be consistent, health care providers use the patient's left and right as reference point. What is the anatomic position? What are the three planes of the body? These are:
1) Frontol (coronal) plane - Anterior vs. posterior.
2) Transverse (horizontal) plane - Superior vs. inferior.
and
3) Sagittal plane - medial vs. lateral.
These are:
1) Frontol (coronal) plane - Anterior vs. posterior.
2) Transverse (horizontal) plane - Superior vs. inferior.
and
3) Sagittal plane - medial vs. lateral.
What are the three planes of the body? What is the opposite of superficial (closest to the surface of the skin)? The opposite of this is deep (farthest from the surface of the skin). The opposite of this is deep (farthest from the surface of the skin). What is the opposite of superficial (closest to the surface of the skin)? What is the palmar surface? This is another term for the palm. This is another term for the palm. What is the palmar surface? What is the plantar surface? This is another term for the bottom of the foot. This is another term for the bottom of the foot. What is the plantar surface? What is the apex (plural apices)? This is the tip of a structure. This is the tip of a structure. What is the apex (plural apices)? What is flexion? This is the bending of a joint. This is the bending of a joint. What is flexion? What is extension? This is the straightening of a joint. This is the straightening of a joint. What is extension? What is adduction? This is motion toward the midline. This is motion toward the midline. What is adduction? What is abduction? This is motion away from the midline. This is motion away from the midline. What is abduction? What does it mean if something is said to occur unilaterally? This means something appears on only one side of the body. This means something appears on only one side of the body. What does it mean if something is said to occur unilaterally? What are ligaments? These connect bones to other bones. These connect bones to other bones. What are ligaments? What are tendons? These connect muscles to bones. These connect muscles to bones. What are tendons? What is cartilage? This is the soft, semiflexible material that is found within the joints and serves as cushioning. This is the soft, semiflexible material that is found within the joints and serves as cushioning. What is cartilage? What is the axial skeleton? This forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung. It is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cavity, and vertebral column. This forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung. It is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cavity, and vertebral column. What is the axial skeleton? What is the appendicular skeleton? This is composed of the arms and legs, their connective points, and the pelvis. This is composed of the arms and legs, their connective points, and the pelvis. What is the appendicular skeleton? How many bones are there in the body? There are 206 of these. There are 206 of these. How many bones are there in the body? What is the foramen magnum? This is a large opening at the base of the skull. This is a large opening at the base of the skull. What is the foramen magnum? What are the maxillae? These are the upper, non-moveable jawbones. These are the upper, non-moveable jawbones. What are the maxillae? What are the zygomas? These are the cheekbones. These are the cheekbones. What are the zygomas? What is the orbit? This is the eye socket. This is the eye socket. What is the orbit? How many vertebrae are there in the body? There are 33 of these in the body. There are 33 of these in the body. How many vertebrae are there in the body? What are the five sections of the spine, and how many vertebrae in each? These are the:
1) Cervical - 7
2) Thoracic - 12
3) Lumbar - 5
4) Sacrum - 5
5) Coccyx - 4
These are the:
1) Cervical - 7
2) Thoracic - 12
3) Lumbar - 5
4) Sacrum - 5
5) Coccyx - 4
What are the five sections of the spine, and how many vertebrae in each? How many pairs of ribs are there in the body? There are 12 pairs of these. There are 12 pairs of these. How many pairs of ribs are there in the body? What is the sternum? This is the midline of the chest. It's bordered superiorly by the easily palpable jugular notch. It has three components: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.  This is the midline of the chest. It's bordered superiorly by the easily palpable jugular notch. It has three components: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.  What is the sternum? What is the xiphoid process. This is a narrow, cartilaginous tip which forms the inferior part of the sternum. This is a narrow, cartilaginous tip which forms the inferior part of the sternum. What is the xiphoid process. What is the shoulder girdle? This is where three bones (the clavicle, scapula, and humerus) come together, allowing the arm to be moved. This is where three bones (the clavicle, scapula, and humerus) come together, allowing the arm to be moved. What is the shoulder girdle? What is the clavicle (AKA the collarbone)? This overlies the superior boundaries of the thorax in fonrt and articulates posteriorly with the scapula. This overlies the superior boundaries of the thorax in fonrt and articulates posteriorly with the scapula. What is the clavicle (AKA the collarbone)? What is the scapula? This lies in the muscular tissue of the posterior thoracic wall. This lies in the muscular tissue of the posterior thoracic wall. What is the scapula? What two bones compose the forearm? This is composed of the ulna (medial, larger in the proximal) and radius (lateral, larger in the distal). This is composed of the ulna (medial, larger in the proximal) and radius (lateral, larger in the distal). What two bones compose the forearm? What bones make up the pelvis? This is made up of the sacrum and the two pelvic bones, each of which is formed by the fusion of three separate bones, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis, joined posteriorly by the sacrum. This is made up of the sacrum and the two pelvic bones, each of which is formed by the fusion of three separate bones, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis, joined posteriorly by the sacrum. What bones make up the pelvis? What is the pubis symphysis? This is a hard and bony cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowest portion of the abdomen, where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion. This is a hard and bony cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowest portion of the abdomen, where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion. What is the pubis symphysis? What is the acetabulum? "This is the part of the pelvis where the lower leg connects, the ""socket"" in which the ""ball"" of the femur fits." "This is the part of the pelvis where the lower leg connects, the ""socket"" in which the ""ball"" of the femur fits." What is the acetabulum? What is the greater trochanter? This is the projection on the lateral / superior portion of the femur. This is the projection on the lateral / superior portion of the femur. What is the greater trochanter? What is the lesser trochanter? This is the medial / superior portion of the femur. This is the medial / superior portion of the femur. What is the lesser trochanter? What is the patella? This is the kneecap. This is the kneecap. What is the patella? What is the tibia (shine bone)? This is the larger bone of lower leg. It lies in the anterior of the leg. This is the larger bone of lower leg. It lies in the anterior of the leg. What is the tibia (shine bone)? What is the fibula? This is the smaller of the bones in the lower leg. It lies on the lateral side of the leg. This is the smaller of the bones in the lower leg. It lies on the lateral side of the leg. What is the fibula? What is joint capsules? These are fibrous sacs composed of ligaments at the end of bones, and assist in flexion. These are fibrous sacs composed of ligaments at the end of bones, and assist in flexion. What is joint capsules? What is the synovial membrane? This is special tissue on the inner lining of the joint capsule that is responsible for making a thick lubricant called synovial fluid. This fluid allows the ends of bones to glide over each other as opposed to grating. This is special tissue on the inner lining of the joint capsule that is responsible for making a thick lubricant called synovial fluid. This fluid allows the ends of bones to glide over each other as opposed to grating. What is the synovial membrane? What is the difference between ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints? The first allows rotation and bending (as in the shoulder joint), while the second restricts motion to one plane (as in the knee). The first allows rotation and bending (as in the shoulder joint), while the second restricts motion to one plane (as in the knee). What is the difference between ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints? What is the skeletal system responsible for? This is resonsible for:
1) giving the body shape.
2) providing protection of fragile organs.
3) allowing for movement.
And,
4) helping with the creation of various types of blood cells.
This is resonsible for:
1) giving the body shape.
2) providing protection of fragile organs.
3) allowing for movement.
And,
4) helping with the creation of various types of blood cells.
What is the skeletal system responsible for? How many different muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system? There are over 600 of these. There are over 600 of these. How many different muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system? What are skeletal muscles (AKA voluntary muscles)? These attach to the bones of the skeleton and forms the major muscle mass of the body. They are under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be stimulated to contract or relax at will. These attach to the bones of the skeleton and forms the major muscle mass of the body. They are under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be stimulated to contract or relax at will. What are skeletal muscles (AKA voluntary muscles)? What is smooth muscle? This is found within blood vessels and intestines. This is found within blood vessels and intestines. What is smooth muscle? What is cardiac muscle? This is found only within the heart. This is found only within the heart. What is cardiac muscle? What is the epiglottis? These is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that protects the opening of the trachea. These is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that protects the opening of the trachea. What is the epiglottis? What is the location and function of the biceps? This is located anterior to the humerus,
and,
flexes the lower arm.
This is located anterior to the humerus,
and,
flexes the lower arm.
What is the location and function of the biceps? What is the location and function of the triceps? This is located posterior to the humerus,
and,
extends the lower arm.
This is located posterior to the humerus,
and,
extends the lower arm.
What is the location and function of the triceps? What is the location and function of the pectoralis? This is located anterior to the thorax,
and,
flexes and rotates the arm.
This is located anterior to the thorax,
and,
flexes and rotates the arm.
What is the location and function of the pectoralis? What is the location and function of the latissimus dorsi? This is located posterior to the thorax,
and,
extends and rotates the arm.
This is located posterior to the thorax,
and,
extends and rotates the arm.
What is the location and function of the latissimus dorsi? What is the location and function of the rectus abdominis? This is located anterior to the abdomen,
and,
flexes and rotates the spine.
This is located anterior to the abdomen,
and,
flexes and rotates the spine.
What is the location and function of the rectus abdominis? What is the location and function of the tibialis anterior? This is located anterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes towards the heads.
This is located anterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes towards the heads.
What is the location and function of the tibialis anterior? What is the location and function of the gastrocnemius? This is located posterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes away from the head.
This is located posterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes away from the head.
What is the location and function of the gastrocnemius? What is the location and function of the quadriceps? This is located anterior to the femur,
and,
extends the lower leg.
This is located anterior to the femur,
and,
extends the lower leg.
What is the location and function of the quadriceps? What is the location and function of the biceps femoris? This is located posterior to the femur,
and,
flexes the lower leg.
This is located posterior to the femur,
and,
flexes the lower leg.
What is the location and function of the biceps femoris? What is the location and function of the gluteus? This is located posterior to the pelvis,
and,
extends and rotates the leg.
This is located posterior to the pelvis,
and,
extends and rotates the leg.
