Title: EMT-165
Tags: 06 anatomy respiratory 05 terminology abbreviations definitions 11 pharmacology 15 airway 10 emergencies legal 03 breathing development life span 13 EMS systems 02 safety wellness 04 communications 01 resuscitation 07

Q: What are some common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions regarding the respiratory system?
A: They are shortness of breath (dyspnea), sneezing or an itchy runny nose, tightness in the throat or chest, irritating dry cough, hoarseness, respirations that become rapid, labored, or noisey, and wheezing and/or stridor (progressing to a silent chest with anaphylaxis).

Q: What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?
A: This directly opposes the other system, it slows the heart and respiratory rates, constricts blood vessels in the muscles, and dilates blood vessels in the digestive system.

Q: What is congestive heart failure
?
A: This is when the ventricular heart muscle is so damaged that it can no longer keep up with the return flow of blood from the atria. Blood backs up in the pulmonary veins, increasing pressure in the capillaries of the lungs and forcing water into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema.

Q: What is dyspnea?
A: Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

Q: What structures make up the upper airway?
A: This consists of the nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx.

Q: What divides the upper and lower airway?
A: These are divided by the larnyx.

Q: What is carbon dioxide retention?
A: This is the failure of the respiratory center in the brain to respond normally to a rise in arterial levels of carbon dioxide.

Q: What is the hypoxic drive?
A: This is a secondary drive which stimulates the respiratory center.

Q: What is the normal breathing rate of an adult patient?
A: This is 12-20 BPM.

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of asthma?
A: Signs and symptoms of this include:
Wheezing on inspiration / expiration
Bronchospasm

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Flushed skin or hives
Generalized edema
Decreased blood pressure
Laryngeal edema with dyspnea

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of bronchitis?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Chronic cough
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Productive cough

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Dependent edema
Rales
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of croup?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Fever
Barking cough
Mostly seen in pediatric patients

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Barrel chest
Pursed lip breathing
Dyspnea on exertion

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Dyspnea
Chills, fever
Cough
Dark sputum

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Sudden chest pain with dyspnea
Decreased lung sounds/affected side

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Sharp, pinpoint pain
Dyspnea
Sudden onset
After childbirth or surgery

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Progressive shortness of breath
Increasing altered level of consciousness
Neck vein distention
Tracheal deviation

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pertussis?
A: Signs and symptoms include:
Coughing spells
"Whooping" sound
Fever
Mostly seen in pediatric patients

Q: As you treat patients with disorders of the lungs, what situations should you be aware of?
A: While treating these kinds of patients, be aware of these situations:
Gas exchange between alveoli and pulmonary circulation is obstructed by fluid in the lung, infection, or collapsed alveoli (atelectasis)
The alveoli are damaged and cannot transport gases properly across their own walls
The air passages are obstructed by muscle spasm, mucus, or weakened floppy airway walls
Blood flow to the lungs is obstructed by blood clots
The pleural space is filled with air or excess fluid, so the lungs cannot properly expand

Q: What is atelectasis?
A: This is the collapse of the alveolar space in the lungs.

Q: What are the characteristics of bronchitis?
A: Characteristics of this are:
An acute or chronic inflammation of the air passages (bronchi and bronchioles) often due to infection, usually associated with productive cough, and usually presents without fever
Accumulation of fluid within the air passages, as well as swelling of the walls, resticts air flow and may lead to signs of asthma such as wheezing. It is often associated with rhonchi. Crackles are not usually present unless pneumonia has developed.
The breathing pattern in bronchitis does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.

Q: What is the pathophysiology of the common cold?
A: A viral infection usually associated with swollen nasal mucous membranes and the production of fluid from the sinuses and nose.

Q: What are the characteristics of TB?
A: Characteristics of this are:
A disease that can lay dormant in a person's lungs for decades, then reactivate.
Dangerous because many TB strains are resistant to many antibiotics.
Spread by cough. Droplet nuclei can remain intact for decades.
Use a high-efficiency air particulate, or HEPA, respirator.