What is the location and function of the gluteus? What is another name for the larynx? Another name for this is the voice box. Another name for this is the voice box. What is another name for the larynx? What is the cricothyroid membrane? This lies between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. It can be felt as a depression in the midline of the neck just inferior to the thyroid cartilage. This lies between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. It can be felt as a depression in the midline of the neck just inferior to the thyroid cartilage. What is the cricothyroid membrane? What kind of muscle is the diaphragm? This is unique because it has characteristics of skeletal and smooth muscle. This is unique because it has characteristics of skeletal and smooth muscle. What kind of muscle is the diaphragm? How does the body detect decreased blood pressure, and what will it do as a result? The body detects this situation by the baroreceptors, and will initiate the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. The body detects this situation by the baroreceptors, and will initiate the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. How does the body detect decreased blood pressure, and what will it do as a result? What is the V/Q ratio? This examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is gaining access to the alveoli. This examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is gaining access to the alveoli. What is the V/Q ratio? What is pathophysiology? This is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular disease. This is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular disease. What is pathophysiology? What is normal physiologic pH? This is normally between 7.35 and 7.45 pH. This is normally between 7.35 and 7.45 pH. What is normal physiologic pH? What is sodium bicarbonate? This is an alkaline and helps to buffer or neutralize the acidic waste products of the cells. This is an alkaline and helps to buffer or neutralize the acidic waste products of the cells. What is sodium bicarbonate? What is lactic acid? This is the metabolic end product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (AKA anaerobic respiration). This is the metabolic end product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (AKA anaerobic respiration). What is lactic acid? What is the endocrine system? This is a complex message and control system that uses hormones to stimulate the body. This is a complex message and control system that uses hormones to stimulate the body. What is the endocrine system? In a healthy adult, what percent of total body weight is delivered as fluid daily to the gastrointestinal tract? About 7% of this is delivered. If significant vomiting or diarrhea occurs for more than 2 or 3 days, the person will lose a substantial portion of body composition and become severely ill. About 7% of this is delivered. If significant vomiting or diarrhea occurs for more than 2 or 3 days, the person will lose a substantial portion of body composition and become severely ill. In a healthy adult, what percent of total body weight is delivered as fluid daily to the gastrointestinal tract? What are enzymes? These are substance catalysts designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions. These are substance catalysts designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions. What are enzymes? What are hormones? These are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. They regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature. These are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. They regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature. What are hormones? What is bile? This is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and emptied as needed into the duodenum. Its major function is the digestion of fat. This is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and emptied as needed into the duodenum. Its major function is the digestion of fat. What is bile? What is chyme? This is ingested food converted in the stomach into a thoroughly mixed semisolid mass. This is ingested food converted in the stomach into a thoroughly mixed semisolid mass. What is chyme? How much saliva is produced daily? Approximately 1.5 litres of this is produced daily. Approximately 1.5 litres of this is produced daily. How much saliva is produced daily? What is the average stroke volume (SV) of an adult heart? This is 70 to 80 mL each on average. This is 70 to 80 mL each on average. What is the average stroke volume (SV) of an adult heart? What is the average cardiac output (CO) of an adult? This is 5 to 6 litres. This is 5 to 6 litres. What is the average cardiac output (CO) of an adult? What are the two electrical processes associated with the mechanical contraction of the heart? These are:
1) depolarization, when the electrical charge on the muscle cell surface changes from positive to negative.
And,
2) repolarization, when the heart returns to its resting state and positive charge is restored to the surface.
These are:
1) depolarization, when the electrical charge on the muscle cell surface changes from positive to negative.
And,
2) repolarization, when the heart returns to its resting state and positive charge is restored to the surface.
What are the two electrical processes associated with the mechanical contraction of the heart? What is the path of the electrical impulse that produces the a smooth flow of electricity through the heart? This begins high in the atria at the sinoatrial node, then travels to the atrioventricular node bundle of His, and moves through the Purkinje fivers to the ventricles. This begins high in the atria at the sinoatrial node, then travels to the atrioventricular node bundle of His, and moves through the Purkinje fivers to the ventricles. What is the path of the electrical impulse that produces the a smooth flow of electricity through the heart? What is the chordae tendineae? These are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. These are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. What is the chordae tendineae? What is the tunica media? This is the middle layer of the artery, and is where the smooth muscles are found that can contract and dilate to change the diameter of the blood vessels. This is the middle layer of the artery, and is where the smooth muscles are found that can contract and dilate to change the diameter of the blood vessels. What is the tunica media? What are the coronary arteries? These supply the heart. These supply the heart. What are the coronary arteries? What are the carotid arteries? These supply the head. These supply the head. What are the carotid arteries? What are the hepatic arteries? These supply the liver with blood. These supply the liver with blood. What are the hepatic arteries? What are the renal arteries? These supply the kidneys with blood. These supply the kidneys with blood. What are the renal arteries? What are the mesenteric arteries? These supply the digestive system with blood. These supply the digestive system with blood. What are the mesenteric arteries? What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)? This is the resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels. This is the resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels. What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)? How much blood is in the spleen at any one time? Approximately 450 mL of blood is in this organ at any one time. Virtually all the blood in the body passes through here during the day, where it is filtered. Approximately 450 mL of blood is in this organ at any one time. Virtually all the blood in the body passes through here during the day, where it is filtered. How much blood is in the spleen at any one time? What is blood plasma composed of? This is composed of:
92% water,
7% proteins such as albumin which regulates oncotic pressure,
and
the final 1% is oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, nutrients, cellular wastes, and other cellular products.
This is composed of:
92% water,
7% proteins such as albumin which regulates oncotic pressure,
and
the final 1% is oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, nutrients, cellular wastes, and other cellular products.
What is blood plasma composed of? How much blood does a child have in their body? This group has approximately 2 to 3 litres, depending on their age and size. This group has approximately 2 to 3 litres, depending on their age and size. How much blood does a child have in their body? How much blood does an infant have in their body? This group has only about 300 mL in their body. This group has only about 300 mL in their body. How much blood does an infant have in their body? How much blood is in the heart, arteries, and capillaries versus the veins and venules? The ratio is approximately 30% in the former group, and 70% in the later group. The ratio is approximately 30% in the former group, and 70% in the later group. How much blood is in the heart, arteries, and capillaries versus the veins and venules? What is interstitial space? This is the space between cells. This is the space between cells. What is interstitial space? What are alpha-adrenergic receptors? These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause constriction of blood vessels. These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause constriction of blood vessels. What are alpha-adrenergic receptors? What are beta-adrenergic receptors? These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation. These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation. What are beta-adrenergic receptors? What are the three parts of the brain stem? These are:
1) the midbrain,
2) the pons,
and 3) the medulla oblongata.
These are:
1) the midbrain,
2) the pons,
and 3) the medulla oblongata.
What are the three parts of the brain stem? What is the parasympathetic nervous system? This is the other half of the autonomic nervous system and generally slow down the body. This is the other half of the autonomic nervous system and generally slow down the body. What is the parasympathetic nervous system? What are the 2 layers of the skin? These are:
1) The epidermis; at its base is the germinal layer, which continuously produces new cells.
2) The dermis; the sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, hair follices, blood vessels, and specialized nerve endings are located here.
These are:
1) The epidermis; at its base is the germinal layer, which continuously produces new cells.
2) The dermis; the sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, hair follices, blood vessels, and specialized nerve endings are located here.
What are the 2 layers of the skin? How long does it take for cells produced in the germinal layer to rise to the stratum corneal layer? This journey takes about 4 weeks. This journey takes about 4 weeks. How long does it take for cells produced in the germinal layer to rise to the stratum corneal layer? What is the location, function, and timing of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)? For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes inspiration when stimulated.
Timing: Normal, resting respirations; rhythmic, mechanical pattern.
For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes inspiration when stimulated.
Timing: Normal, resting respirations; rhythmic, mechanical pattern.
What is the location, function, and timing of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)? What is the location, function, and timing of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)? For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes expiration or inspiration.
Timing: Speech, increased emotional or physical stress.
For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes expiration or inspiration.
Timing: Speech, increased emotional or physical stress.
What is the location, function, and timing of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)? What is the location, function, and timing of the Pneumotaxic (pontine) center? For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
What is the location, function, and timing of the Pneumotaxic (pontine) center? What is the location, function, and timing of the apneustic center? For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration, decreases rate.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration, decreases rate.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
What is the location, function, and timing of the apneustic center? What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex (stretch reflex)? For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects lung expansion to a point and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects lung expansion to a point and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex (stretch reflex)? What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex? For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects potential lung collapse and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects potential lung collapse and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the adrenal gland? For this gland:
Location: Above the kidneys.
Function: Stress response, fight or flight.
Hormones produced: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and others.
For this gland:
Location: Above the kidneys.
Function: Stress response, fight or flight.
Hormones produced: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and others.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the adrenal gland? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the ovary? For this gland:
Location: Female pelvis.
Function: Regulates sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Estrogen and others.
For this gland:
Location: Female pelvis.
Function: Regulates sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Estrogen and others.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the ovary? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pancreas? For this gland:
Location: Retroperitoneal space.
Function: Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions.
Hormones produced: Insulin and others.
For this gland:
Location: Retroperitoneal space.
Function: Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions.
Hormones produced: Insulin and others.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pancreas? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the parathyroid? For this gland:
Location: Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)
Function: Regulates serum calcium.
Hormones produced: Parathyroid hormone.
For this gland:
Location: Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)
Function: Regulates serum calcium.
Hormones produced: Parathyroid hormone.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the parathyroid? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pituitary gland? For this gland:
Location: Base of skull.
Function: Regulates all other endocrine glands.
Hormones produced: Multiple, controls other endocrine glands.
For this gland:
Location: Base of skull.
Function: Regulates all other endocrine glands.
Hormones produced: Multiple, controls other endocrine glands.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pituitary gland? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the testes? For this gland:
Location: Male scrotum.
Function: Regulate sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Testosterone and others.
For this gland:
Location: Male scrotum.
Function: Regulate sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Testosterone and others.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the testes? What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the thyroid? For this gland:
Location: Neck (over the larynx).
Function: Regulates metabolism.
Hormones produced: Thyroxine and others.
For this gland:
Location: Neck (over the larynx).
Function: Regulates metabolism.
Hormones produced: Thyroxine and others.
What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the thyroid? What is one example of an additional skill that an AEMT can perform that a standard EMT-B cannot? One example of this is esophageal-tracheal intubation. One example of this is esophageal-tracheal intubation. What is one example of an additional skill that an AEMT can perform that a standard EMT-B cannot? What are the responsibilities of the medical director? This person uses their license to allow EMT-Bs to provide prehospital care, and is responsible for the quality of treatment given. They are also responsible for ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training, ensuring the appropriate standards are met by EMT-Bs, and serving as liaison with the medical community. This person uses their license to allow EMT-Bs to provide prehospital care, and is responsible for the quality of treatment given. They are also responsible for ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training, ensuring the appropriate standards are met by EMT-Bs, and serving as liaison with the medical community. What are the responsibilities of the medical director? What are standing orders? "These are specific policies issued by a medical director that authorizes an EMT to perform particular skills in certain situations (for example: ""if a patient has a blood sugar below 60, administer oral glucose"")." "These are specific policies issued by a medical director that authorizes an EMT to perform particular skills in certain situations (for example: ""if a patient has a blood sugar below 60, administer oral glucose"")." What are standing orders? What does continuous quality improvement (AKA CQI) involve? This involves:
Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.
Discussion of needs for improvement.
And,
Periodic reviews of run reports.
This involves:
Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.
Discussion of needs for improvement.
And,
Periodic reviews of run reports.
What does continuous quality improvement (AKA CQI) involve? Who is responsible for maintaining quality control? This responsibility ultimately rests with the medical director. This responsibility ultimately rests with the medical director. Who is responsible for maintaining quality control? What is always an EMT-Bs first priority during a call? This is always personal safety. This is always personal safety. What is always an EMT-Bs first priority during a call? What are some essential skills an EMT-B needs to learn? Some examples of this include:
Verbal and written communication skills.
Dealing with medical, legal, and ethical situations,
and,
Delivering a baby.
Some examples of this include:
Verbal and written communication skills.
Dealing with medical, legal, and ethical situations,
and,
Delivering a baby.
What are some essential skills an EMT-B needs to learn? "What are the ten standards identified by the ""Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards"" provided by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration?" These are:
1) regulation and policy,
2) resource management,
3) human resources and training,
4) transportation,
5) facilities,
6) communications,
7) public information and education,
8) medical direction,
9) trauma systems,
and
10) evaluation.
These are:
1) regulation and policy,
2) resource management,
3) human resources and training,
4) transportation,
5) facilities,
6) communications,
7) public information and education,
8) medical direction,
9) trauma systems,
and
10) evaluation.
"What are the ten standards identified by the ""Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards"" provided by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration?" What is online medical control? This is when you are in direct contact with a doctor concerning the current patient. This is when you are in direct contact with a doctor concerning the current patient. What is online medical control? What is another term for medical direction? Another term for this is medical control. Another term for this is medical control. What is another term for medical direction? What is the list of steps taken in different situations, and developed by a medical director, called? These are referred to as protocols. These are referred to as protocols. What is the list of steps taken in different situations, and developed by a medical director, called? What federal agency has developed standards for training and development of the EMS system? This agency is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. This agency is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. What federal agency has developed standards for training and development of the EMS system? What are some components of the EMS system? Some components of this include:
911 Dispatchers,
Patients,
EMS personnel,
and First Responders.
Some components of this include:
911 Dispatchers,
Patients,
EMS personnel,
and First Responders.
What are some components of the EMS system? What is one of the most important safeguards against legal problems? A complete, accurate report is one of the most important safeguards against this. The courts consider an incomplete or untidy report to be evidence of incomplete or unexpert care provided. A complete, accurate report is one of the most important safeguards against this. The courts consider an incomplete or untidy report to be evidence of incomplete or unexpert care provided. What is one of the most important safeguards against legal problems? What is an advanced directive (AKA health care directive)? This is a written document that specifies medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions. This is a written document that specifies medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions. What is an advanced directive (AKA health care directive)? What are DNR orders? These are written documentation that give medical personnel permission not to attempt resuscitation. These are written documentation that give medical personnel permission not to attempt resuscitation. What are DNR orders? What is assualt? This is anytime you unlawfully place a person in fear of immediate bodily harm without his consent. This is anytime you unlawfully place a person in fear of immediate bodily harm without his consent. What is assualt? What is battery? This is defined as unlawfully touching a person without his or her consent. This is defined as unlawfully touching a person without his or her consent. What is battery? What is abandonment? This is unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient. This is unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient. What is abandonment? What is defamation? This is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community. This is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community. What is defamation? What is expressed consent (AKA actual consent)? This is a type of consent in which a patient give express authorization for provision of care or transport. This is a type of consent in which a patient give express authorization for provision of care or transport. What is expressed consent (AKA actual consent)? What is implied consent? This is a type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment. This is a type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment. What is implied consent? What is informed consent? This is permission for treatment given by a compentent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained. This is permission for treatment given by a compentent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained. What is informed consent? What are Good Samaritan Laws? These are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence. These are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence. What are Good Samaritan Laws? What is breach of duty? This is anytime the EMT-B does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care. This includes providing care above the level of your training. This is anytime the EMT-B does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care. This includes providing care above the level of your training. What is breach of duty? What is the first key rule of lifting? The first key rule of this is to always keep your back in an upright position and lift without twisting. The first key rule of this is to always keep your back in an upright position and lift without twisting. What is the first key rule of lifting? What is the safest and most powerful way to lift? The power lift is this kind of lift. The power lift is this kind of lift. What is the safest and most powerful way to lift? How many rescuers should you use whenever possible, and who is responsible for coordinating the moves? You should try to have four of these whenever resourcers allow; the team leader is responsible for this. You should try to have four of these whenever resourcers allow; the team leader is responsible for this. How many rescuers should you use whenever possible, and who is responsible for coordinating the moves? What is the most commonly used device to move and transport patients? The wheeled ambulance stretcher is the most commonly used one of these. The wheeled ambulance stretcher is the most commonly used one of these. What is the most commonly used device to move and transport patients? What are devices used to carry patients? Types of these devices include:
The wheeled ambulance stretchers,
Portable stretchers,
Flexible stretchers,
Backboards,
Basket stretchers (AKA Stokes litters),
Scoop stretchers,
and,
Stair chairs.
Types of these devices include:
The wheeled ambulance stretchers,
Portable stretchers,
Flexible stretchers,
Backboards,
Basket stretchers (AKA Stokes litters),
Scoop stretchers,
and,
Stair chairs.
What are devices used to carry patients? What is bariatrics? This is a branch of medicine concerned with the management, prevention and control of obesity and allied diseases. This is a branch of medicine concerned with the management, prevention and control of obesity and allied diseases. What is bariatrics? What is a basket stretcher (AKA a Stokes litter)? This is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. This is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. What is a basket stretcher (AKA a Stokes litter)? What is a diamond carry? This is a carrying technique in which one EMT is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the EMTs at the sides use one hand to support the stretcher / backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. This is a carrying technique in which one EMT is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the EMTs at the sides use one hand to support the stretcher / backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. What is a diamond carry? What is the direct ground lift? This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. What is the direct ground lift? What is an emergency move? This is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided. This is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided. What is an emergency move? What is an extremity lift? This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injury. This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injury. What is an extremity lift? What is a flexible stretcher? This is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use. This is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use. What is a flexible stretcher? What is a portable stretcher? This is a stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. This is a stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. What is a portable stretcher? What is a power grip? This is a technique in which the litter or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb. This is a technique in which the litter or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb. What is a power grip? What is the power lift? This is a lifting technique in which the EMTs' back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. This is a lifting technique in which the EMTs' back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. What is the power lift? What is the rapid extrication technique? This is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. This is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. What is the rapid extrication technique? AAA  abdominal aortic aneurysm abd  abdomen An [...] is an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications. An advanced EMT (AEMT) is an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications.
[...] are advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.
Advanced life support (ALS) are advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.