Q: What are the characteristics of diphtheria?
A: Characteristics of this are:
Highly contagious and serious when it occurs
The formation of diphtheritic membrane lining the pharynx that is composed of debris, inflammatory cells, and mucus. This membrane can rapidly and severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia?
A: dyspnea
chills fever
cough
green red or rust colored sputum
localized wheezing or crackles

Q: What are the characteristics of epiglottitis?
A: Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation of the epiglottis due to bacterial infection that can produce severe swelling of the flap over the larynx.
Can swell to two or three times its normal size, especially in young children.
The airway may become almost completely obstructed, sometimes quite suddenly.
Stridor (harsh, high-pitched, continued rough, barking inspiratory sounds) may be heard late in the development of airway obstruction.
Characterized in adults by a severe sore throat.

Q: What is the pathophysiology of croup?
A: Inflammation and swelling of the whole airway (pharynx, larynx, and trachea) typically seen in children 6 months - 3 years old.
Rarely seen in adults because that airways are larger.

Q: What is the pathophysiology of respiratory syncytial virus?
A: Causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia.
Highly contagious and spread through droplets

Q: What is the pathophysiology of pertussis?
A: An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years.
Highly contagious through droplet infection.
Does not cause the typical whooping illness in adults. It causes a severe upper respiratory infection that could be an entry pathway to pneumonia in older people.

Q: What are the characteristics of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)?
A: Characteristics of this are:
A serious, potentially life-threatening viral infection caused by a recently discovered family of viruses best known as the second most common cause of the common cold.
Usually starts with flu-like symptoms, and may progress to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and, in some cases, death.
SARS is thought to be transmitted primarily by close person-to-person contact.

Q: What are the characteristics of Influenza type A?
A: Characteristics of this are:
A virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans.
A flu that has the potential to spread at a pandemic level.

Q: What are the characteristics of Meningococcal meningitis?
A: Characteristics of this include:
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord that can be highly contagious.
The bacteria can be spread through the exchange of respiratory and throat secretions through coughing and sneezing.
The effects are lethal in some cases. Victims who survive can be left with brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disabilities.
Patients may present with flulike symptoms, but unique to this are high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and a stiff neck in adults. Patients soemtimes have an altered level of consciousness and can have red blotches on skin.
Use respiratory protection, and report and potential cases.

Q: What is pulmonary edema?
A: This is a build up of fluid between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries, which interferes with the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen. It can result from heart muscle so injured after a heart attack or other illness that it cannot circulate blood properly; in these cases, the left side of the heart cannot remove blood from the lung as fast as the right side delivers it. Patients with this usually experience dyspnea with rapid, shallow respirations, or frothy pink sputum at the nose in mouth in severe cases.

Q: What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A: The is the slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction. An estimated 12.1 million adults are reported to have this disease, and is the fourth leading cause of death.

Q: What is chronic bronchitis?
A: This is an ongoing irritation of the trachea and bronchi; excess mucus obstructs small airways and alveoli. This can lead to right-sided heart failure and fluid retention, such as edema in the legs.

Q: What is emphysema?
A: This is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli when inflamed airways (due to smoking for example) obstruct easy explusion of gases.

Q: What are the characteristics of COPD?
A: Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the lung characterized by shortness of breath and wheezing.
Home oxygen, bronchodilators, and steroids for treatment.
Breathing progressively worse over time.
Usually in long-term smokers
Shortness of breath mostly on exertion
Chronic coughing
Sputum may be thick
No jugular vein distention or dependent edema
Patient usually thin with a barrel chest

Q: What are the characteristics of Congestive Heart Failure?
A: Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the heart characterized by shortness of breath, edema, and weakness.
Diuretics prescribed to help promote cardiac function and to reduce fluid loads on the heart.
Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Patient may or may not smoke.
Shortness of breath all the time.
Coughing
Sputum may be pink and frothy.
Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.
May have distended abdomen.