The [...] is a comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.
The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) is a comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.

An [...] is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and deliver the appropriate electrical shock to the patient. An automated external difibrillator (AED) is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and deliver the appropriate electrical shock to the patient.
[...] is a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care. A certification is a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.
[...] is a healthcare model in which experience paramedics recieve advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or condition, and patient advocacy. 
Community paramedicine is a healthcare model in which experience paramedics recieve advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or condition, and patient advocacy. 

[...] is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.
Continuous quality improvement (CQI) is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.

[...] is a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.
Emergency medical dispatch (EMD) is a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.

An [...] is the first trained professional, such as police officer, firefighters, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance. An emergency medical responder (EMR) is the first trained professional, such as police officer, firefighters, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance.
[...] is a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.
Emergency medical services (EMS) is a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.

An [...] is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, used of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications. An emergency medical technician (EMT) is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, used of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications.
HIPAA stands for [...] "HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
" [...] is federal legislation passed in 1996. It's main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information andp enalizing violations of patient privacy.
HIPAA is federal legislation passed in 1996. It's main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information andp enalizing violations of patient privacy.

[...] is the delivery of medication direction into a vein.
Intravenous (IV) therapy is the delivery of medication direction into a vein.

[...] is the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
Licensure is the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.

[...] are physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (offline/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.
Medical control are physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (offline/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.

The [...] is the physican who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field. The medical director is the physican who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field.
[...] is a method delivering health care which involves providing healthcare withing the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital. Mobile integrated healthcare (MIH) is a method delivering health care which involves providing healthcare withing the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital.
The [...] is a document created by the NHTSA that outlines the skills perfored by various EMS providers. The National EMS Scope of Practice Model is a document created by the NHTSA that outlines the skills perfored by various EMS providers.
[...] is an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills. A paramedic is an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.
[...] are efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occuring.
Primary prevention are efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occuring.

The [...] is the designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital. The primary service area (PSA) is the designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital.
[...] is focused on examining that health needs of entire popilations with the goal of preventing health probelms.
Public health is focused on examining that health needs of entire popilations with the goal of preventing health probelms.

[...] is a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services. A public safety access point is a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services.
[...] is the responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care stadards are met by EMTS on each call.
Quality control is the responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care stadards are met by EMTS on each call.

[...] are efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.
Secondary prevention are efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.

[...] are reactions to stress that occur during a stressful reaction.
Acute stress reactions are reactions to stress that occur during a stressful reaction.

[...] is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust.
Airborne transmission is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust.

[...] are pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and HIV.
Bloodborne pathogens are pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and HIV.

The [...] is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US. It is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US. It is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services.
[...] is a disease that can be spread from one person to another. A communicable disease is a disease that can be spread from one person to another.
[...] is the use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
Concealment is the use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.

[...] is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such  as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
Contamination is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such  as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.

[...] is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.
Cover is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.

[...] is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.
Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.

[...] are prolonged or excessive stress.
Cumulative stress reactions are prolonged or excessive stress.

[...] are reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.
Delayed stress reactions are reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.

The [...] is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues. The designated officer is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues.
[...] is exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact Direct contact is exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact
[...] is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.
Exposure is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.

[...] is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.
Foodborne transmission is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.

[...] is the body's respnose to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.
General adaptation syndrome is the body's respnose to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.

[...] is inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.
Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.

[...] is the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent. A host is the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent.
[...] leads to acquired immunodeficiency symdorme, which damaged the cells in the bodys immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.
Human immunodeficieny virus (HIV) leads to acquired immunodeficiency symdorme, which damaged the cells in the bodys immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.

[...] is the bodys ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.
Immunity is the bodys ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.

[...] is exposure or trasmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.
Indirect contact is exposure or trasmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.

[...] is the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by oranisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites with or without signs or symptoms or disease.
Infection is the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by oranisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites with or without signs or symptoms or disease.

[...] are procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.
Infection control are procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.

An [...] is a medical condition caused by the growtha nd spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. An infectious disease is a medical condition caused by the growtha nd spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
The [...] is the federal regulatory and compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is the federal regulatory and compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace.
[...] is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host. "A pathogen is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host.
" [...] is protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or hazardous material.
Personal protective equipment (PPE) is protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or hazardous material.

[...] is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or morer unresolved issues concerning the inciden, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or morer unresolved issues concerning the inciden, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.

[...] is the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles or by vectors.
Transmission is the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles or by vectors.

[...] are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potention exposure risks of communicable disease.
Standard precautions are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potention exposure risks of communicable disease.

[...] is the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.
Vector-borne transmission is the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.

[...] is the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring car to antoher medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
Abandonment is the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring car to antoher medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.

[...] is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.
Advanced directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.

Advanced directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a [...] or health care directive.
Advanced directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.

Advanced directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or [...]
Advanced directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.

[...] is the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
Applied ethics is the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.

[...] is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
Assault is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.

[...] is unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
Battery is unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.

[...] is the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.
Bioethics is the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.

[...] is the disclosure of information without proper authorization.
Breach of confidentiality is the disclosure of information without proper authorization.

[...] is a process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting a certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.
Certification is a process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting a certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.

[...] are damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
Compensatory damages are damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.

Someone who is [...] is able to make rational decisions about personal well-being. Someone who is competent is able to make rational decisions about personal well-being.
[...] is the permission to render care.
Consent is the permission to render care.

[...] is a legal defence that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
Contributory negligence is a legal defence that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.

[...] is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.
Credentialing is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.

[...] is the ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
Decision-making capacity is the ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.

[...] is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.
Defamation is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.

[...] is blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloation of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
Dependent lividity is blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloation of the skin; a definitive sign of death.

[...] are oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
Depositions are oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.

[...] is the phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain info from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. It includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
Discovery is the phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain info from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. It includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.

[...] are written documentation by a physcian giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
do not resuscitate (DNR) orders are written documentation by a physcian giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.

[...] is a type of advanced directive executed by  a compettent adult that appoints anotheri ndividual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behald, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. A durable power of attorney is a type of advanced directive executed by  a compettent adult that appoints anotheri ndividual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behald, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity.
[...] is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care. A duty to act is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care.
An [...] is a serious situation, usch as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention. An emergency is a serious situation, usch as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention.
[...] is the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.
Emergency doctrine is the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.

[...] is immediate care or treatment.
Emergency medical care is immediate care or treatment.

[...] is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
Ethics is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.

[...] is a type of consent in which a patient fives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
Expressed consent is a type of consent in which a patient fives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.

[...] is the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.
False imprisonment is the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.

[...] is the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
Forcible restraint is the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.

[...] are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willfull negligence.
Good samaritan laws are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willfull negligence.

[...] is the legal doctrine that can protect and EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by government entities.
Governmental immunity is the legal doctrine that can protect and EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by government entities.

[...] is the conduct that constitutes a willfull or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
Gross negligence is the conduct that constitutes a willfull or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.

[...] is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a living will. A health care directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a living will.
A health care directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a [...] A health care directive is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a living will.
[...] are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a power of attorney.
"Health care proxies are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a power of attorney.

" Health care proxies are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a [...]
"Health care proxies are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a power of attorney.

" [...] is the type of consent that a patient who is unable to give consent  is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
Implied consent is the type of consent that a patient who is unable to give consent  is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.

[...] is permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment are explained.
Informed consent is permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment are explained.

[...] is the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
In loco parentis is the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.

[...] are written wuestions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
Interrogatories are written wuestions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.

[...] is the seizing, confining, abducting or carrying away of another person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without their consent.
Kidnapping is the seizing, confining, abducting or carrying away of another person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without their consent.

[...] is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
Libel is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.

[...] is the process were a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
Licensure is the process were a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.

[...] is a term relating to medical, law, or forensic medicine.
Medicolegal is a term relating to medical, law, or forensic medicine.

[...] is a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character conduct and conscience.
Morality is a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character conduct and conscience.

[...] is the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
Negligence is the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.

[...] is a theory that may be used when the conduct of a person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statue.
Negligence per se is a theory that may be used when the conduct of a person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statue.

[...] is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding their health care.
Patient autonomy is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding their health care.

[...] is when a person who have a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
Proximate causation is when a person who have a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency or the medical director may be sued for negligence.

[...] are damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
Punitive damages are damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.

[...] is the decompisition of body tissues; this is a definitive sign of death.
"Putrefaction is the decompisition of body tissues; this is a definitive sign of death.

" [...] is when the EMT is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
Res ipsa loquitor is when the EMT is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.

[...] outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient; this is defined by state law.
Scope of practice outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient; this is defined by state law.

[...] is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.
Slander is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.

[...] is the written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
Standard of care is the written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.

[...] is a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit. A tort is a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit.
The [...] is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and reciever that is located in a fixed place. The base station is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and reciever that is located in a fixed place.
"A [...] is a low power portable radio that communicates through interconnected series of repeater stations called ""cells""" "A cell phone is a low power portable radio that communicates through interconnected series of repeater stations called ""cells""
" A [...] is an assign frequency that is used to carry voice and or data communications. A channel is an assign frequency that is used to carry voice and or data communications.
[...] is the transmission of information to another person.
Communication is the transmission of information to another person.

[...] is when one person imposes his or her believes on another because they believe their ideals are superior.
Cultural imposition is when one person imposes his or her believes on another because they believe their ideals are superior.

[...] is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a hotline. A dedicated line is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a hotline.
A dedicated line is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a [...] A dedicated line is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a hotline.
[...] is the recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction that becomes part of the patients permanent medical record.
Documentation is the recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction that becomes part of the patients permanent medical record.

[...] is the ability to transmit and recieve simultaneously. A duplex is the ability to transmit and recieve simultaneously.
[...] is when a person considers their own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
Ethnocentrism is when a person considers their own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

The [...] is the federal gency that has jusidiction over interstate and international phone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is the federal gency that has jusidiction over interstate and international phone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity.
An [...] is a communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.
An interoperable communications system is a communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.

[...] are VHF and UHF channels that the FCC has designed exclusively for EMS use.
MED channels are VHF and UHF channels that the FCC has designed exclusively for EMS use.

[...] is a small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly recieves data from the dispatch center. A mobile data terminal (MDT) is a small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly recieves data from the dispatch center.
[...] is the ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.
Multiplex is the ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.

[...] is anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.
Noise is anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.

[...] is the use of radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted hrough pagers or desktop monitor radios.
Paging is the use of radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted hrough pagers or desktop monitor radios.

[...] is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as prehospital care reports. A patient care report (PCR) is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as prehospital care reports.
A patient care report (PCR) is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as [...]. A patient care report (PCR) is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as prehospital care reports.
[...] is a trusting relationship that you build with your patient. A rapport is a trusting relationship that you build with your patient.
[...] is a special base station radio that recieves messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. A repeater is a special base station radio that recieves messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
[...] is a radio reciever that seraches or scans across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated. A scanner is a radio reciever that seraches or scans across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated.
[...] is a single-frequency radio, transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only recieve, and the party that is tranmitting is unable to recieve. A simplex is a single-frequency radio, transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only recieve, and the party that is tranmitting is unable to recieve.
[...] are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called protocols.
Standing orders are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called protocols.

Standing orders are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called [...]
Standing orders are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called protocols.

[...] is a process which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; which can be transmitted by radio or phone to a reciever with a decoder at the hospital.
Telemetry is a process which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; which can be transmitted by radio or phone to a reciever with a decoder at the hospital.

[...] is the telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequences.
Trunking is the telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequences.

[...] are verbal and non verbal communication techniques that encourage patient to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
Therapeutic communications are verbal and non verbal communication techniques that encourage patient to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.

[...] are radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.
UHF (ultra high frequency) are radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.

[...] are radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz and is divided into high and low bands. VHF (very high frequency) are radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz and is divided into high and low bands.
[...] is the motion of a limb away from the midline.
Abduction is the motion of a limb away from the midline.

[...] is the motion of a limb toward the midline.
Adduction is the motion of a limb toward the midline.

The [...] is the pointed extremity of a conical strructure. The apex is the pointed extremity of a conical strructure.
[...] means further from the trunk of the body.
Distal means further from the trunk of the body.

[...] means closer from the trunk of the body. Proximal means closer from the trunk of the body.
[...] is the straightening of a joint.
Extension is the straightening of a joint.

[...] is the bending of a joint.
Felxion is the bending of a joint.

Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline are [...] or inner structures.
Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline are medial or inner structures.

[...] is the forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.
Palmar is the forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.

[...] is the bottom surface of the foot.
Plantar is the bottom surface of the foot.

The [...] is the part of a term that changes the meaning of the term. The prefix is the part of a term that changes the meaning of the term.
[...] is the position where a patient is lying face down.
Prone is the position where a patient is lying face down.

When something is [...] it is on the anterior side of the body. When something is ventral it is on the anterior side of the body.
The [...] is the main part of a term that contains the primary meaning of the term.
The word root is the main part of a term that contains the primary meaning of the term.

The [...] is the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis. The abdomen is the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis.
The [...] is the depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly. "The acetabulum is the depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly.
" The [...] is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the thyroid cartilage. The adams apple is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the thyroid cartilage.
The adams apple is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the [...] The adams apple is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the thyroid cartilage.
[...] is the nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.

The [...] are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system. "The adrenal glands are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
" [...] is a term pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradreniline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
Adrenergic is a term pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradreniline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.

The [...] is metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen. The aerobic metabolism is metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.
[...] are abnormal breathing patterns characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients with cardiac arrest.
Agonal gasps are abnormal breathing patterns characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients with cardiac arrest.

[...] are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause condtriction of blood vessels.
Alpha-adrenergic receptors are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause condtriction of blood vessels.

The [...] are the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place. The alveoli are the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place.
[...] is the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.
Anarobic metabolism is the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.

The [...] is the position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side with the palms of the hands forward. The anatomic position is the position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side with the palms of the hands forward.
The [...] is the main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body. The aorta is the main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body.
The [...] is the portion of the skeletal system that comprimises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle. The appendicular skeleton is the portion of the skeletal system that comprimises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle.
The [...] is a small tubular structure that is attaached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. The appendix is a small tubular structure that is attaached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen.
The [...] are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries. "The arterioles are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries.
" [...] is apearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surgaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
Articular cartilage is apearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surgaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.

The [...] is one of the two upper chambers of the heart. The atrium is one of the two upper chambers of the heart.
The [...] is the part of the nervous sustem that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating that are not controlled voluntarily. The autonomic nervous system is the part of the nervous sustem that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating that are not controlled voluntarily.
The [...] is the part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage. The axial skeleton is the part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage.
[...] is a joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending. A ball and socket joint is a joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending.
[...] are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
Beta-adrenergic receptors are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.

The [...] is the largemu scle that covers the front of the humerus. The bicep is the largemu scle that covers the front of the humerus.
The [...] are the ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine. The bile ducts are the ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine.
[...] is the pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
Blood pressure is the pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.

The [...] is the major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arms. The brachial artery is the major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arms.
The [...] is the controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions to the environment, emotional responses, and judgment. The brain is the controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions to the environment, emotional responses, and judgment.
The [...] is the area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration. The brain stem is the area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration.
The [...] are the tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood. The capillary vessels are the tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood.
[...] is heart muscle.
Cardiac muscle is heart muscle.

[...] is the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. Its calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.
Cardiac output is the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. Its calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.

The [...] is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain. The carotid artery is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain.
The [...] is the smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones. The cartilage is the smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones.
The [...] is the first part of the large intenstine into which the ileum opens. "The cecum is the first part of the large intenstine into which the ileum opens.
" The [...] consists of the brain and spinal cord. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord.
The [...] is one of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements. The cerebellum is one of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements.
[...] is the fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is the fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.

The [...] is the largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter; it's made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality. The cerebrum is the largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter; it's made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality.
The [...] is the portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertabrae that lie in the neck. The cervical spine is the portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertabrae that lie in the neck.
The [...] are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. The chordaw tendineae are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.
[...] is the substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all the eaten foods with added stomach acids.
Chyme is the substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all the eaten foods with added stomach acids.

The [...] is the complez arrangement of connected tubes that move blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide and cellular waste through the body. The circulatory system is the complez arrangement of connected tubes that move blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide and cellular waste through the body.
The [...] is the collar bone,it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula. The clavicle is the collar bone,it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula.
The [...] is the last three of four vertabrae of the spine; the tail bone. "The coccyx is the last three of four vertabrae of the spine; the tail bone.
" The [...] is an imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts. The coronal plane is an imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts.
The [...] is the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; it contains the brain. The cranium is the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; it contains the brain.
The [...] is a firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx. The cricoid cartilage is a firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx.
The [...] is a thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx. The cricothyroid membrane is a thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx.
[...] is any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange such as the trachea and bronchi.
Dead space is any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange such as the trachea and bronchi.

The [...] is the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels. The dermis is the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels.
The [...] is a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, serparating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of this and the chest wall muscles brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs. The diaphragm is a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, serparating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of this and the chest wall muscles brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs.
[...] is the relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.
Diastole is the relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.

[...] is the movement of gas from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
Diffusion is the movement of gas from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.

[...] is the processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.
Digestion is the processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.

The [...] is the artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals. The dorsal pedis artery is the artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals.
The [...] is the complex mesage and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones. The endocrine system is the complex mesage and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones.
[...] are substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.
Enzymes are substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.

The [...] is the outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a water tight protective covering for the body. The epidermis is the outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a water tight protective covering for the body.
The [...] is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering. The epiglottis is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering.
[...] is a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.
Epinephrine is a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.

The [...] is a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contractions propel food and liquids through it to the stomach. The esophagous is a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contractions propel food and liquids through it to the stomach.
[...] is the amount of air that can be exhaled following a nromal exhalation.
Expiratory reserve volume is the amount of air that can be exhaled following a nromal exhalation.

[...] are long slender tubes the extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through with the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.
Fallopian tubes are long slender tubes the extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through with the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.

The [...] is the major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It suppplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genetalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area. The femoral artery is the major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It suppplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genetalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area.
The [...] is the proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint. The femoral head is the proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint.
The [...] is the thigh bone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body. The femur is the thigh bone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body.
The [...] is the large opening at the base of the skill through which the brain connects to the spinal cord. The foramen mgnum is the large opening at the base of the skill through which the brain connects to the spinal cord.
The [...] si the portion of the cranium that forms the forehead. The frontal bone si the portion of the cranium that forms the forehead.
The [...] is a sac on the undersurgace of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharfes it into the dudenum through the common bile duct. The gallbladder is a sac on the undersurgace of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharfes it into the dudenum through the common bile duct.
The [...] is the reproductive system in men and women. The genital system is the reproductive system in men and women.
The [...] is the deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed. The germinal layer is the deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed.
The [...] is a bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint. The greater tochanter is a bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint.
[...] are small organs that produce hair.
Hair follicles are small organs that produce hair.

The [...] is a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body. The heart is a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body.
[...]is the number of heartbeats during a specific time.
Heart rate (HR) is the number of heartbeats during a specific time.

[...] are joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.
Hinge joints are joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.