Q: What is the sequence of events in anaphylaxis?
A: The sequence of events for this is:
A. The antigen is introduced to the body.
B. The antigen-antibody reaction at the surface of a mast cell.
C. Release of a cell chemical mediators.
D. Chemical mediators exert their effects on end organs.

Q: What is pneumothorax?
A: This is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space. It is often caused by trauma.

Q: When may spontaneous pneumothorax occur?
A: This tends to occur in patients with certain chronic lung infections or in young people born with weak areas of the lung, and often during severe coughing.

Q: What is pleuritic chest pain?
A: This is a sharp, stabbing pain on one side that is worse during inspiration and expiration or with certain movements of the chest wall.

Q: What is a pleural effusion?
A: This is a collection of fluid outside the lung on one or both sides of the chest. Patients will have decreased lung sounds and will feel better sitting upright.

Q: What is a tonic-clonic seizure?
A: This, also called a grand mal seizure, is one in which the patient has a sudden loss of consciousness, rapid muscle movement of the body, and often incontinence. This type of seizure typically only lasts minutes.

Q: What is status epilipticus?
A: This is when a patient continues to have seizures every few minutes without regaining consciousness, and/or the seizure lasts longer than 30 minutes. It could be life threatening.

Q: What is an embolus?
A: This is anything in the circulatory system that moves from it's point of origin to a distant site and lodges there, obstructing subsequent blood flow in that area.

Q: What is a pulmonary embolism?
A: This is the passage of a blood clot formed in a vein, usually in the legs or pelvis, that breaks off and circulates through the venous system, enters the pulmonary artery, where it becomes lodged, significantly decreasing or blocking blood flow. Arterial carbon dioxide rises, and oxygen level may drop enough to cause cyanosis.

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolisms?
A: Signs and symptoms of these include:
Dyspnea
Acute chest pain
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
Cyanosis
Tachypnea
Vary degrees of hypoxia

Q: What is acidosis?
A: This is the buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from the primary illness.

Q: What is alkalosis?
A: This is the buildup of excess base in the body fluids.

Q: What is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A: This is a bacterium that can cause infection in different parts of the body and is transmitted by different routes. It is resistant to many commonly used antibiotics.

Q: What is tuberculosis (TB)?
A: This is an infection most commonyl found in the lungs but can also affect any organ of the body, including the kidneys, bones, and meninges.

Q: What are adventitious breath sounds?
A: These are abnormal, decreased, or absent breath sounds.

Q: What are vesicular breath sounds?
A: These are normal breath sounds in a patient.

Q: What are some risk factors for congestive heart failure?
A: Risk factors for this include hypertension and a history of coronary artery disease and/or atrial fibrillation, a condition in which the atria no longer contract, but quiver.

Q: What are some signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure?
A: Signs and symptoms of this are:
cool, diaphoretic, and/or cyanotic skin
Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles, wheezing, or rales
A tachycardiac pulse.

Q: What is cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A: This is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. This disrupts the normal function of cells that make up the sweat glands in the skin and that also line the lungs and digestive and reproductive systems.

Q: How is croup treated?
A: This often responds well to humidified oxygen.

Q: What is proper treatment for hyperventilation?
A: Proper treatment for this consists of: reassuing the patient, supplying supplemental oxygen, and providing prompt transport to the emergency department.

Q: What is the proper treatment for pulmonary embolism?
A: Proper treatment for this consists of: Placing the patient in a comfrotable position, be aware of possible hemoptysis as an airway obstruction, and transport promptly, as this may cause cardiac arrest.

Q: What should you watch for in patients with COPD?
A: Oftentimes these patients will overuse their inhalers, so watch for side effects.

Q: What does PASTE stand for?
A: This stands for:
Progression: You want to know if the problem started suddenly or has worsened
Associated chest pain: Dyspnea can be a significant symptom of a cardiac problem.
Sputum: Mucus like sputum could indicate a respiratory infection, while frothy pink sputum indicates fluid in the lungs.
Talking tiredness: How many words a patient can saw between breaths.
Exercise tolerance: What activity was the patient doing before the problem started.