[...] are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions including metabolism, growth and body temperature.
Hormones are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions including metabolism, growth and body temperature.

The [...] is the supporting bone of the upper body. "The humerus is the supporting bone of the upper body.
" [...] is the pressure of water against the walls of its container.
Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water against the walls of its container.

The [...] is the backup system to control respiration; senses drop in the oxygen level in the blood. The hypoxic drive is the backup system to control respiration; senses drop in the oxygen level in the blood.
The [...] is one of three bones the fuse to form the pelvic ring. The ilium is one of three bones the fuse to form the pelvic ring.
The [...] is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and abdominal organs to the heart. The inferior vena cava is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and abdominal organs to the heart.
The [...] is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalationl the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume. The inspiratory reserve volume is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalationl the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume.
The [...] is the space in between the cells.
The interstitial space is the space in between the cells.

The [...] is one of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring. The ischium is one of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
[...] is the place where two bones come into contact.
Joint articulation is the place where two bones come into contact.

[...] is the fibrous sac that encloses a joint. A joint capsule is the fibrous sac that encloses a joint.
The [...] are two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content. The kidneys are two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content.
[...] is the use of muscles of the chest, back and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.
Labored breathing is the use of muscles of the chest, back and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.

[...] is a metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anerobic metabolism).
Lactic acid is a metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anerobic metabolism).

The [...] is the portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste. The large intestine is the portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste.
The [...] is the projection on the medial superior portion of the femur. The lesser trochanter is the projection on the medial superior portion of the femur.
[...] is a band of fibrous tissue that connects the bones to bones. it supports and strengthens a joint. A ligament is a band of fibrous tissue that connects the bones to bones. it supports and strengthens a joint.
The [...] is a large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the disphragm; it produces biles, stores flucose for immediate use by the body and produces many substances that help regular immune responses. The liver is a large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the disphragm; it produces biles, stores flucose for immediate use by the body and produces many substances that help regular immune responses.
The [...] is the lower back of the back formed by the lowest five nonfused vertabrae; also called the dorsal spine. The lumbar spine is the lower back of the back formed by the lowest five nonfused vertabrae; also called the dorsal spine.
[...] are tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
Lymph nodes are tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.

The [...] is the bone of the lower jaw. The mandible is the bone of the lower jaw.
The [...] is the upper quarter of the sternum. The manubirum is the upper quarter of the sternum.
The [...] are the upper jaw bones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palae and hold the upper teeth. "The maxillae are the upper jaw bones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palae and hold the upper teeth.
" The [...] is nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descenging nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing. The medula oblongata is nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descenging nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing.
The [...] also known as cellular respiration are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells. The metabolism also known as cellular respiration are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells.
The metabolism also known as [...] are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells. The metabolism also known as cellular respiration are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells.
The [...] is the part of the brain that is respondible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness. The midbrain is the part of the brain that is respondible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness.
The [...] plane or midline is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves. The midsagittal plane or midline is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves.
The midsagittal plane or [...] is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves. The midsagittal plane or midline is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves.
[...] is the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute. You can calculate it by multiplying the tidal volune and respiratory rate. This is also called minute ventilation.
Minute volume is the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute. You can calculate it by multiplying the tidal volune and respiratory rate. This is also called minute ventilation.

[...] carry information from the CNS to the muscles of the body.
Motor nerves carry information from the CNS to the muscles of the body.

[...] are the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
Mucous membranes are the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.

[...] is the water secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricate the body openings.
Mucus is the water secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricate the body openings.

The [...] consist of the bones and voluntary muscles of the body. The musculoskeltal system consist of the bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
The heart muscle is called the [...] The heart muscle is called the myocardium.
The [...] is the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth. The nasopharynx is the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth.
The [...] is the systen that controls virtually all activities of body, both voluntary and involuntary. The nervous system is the systen that controls virtually all activities of body, both voluntary and involuntary.
[...] is a neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.

The [...] is the most posterior portion of the cranium. The occiput is the most posterior portion of the cranium.
[...] is the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.
Oncotic pressure is the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.

The [...] is the eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma. The orbit is the eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma.
The [...] are female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs). The ovaries are female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs).
The [...]is a flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin. The pancreasis a flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin.
The [...] is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary function, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through teh chemical acetylcholine. The parasympathetic nervous system is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary function, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through teh chemical acetylcholine.
The [...] are the bones thatl ie between the temporal and occpital regions of the cranium. The parietal bones are the bones thatl ie between the temporal and occpital regions of the cranium.
The [...]is the knee cap; and lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle. The patellais the knee cap; and lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle.
[...] is the study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.
Pathophysiology is the study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.

[...] is the circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells curent needs.
Perfusion is the circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells curent needs.

The [...] is the part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is the part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves.
[...] is the wavelike contraction of smooth muscles by whichthe ureters of other tubular organs propel their contents.
Peristalsis is the wavelike contraction of smooth muscles by whichthe ureters of other tubular organs propel their contents.

[...] is a stick, yellow like fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.
Plasma is a stick, yellow like fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.

[...] are tiny disc shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the intial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.
Platelets are tiny disc shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the intial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.

The [...] are serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as pleural space. The pleura are serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as pleural space.
"[...] is the potential space between the parietal pleural and the visceral pleura; described as ""potential"" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.
" "Pleural space is the potential space between the parietal pleural and the visceral pleura; described as ""potential"" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.

" The [...] is an organ that lies below th midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration and the medullary respiratory center. The pons is an organ that lies below th midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration and the medullary respiratory center.
The [...] is the artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot. The posterior tibial artery is the artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot.
The [...] is a small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladdar; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid. The prostate gland is a small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladdar; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid.
[...] is a hard bony and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.
Pubic symphysis is a hard bony and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.

The [...] is one of the three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring. The pubis is one of the three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
The [...] is the major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; carries oxygen-poor blood. The pulmonary artery is the major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; carries oxygen-poor blood.
[...] is the flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.
Pulmonary circulation is the flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.

The [...] are the four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary veins are the four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.
[...] is the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries. A pulse is the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries.
The [...]  is the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side. The radial artery  is the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side.
Teh [...] is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm. Teh radius is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm.
Th [...] is the lowermost end of the colon. Th rectum is the lowermost end of the colon.
[...] carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.
Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.

The [...] is a cone shapped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder. The renal pelvis is a cone shapped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder.
[...] is the air that ramines in the lungs after maximal expiration.
Residual volume is the air that ramines in the lungs after maximal expiration.

[...]  is the inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.
Respiration  is the inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.

[...] is the inability of the body to move gas efficiently.
Respiratory comprimise is the inability of the body to move gas efficiently.

The [...] consists of all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts. The respiratory system consists of all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts.
The [...] is located  in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal. The reticular activating system is located  in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal.
The term retropetitoneal means [...] The term retropetitoneal means behind the peritoneum.
The [...] is the connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column. The sacroiliac joint is the connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column.
The [...] is one of three bones that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertabrae. The sacrum is one of three bones that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertabrae.
The [...] or lateral plane is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts. The sagittal plane or lateral plane is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts.
The sagittal plane or [...] is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts. The sagittal plane or lateral plane is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts.
The [...] are the glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist. The salivary glands are the glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist.
The [...] is the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair. The scalp is the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair.
The [...] is the shoulder blade. The scalpula is the shoulder blade.
[...] are glands that produce an oily substance called sebum which discharges along the shaft of the hairs.
Sebaceous glands are glands that produce an oily substance called sebum which discharges along the shaft of the hairs.

[...] are storage sacs for sperm which empty into the urethra at the prostate.
Seminal vesicles are storage sacs for sperm which empty into the urethra at the prostate.

[...] are the nerves that carry sensations form the body to the CNS.
Sensory nerves are the nerves that carry sensations form the body to the CNS.

[...] is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as hypoperfusion.
Shock is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as hypoperfusion.

Shock is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as [...]
Shock is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as hypoperfusion.

The [...] is the proximal portion of the upper extremities made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus. The shoulder girdle is the proximal portion of the upper extremities made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus.
[...] is msucle that is attached to vones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.
Skeletal muscle is msucle that is attached to vones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.

The [...] is the framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also deisgned to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs. The skeleton is the framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also deisgned to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs.
The [...] is the portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The small intestine is the portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
[...] is involuntary muscle; it constitutes the build of the GI tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.
Smooth muscle is involuntary muscle; it constitutes the build of the GI tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.

The [...] is the part of the nervous system that regualr activites over which there is voluntary control. The somatic nervous system is the part of the nervous system that regualr activites over which there is voluntary control.
[...] are muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diametes of tubes; found in the rectum, bladder and blood vessels.
Sphincters are muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diametes of tubes; found in the rectum, bladder and blood vessels.

The [...] is an extension of the brain, comoposed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. IT lies inside of an is protected by the spina canal. The spinal cord is an extension of the brain, comoposed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. IT lies inside of an is protected by the spina canal.
The [...] is the breast bone. The sternum is the breast bone.
The [...] is the outermost or dead layer of the skin. "The stratum corneal layer is the outermost or dead layer of the skin.
" [...] is the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.
Stroke volume (SV) is the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.

The [...] is tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body. The subcutaneous tissue is tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body.
The [...] is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart. The superior vena cava is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart.
[...] are the glands that secrete sweat, located i the dermal layer of the skin.
Sweat glands are the glands that secrete sweat, located i the dermal layer of the skin.

[...] is type of joint that has growth together to form a very stable connection.
Symphysis is type of joint that has growth together to form a very stable connection.

[...] is the lining of a joint that secretes synovial fluid into the joint space.
Synovial fluid is the lining of a joint that secretes synovial fluid into the joint space.

[...] is the portion of the circulatory system outside of the body.
Systemic circulation is the portion of the circulatory system outside of the body.

[...] is the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move withing the blood bessels; related to the amount of dilation or constrictions in the blood vessel.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move withing the blood bessels; related to the amount of dilation or constrictions in the blood vessel.

[...] is the contraction, or period of contraction of the heart especially that of the ventricles.
Systole is the contraction, or period of contraction of the heart especially that of the ventricles.

The [...] is the lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples. The temporal bones is the lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples.
The [...] are the fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to the bone. The tendons are the fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to the bone.
The [...] is the chest or rib cage The thoracic cage is the chest or rib cage
The [...] is the 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attach to each side of these vertebrae. The thoracic spine is the 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attach to each side of these vertebrae.
The[...] is the chest cavity taht contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessels. Thethorax is the chest cavity taht contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessels.
The [...] is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the adams apple. "The thyroid cartilage is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the adams apple.
" The [...] is the shin bone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg. The tibia is the shin bone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg.
[...] is the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath.
Tidal volume is the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath.

[...] are the superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.
Topographic anatomy are the superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.

The [...] is the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs. The trachea is the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs.
The [...] or axial plane is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts. The transverse plane or axial plane is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts.
The transverse plane or [...] is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts. The transverse plane or axial plane is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts.
The [...] are the muscles in the back of the upper arm. The triceps are the muscles in the back of the upper arm.
The [...] is the middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand. The tunica media is the middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand.
The [...] is the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb. The ulna is the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb.
[...] is a small, hollow, tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. A ureter is a small, hollow, tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
The [...] is the canal that conveys urine from the bladder to the outside the body. The urethra is the canal that conveys urine from the bladder to the outside the body.
The [...] is a sac behind the pubis symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine. The urinary bladder is a sac behind the pubis symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine.
The [...] are the organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine. The urinary system are the organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine.
The [...] is the spermatic duct of the testicles; also called the vas deferens. The vasa deferentia is the spermatic duct of the testicles; also called the vas deferens.
[...] is the movement of air between the lungs and the environmet.
Ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environmet.

[...] is one of two lower changers of the heart. A ventricle is one of two lower changers of the heart.
The [...] are the 33 bones that make up the spinal column. The vertebrae are the 33 bones that make up the spinal column.
[...] is a measurement that examies how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.
V/Q ratio is a measurement that examies how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.

The [...] is the narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum. The xiphoid process is the narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum.
The [...] is the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, and zygomaticp rocess of the temporal bone and the great winfs of the sphenoid bone. The zygomas is the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, and zygomaticp rocess of the temporal bone and the great winfs of the sphenoid bone.
An [...] is a young person age 12 to 18 years. An adolescent is a young person age 12 to 18 years.
[...] is a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque which eventually leads to a partial ro complete blockage of blood flow.
Atherosclerosis is a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque which eventually leads to a partial ro complete blockage of blood flow.

[...] is an injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example too much pressure in the lungs.
Barotrauma is an injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example too much pressure in the lungs.

[...] is a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approbal from peers and society.
Conventional reasoning is a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approbal from peers and society.

An [...] is a young adult age 19 to 40 years. An early adult is a young adult age 19 to 40 years.
[...] are areas where the neonates or infants skull haas not fused together; usually disappear at appx 18 months of age.
Fontaelles are areas where the neonates or infants skull haas not fused together; usually disappear at appx 18 months of age.

An [...] is young child age 1 month to 1 year. An infant is young child age 1 month to 1 year.
[...] is the average nnumber of years a person can be expected to live.
Life expectancy is the average nnumber of years a person can be expected to live.

[...] is an adult age 41 to 60 years. A middle adult is an adult age 41 to 60 years.
The [...] is an infant reflex where an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens their arms wide, spreads their fingers and seems to grab at things. The moro reflex is an infant reflex where an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens their arms wide, spreads their fingers and seems to grab at things.
[...] is age birth to 1 month. A neonate is age birth to 1 month.
[...] are the basic filtering units in the kidneys.
Nephrons are the basic filtering units in the kidneys.

An [...] is an adult aged 61 years or older. An older adult is an adult aged 61 years or older.
[...] is an infatn reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infants palm; the infant grasps the object.
Palmar grasp is an infatn reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infants palm; the infant grasps the object.

[...] is a type of reasoning where a child bases decisions on their conscience.
Postconventional reasoning is a type of reasoning where a child bases decisions on their conscience.

[...] is a type of reasoning where a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what they want.
Preconventional reasoning is a type of reasoning where a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what they want.

[...] is an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infants cheek and the infant instictively turns their head toward the touch. A rooting reflex is an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infants cheek and the infant instictively turns their head toward the touch.
A person who is 6 to 12 years of age is [...] A person who is 6 to 12 years of age is school age.
The [...] is an infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when their lips are stroked. The sucking reflex is an infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when their lips are stroked.
[...] is a young child ages 1 to 3 years. A toddler is a young child ages 1 to 3 years.
[...] refers to a stage of develpment form birth  to 18 months where the infant gains trust of their parenst of carefivers if their world is planned, organized and routine.
Trust and mistrust refers to a stage of develpment form birth  to 18 months where the infant gains trust of their parenst of carefivers if their world is planned, organized and routine.

[...] is The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
Absorbtion is The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.

[...] is the therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.
"Action is the therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.

" [...] is the process of binding or sticking to a surface.
Adsorption is the process of binding or sticking to a surface.

An [...] is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. An agonist is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors.
An [...] is a medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications. An antagonist is a medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications.
[...] is a medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).
Aspirin is a medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).

[...] are conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.   
Contraindications are conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.   

[...] are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.
Enteral medications are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.

[...] is a medication that increases heart rate, blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.
Epinephrine is a medication that increases heart rate, blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.

A [...] is a semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes. "A gel is a semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes.
" The [...] is the original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or trade names); the name is not capitalized. The generic name is the original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or trade names); the name is not capitalized.
The [...] are the therapeutic uses for a specific medication. The indications are the therapeutic uses for a specific medication.
An [...] is an injection into the bone; a medication delivery route. An intraosseous injection is an injection into the bone; a medication delivery route.
[...] is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain. A medication is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain.
[...] is the inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm. A medication error is the inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm.
[...] is a miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles of medication may be inhaled through the mouth and into the lungs. A metered-dose inhaled (MDI) is a miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles of medication may be inhaled through the mouth and into the lungs.
[...] is a device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril. A mucosal atomizer device is a device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril.
[...] is a medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.
Nitroglycerin is a medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.

[...] is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.
Oral glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.

[...] is a gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without it.
Oxygen is a gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without it.

[...] are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.   
Parenteral medications are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.   

Per os (PO) means [...] Per os (PO) means take by mouth.
[...] is the process by which a medication works on the body. Pharmacodynamics is the process by which a medication works on the body.
[...] is the study of the properties and effects of medications.
Pharmacology is the study of the properties and effects of medications.

[...] is the use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
Polypharmacy is the use of multiple medications on a regular basis.

[...] are any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.
Side effects are any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.

[...] is a liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. A solution is a liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand.
[...] is an injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route. A subcutaneous injection (SC) is an injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route.
[...] is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. A suspension is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve.
The [...] is the desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body. The therapeutic effect is the desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body.
The [...] is the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication; the name is capitalized. The trade name is the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication; the name is capitalized.
Transcutaneous means [...]; a medication delivery route. Transcutaneous means through the skin; a medication delivery route.
[...] are actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.
Unintended effects are actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.

[...] are actions that can be harmful to the patient.
Untoward effects are actions that can be harmful to the patient.

The [...] is the preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver. The abdominal-thrust maneuver is the preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver.
[...] is a technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression); may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart, and thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase.
Active compression-decompression CPR is a technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression); may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart, and thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase.

[...] is noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. Basic life support (BLS) is noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
[...] is the combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.  
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is the combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.  

[...] is the total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed. 
Chest compression fraction is the total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed. 

[...] is the rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return, and hypotension when associated with BVM use.
Hyperventilation is the rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return, and hypotension when associated with BVM use.

An [...] is a valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-valve mask that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.
An impedance threshold device is a valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-valve mask that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.

[...] is a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.
Ischemia is a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.

[...] is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax. A load-distributing band is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax.
[...] is a device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard. A mechanical piston device is a device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard.
[...] is the return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.   A return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) is the return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.  
[...] is the stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.
Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.

[...] is blood settling to the lowest point of the body; causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
Dependent lividity is blood settling to the lowest point of the body; causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.

While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of [...]/min to a depth of at least 2 inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of 100 to 120/min to a depth of at least 2 inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression
While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of 100 to 120/min to a depth of at least [...] inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of 100 to 120/min to a depth of at least 2 inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression
"
05 abbreviations terminology
ABC
" "
airway, breathing, circulation

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ac
" "
before meals

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ACLS
" "
advanced cardiac life support

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ad lib
" "
as desired

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ADL
" "
activities of daily living

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
AIDS
" "
Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
A&P
" "
anatomy and physiology

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
BS
" "
blood sugar <br> breath sounds <br> bowel sounds <br> bachelor of science (degree)

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ā
" "
before

" "
05 terminology
adduction
" "
Motion of a limb toward the midline.

" "
05 terminology
anterior
" "
The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.