Q: What is wheezing?
A: This is a sound that is generally heard on exhalation as a high-pitched, almost whistling sound. It is extremely common in patients with asthma and sometimes in patients with COPD; it indicates constriction and/or inflammation in the bronchus.

Q: What are rales?
A: These are the sounds of air trying to pass through fluid in the alveoli. It is a crackling or bubbling sound typically heard on inspiration. There are high-pitched "fine" sounds and low-pitched "coarse" sounds. These often indicate congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other fluid in the lungs.

Q: What are rhonchi?
A: These are lower pitched sounds caused by secretions or mucus in the larger airway. The sound resembles rattling or is sometimes referred to as "junky" lung sounds. It indicates infections, pneumonia, or bronchitis.

Q: What is stridor?
A: This is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration as air tries to pass through obstruction in the upper airway. This indicates a partial obstruction of the trachea and is seen in patients with anatomic or foreign body airway obstruction.

Q: What is the order of BLS if you suspect cardiac arrest?
A: If this is suspected, BLS order becomes CAB.

Q: What is the chain of survival?
A: This is:
1. Early access (ie Access EMS by calling 911)
2. Early CPR (keeps blood flowing)
3. Early defibrillation
4. Early advanced care
5. Integrated post-arrest care (including controlling temperature and maintaining glucose levels in the patient who is hypoglycemic)

Q: What is important to remember regarding time and CPR?
A: It's important to remember regarding this that few patients survive cardiac arrest if this is not administered within the first few minutes, and if the time from cardiac arrest to defibrillation is more than 10 minutes, the chance of survival is minimal.

Q: What is arrhythmia?
A: This is sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance.

Q: What is ventricular fibrillation?
A: This is the disorganized twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest.

Q: For each minute the patient remains in V-fib or pulseless V-tach, how much does the chance of survival decrease?
A: For each minute in these states, there is a 7% to 10% less chance of survival.

Q: What is a common cause of cardiac arrest in children?
A: Respiratory failure is usually the cause of this in children.

Q: Where should you place the AED electrode on patients with an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker?
A: If you see a patient with one of these, you should place the AED electrode at least 1 inch to the side of the device.

Q: On average, how much blood is pumped through the body when external chest compressions are performed as proficiently as possible?
A: Only one third of the blood that is normally pumped by is circulated through this method.

Q: Where should the patient's head be while administring chest compressions?
A: This should not be elevated at a level above the heart because this will further reduce blood flow to the brain.

Q: What kind of surface should a patient receiving chest compressions be placed on?
A: During this, the patient should be placed on the floor or have a board placed under the back.

Q: When performing CPR on an adult, how many chest compressions should be given a minute?
A: Give at least 100 compressions per minute for this type of patient.

Q: What is the recovery position?
A: This is a side-lying position (patient's hand under their head) used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are adequately breathing.

Q: What is the focus of pediatric BLS?
A: The focus of BLS for these types of patients is airway and breathing.

Q: Where do you check the pulse on infants?
A: You check the pulse on the brachial artery for these patients.

Q: Where do you check the pulse on children (1-12 years)?
A: You check the pulse on the carotid or femoral artery for these patients.

Q: What is the compression rate for infants and children in CPR?
A: For these patients, the compression rate is at least 100/min.

Q: What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR for infants and children?
A: For these patients, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for one rescuer, and 15:2 for 2 rescuers.

Q: With infants and children, what is the ventilation rate during CPR?
A: With these patients, the ventilation rate is 1 breath every 3-5 seconds.

Q: What should you do with a patient who has a mild airway obstruction?
A: With these patients, you should encourage him or her to cough or to continue coughing if they are already doing so.

Q: What is systolic pressure?
A: This is the peak arterial pressure, or pressure generated every time the heart contracts.

Q: What is diastolic pressure?
A: This is the pressure maintained within the arteries while the heart rests between the heartbeats.