" "
05 terminology
apex (plural apices)
" "
The pointed extremity of a conical structure.

" "
05 terminology
bilateral
" "
A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline.

" "
05 terminology
deep
" "
Farther inside the body and away from the skin.

" "
05 terminology
distal
" "
Further from the trunk or nearer to the free end of the extremity.

" "
05 terminology
dorsal
" "
The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand.

" "
05 terminology
extension
" "
The straightening of a joint.

" "
05 terminology
flexion
" "
The bending of a joint.

" "
05 terminology
Fowler position
" "
An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised.

" "
05 terminology
inferior
" "
Below a body part or nearer to the feet.

" "
05 terminology
lateral
" "
Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline; also called outer structures.

" "
05 terminology
medial
" "
Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline; also called inner structures.

" "
05 terminology
palmar
" "
The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.

" "
05 terminology
plantar
" "
The bottom surface of the foot.

" "
05 terminology
posterior
" "
The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position.

" "
05 terminology
prone
" "
Lying face down.

" "
05 terminology
proximal
" "
Closer to the trunk.

" "
05 terminology
quadrants
" "
Describes the sections of the abdominal cavity, in which two imaginary lines intersect at the umbilicus, dividing the abdomen into four equal areas.

" "
05 terminology
superficial
" "
Closer to or on the skin.

" "
05 terminology
superior
" "
Above a body part or nearer to the head.

" "
05 terminology
supine
" "
Lying face up.

" "
05 terminology
ventral
" "
The anterior surface of the body.

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
AF, A-fib
" "
atrial fibrillation

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
AICD
" "
automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
amb
" "
ambulatory

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ant
" "
anterior

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ASHD
" "
arterioscleroticatherosclerotic heart disease

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
BGL
" "
blood glucose level

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
bid/b.i.d/BID
" "
twice daily

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
BP, B/P
" "
blood pressure

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
BVM
" "
bag-valve mask

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
bx
" "
biopsy

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
CC, C/C
" "
chief complaint

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
CCU
" "
coronary care unit

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
C diff
" "
Clostridium difficile

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
cm
" "
centimeter

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
c/o
" "
complaining of

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
C02
" "
carbon dioxide

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
COLD
" "
chronic obstructive lung disease

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
CP
" "
chest pain OR chemically pure OR cerebral palsy

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
CRNA
" "
certified registered nurse anesthetist

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
CRT
" "
capillary refill time OR cathode ray tube

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DOA
" "
dead on arrival

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DOE
" "
dyspnea on exertion

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DON
" "
director of nursing

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DPT
" "
diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine OR Doctor of Physical Therapy

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DSD
" "
dry sterile dressing

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DtaP
" "
diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
DTP
" "
diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Dx
" "
diagnosis

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
EDC
" "
estimated date of confinement

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ENT
" "
ears, nose, and throat

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
EOC
" "
Emergency Operations Center

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ET, ETT
" "
endotracheal tube, endotracheal

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ETA
" "
estimated time of arrival

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ETCO2
" "
end-tidal carbon dioxide

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
°F
" "
degrees Fahrenheit

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Fio2
" "
fraction of inspired oxygen

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Fe
" "
iron

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
FHR
" "
fetal heart rate

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
FHx
" "
family history

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
fl, fid
" "
fluid

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
fx
" "
fracture

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Gl
" "
gastrointestinal

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
gtt
" "
drop(s)

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
gyn
" "
gynecology

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
h
" "
hour

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
H&P
" "
history and physical

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
HBV
" "
hepatitis B virus

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Hct
" "
hematocrit

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
H2O
" "
water

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
hr
" "
hour

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Hx
" "
history

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
l&O
" "
intake and output

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ICS
" "
incident command system OR intercostal space

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ICU
" "
intensive care unit

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
IMS
" "
incident management system

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
IO
" "
intraosseous

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
IPPB
" "
intermittent positive pressure breathing

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
kg
" "
kilogram

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
L/M, LPM
" "
liters per minute

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
MAE
" "
moves all extremities

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
MAEW
" "
moves all extremities well

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
mg
" "
milligram

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Ml
" "
myocardial infarction

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
min
" "
minute

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
mL
" "
milliliter

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
mm
" "
millimeter

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
mm Hg
" "
millimeters of mercury

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
MOI
" "
mechanism of injury

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
MVA
" "
motor vehicle accident

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
MVC
" "
motor vehicle crash

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NA, N/A
" "
not applicable

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NC
" "
nasal cannula

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NG
" "
nasogastric

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NKA
" "
no known allergies

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NPA
" "
naso-pharyngeal airway

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NRB, NRBM
" "
nonrebreathing mask

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
NTG
" "
nitroglycerin

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
N/V
" "
nausea and vomiting

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
N/V/D
" "
nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
O2
" "
oxygen

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
OBS
" "
organic brain syndrome

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
OPA
" "
oropharyngeal airway

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
OR
" "
operating room

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
oz
" "
ounce

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
" "
after

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Pco2
" "
partial pressure of carbon dioxide

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
PDR
" "
Physicians' Desk Reference

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
PEARL, PERL
" "
pupils equal and reactive to light

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
PEARLA
" "
pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
PEARRL
" "
pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
ped, peds
" "
pediatric

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
PEEP
" "
positive end expiratory pressure

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
po
" "
per os (by mouth)

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
psi
" "
pounds per square inch

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
PSVT
" "
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Pt
" "
patient

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
" "
every

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Rh
" "
Rhesus blood factor OR rhodium

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
RN
" "
registered nurse

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Rx
" "
prescription

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
" "
without

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Sao2
" "
oxygen saturation

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
SOB
" "
shortness of breath

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Spo2
" "
saturation of peripheral oxygen

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
S/S, S&S
" "
signs and symptoms

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
stat
" "
immediately

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
STEMI
" "
ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
subcut
" "
subcutaneous

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
SVT
" "
supraventricular tachycardia

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
sym, Sx
" "
symptoms

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
tab
" "
tablet

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
TBA
" "
to be admitted OR to be announced

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
tech
" "
technician OR technologist

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
tid/t.i.d/TID
" "
three times a day

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Tx
" "
treatment

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
VD
" "
venereal disease

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
VRE
" "
vancomycin-resistant enterococcus

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
W/
" "
with

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
WMD
" "
weapon of mass destruction

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
wt
" "
weight

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
" "
except

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
AO X 4, A/O X 4 
" "
alert and oriented to person, place, time, and self

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
BPM
" "
beats per minute

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
" "
with

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
°C
" "
degrees Celsius (centigrade)

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
CA
" "
cancer <br> cardiac arrest <br> chronologic age <br> coronary artery <br> cold agglutinin

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
HA, H/A
" "
headache

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
Hb, Hgb
" "
hemoglobin

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
VT/V tach
" "
ventricular tachycardia

" "
05 abbreviations terminology
yo, y/o
" "
year old

" [...] possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training Special teams possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training
[...] consistently interact with the same partner or team Regular teams consistently interact with the same partner or team
[...] have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know Temporary teams have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know
Examples of special EMS include:
Fire Team
Rescue Team
Hazardous materials (HazMat) Team
Tactical EMS Team
Special event EMS Team
EMS bike Team
In-hospital patient care technicians
MIH technicians
Fire Team
Rescue Team
Hazardous materials (HazMat) Team
Tactical EMS Team
Special event EMS Team
EMS bike Team
In-hospital patient care technicians
MIH technicians
Examples of special EMS include: Regular teams [...]  Regular teams consistently interact with the same partner or team 
Special teams [...] Special teams possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training
Temporary teams [...] Temporary teams have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know
What are the 5 essential elements of a group?
A common goal
An image of themselves as a “group”
A sense of continuity of the group
A set of shared values
Different roles within the group
A common goal
An image of themselves as a “group”
A sense of continuity of the group
A set of shared values
Different roles within the group
What are the 5 essential elements of a group?
In [...] each individual is told what to do, and often how to do it, by his or her supervisor or group leader.
In dependent groups each individual is told what to do, and often how to do it, by his or her supervisor or group leader.

In [...] each individual is responsible for his or her own area In in4dependent groups each individual is responsible for his or her own area
In [...] individuals function as a true team. In interdependent groups individuals function as a true team.
PACE Probe
Alert
Challenge 
Emergency
Probe
Alert
Challenge 
Emergency
PACE What are the steps for assisting an ALS process?
Patient preparation
Equipment
Performing the procedure
Continuing care

are the steps for this process.
Patient preparation
Equipment
Performing the procedure
Continuing care

are the steps for this process.
What are the steps for assisting an ALS process? What are the steps for BE MAGIC?
B – Perform BVM preoxygenation
E – Evaluate for airway difficulties
M – Manipulate the patient
A – Attempt first-pass intubation
GI – Use a supraGlottic or Intermediate          airway if unable to intubate
C – Confirm successful intubation

are the steps for this process.
B – Perform BVM preoxygenation
E – Evaluate for airway difficulties
M – Manipulate the patient
A – Attempt first-pass intubation
GI – Use a supraGlottic or Intermediate          airway if unable to intubate
C – Confirm successful intubation

are the steps for this process.
What are the steps for BE MAGIC?
What are the steps for patient prepation when assisting in an ALS procedure?
preoxygenation, and 
apenic oxygenation

are the steps for helping with this procedure.
preoxygenation, and 
apenic oxygenation

are the steps for helping with this procedure.
What are the steps for patient prepation when assisting in an ALS procedure?
What is the difference between a group and a team?
A team consists of a group of health care providers who are assigned specific roles and are working interdependently in a coordinated manner under a designated leader.