Q: When will brain tissue start to die without oxygen?
A: This will begin to die within 4 to 6 minutes.

Q: What anatomic structures make up the upper airway?
A: The nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx are located here.

Q: What is the major function of the upper airway?
A: The major function of this is to:
Warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the body.

Q: What is the pharynx and what is it composed of?
A: This is a muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea. It is composed of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (A.K.A. the hypopharynx).

Q: What is the lowest portion of the pharynx?
A: This is the laryngopharynx. At its base, it splits into two lumens, the larynx anteriorly, and the esophagus posteriorly.

Q: What is the nasopharynx?
A: This is formed by the union of the facial bones, and is lined with a cilated mucous membrane that keeps contaminants such as dust and other small particles out of the respiratory tract. The membrane also warms and humidifies air as it enters the body.

Q: What is the oropharynx?
A: This forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue.

Q: What is the larynx?
A: This marks where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins.

Q: What is the thyroid cartilage?
A: This is a shield-shaped structure formed by two plates that join in a "V" shape anteriorly to form the larnygeal prominence known as the Adam's apple.

Q: What is the cricoid cartilage?
A: This lies inferiorly to the thyroid cartilage; it forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is the only airway structure that forms a complete ring.

Q: What is the glottis?
A: This is space in between the vocal cords and the narrowest portion of the adult's airway.

Q: What is the trachea?
A: This is the conduit for air entry into the lungs. It is approximately 10 to 12 centimeters in length and consists of C-shaped cartilaginous rings. It descends anteriorly into the thoracic cavity.

Q: What is the carina?
A: This is the point at which the trachea bifurcates into the left and right mainstream bronchi.

Q: What is visceral pleura?
A: This is a thin, slippery outer membrane that covers all lung tissue.

Q: What is the parietal pleura?
A: This lines the inside of the thoracic cavity.

Q: What lies between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura?
A: Between these is a small amount of fluid, which serves as a lubricant to prevent friction during breathing.

Q: What should you remember about children's airways?
A: With these patients' airway, remember that:
They have a proportionately smaller mandible and a proportionately larger tongue, both of which increase the incidence of airway obstruction.
They have a proportionately larger occipital lobe, so when positioning the airway, place a folded towel under the shoulders to maintain a neutral position.
In general, the airway of these patients are smaller and narrower at all levels.

Q: What is the mediastinum?
A: This is the space between the lungs, and is surrounded by tough, connective tissue. This space contains the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, major bronchi, and nerves.

Q: What is the phrenic nerve?
A: This is one of the most important nervous structures in the body. It innervates the diaphragm muscle.

Q: What is ventilation?
A: This is the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs.

Q: What is oxygenation?
A: This is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream.

Q: What is respiration?
A: This is the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli as well as the tissues of the body.

Q: What is inhalation?
A: This is the active, muscular part of breathing.

Q: How much air does 1 breath draw in?
A: This is approximately 500 ml in an adult.

Q: What is partial pressure?
A: This is the term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (Hg).

Q: What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air in the alveoli?
A: This pressure is 104 mm Hg.

Q: What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air in the alveoli?
A: This pressure is 40 mm Hg.

Q: What is alveolar ventilation, and how is it determined?
A: This is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli, and is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume.

Q: What is tidal volume?
A: This is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. The average volume for an adult man is approximately 500 ml.

Q: What is dead space?
A: This is the portion of tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and thus does not participate in gas exchange. It contains the air that remains in the mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. This can add up to approximately 150 mL in adults.

Q: What is minute ventilation (A.K.A. minute volume)?
A: This is the amount of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space. An average adult male patient might have a rate of 4200 mL , (12 breaths per minute, a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath, and a dead space of 150 mL)

Q: What is vital capacity?
A: This refers to the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing deeply.

Q: What is residual volume?
A: This is the air that remains after maximal expiration. It is approximately 1200 mL in the average adult male.

Q: What is exhalation?
A: This is the passive part of the breathing process, in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs.

Q: How are ventilation changes primarily regulated?
A: These are regulated primarily by the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid, which is directly related to the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood.

Q: What is the hypoxic drive?
A: This is a condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; it is seen in patients with end-stage C.O.P.D.

Q: What is COPD?
A: This is when patients have difficulty eliminating carbon dioxide through exhalation; thus, they always have higher levels of carbon dioxide. This potentially alters their drive for breathing. The body uses a "backup system", the hypoxic drive, to control breathing. This is different from the primary control of breathing that uses carbon dioxide. Caution should be taken when administering high concentrations of oxygen to these kinds of patients, as providing high concentrations of oxygen over time will increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma; this could potentially negatively affect their body's drive to breathe.

Q: What is dyspnea?
A: This is shortness of breath.

Q: What is another name for metabolism?
A: Another name for this is cellular respiration.

Q: What is the chemical composition of air on average?
A: On average, the chemical composition of this is about 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and 0.3% carbon dioxide.

Q: What is surfactant?
A: This is a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome.

Q: Under normal conditions, what percentage of hemoglobin receptor sites contain oxygen?
A: Under normal conditions, 96% to 100% of these contain oxygen.

Q: What is aerobic respiration?
A: This can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.  Energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (A.K.A., A.T.P.) is produced through a series of processes known as the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Together, these chemical processes yield nearly 40 molecules of energy-rich ATP for each molecule of glucose metabolized.

Q: What are chemoreceptors?
A: These monitor the levels of O2, CO2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any given time.

Q: How will an elevation in carbon dioxide levels affect the pH balance in CSF?
A: This will decrease the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Q: What is the normal resting minute ventilation?
A: The normal rate of this is approximately 6000 mL per minute. About a third of this volume fills dead space; therefore, resting alveolar ventilation is approximately 4000 mL per minute.

Q: What is intrapulmonary shunting?
A: This is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart, inhibiting diffusion and perfusion.

Q: What is a bag-mask device?
A: This is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, this delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen.

Q: What is the normal respiratory rate of adults?
A: For this group, the average respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

Q: What is the normal respiratory rate of children?
A: The normal respiratory rate of this group is 15 to 30 breaths per minute.

Q: What is the normal respiratory rate of infants?
A: The normal respiratory rate of this group is 25 to 50 breaths per minute.

Q: What are retractions?
A: This is when the skin pulls in around the ribs or above the clavicle during respiration. It is a sign of inadequate breathing.

Q: What are agonal gasps?
A: These are occasional gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped. They occur when the respiratory center in the brain continues to send signals to the respiratory muscles.

Q: What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
A: This is an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations that is followed by a period of apnea, or lack of spontaneous breathing, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration.

Q: What is ataxic respirations?
A: This is a pattern of irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern.

Q: What are Kussmaul respirations?
A: This is an irregular breathing pattern characterized as deep, gasping respirations commonly seen in patients with metabolic acidosis.

Q: What maneuver should you use on a patient if you suspect a cervical spine injury to open the airway?
A: In this situation, use the the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Q: What are the principle purposes of an oropharyngeal airway?
A: The principle purposes of this are to:
1) Keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway.
and 2) Make it easier to suction the the oropharynx if necessary.

Q: What is the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway in children?
A: With this group, the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway is to use a tongue blade to hold the tongue down.

Q: When should you consult medical control about inserting a nasopharyngeal airway?
A: You should consult medical control about this when a patient has sustained severe trauma to the head or face.

Q: How much airflow and vacuum should a suctioning unit be able to generate?
A: This should generate airflow of more than 40 L per minute, and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.

Q: What is a suction catheter?
A: This is a hollow cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient's airway.

Q: How long should you suction a patient's mouth or nose?
A: You should never do this for more than 15 seconds at a time for adults, 10 seconds for children, and 5 for infants.

Q: What is the recovery position?
A: This position is used to maintain a clear airway in an unconscious patient who is not injured and is breathing on his or her own with a normal respiratory rate and adequate tidal volume. The patient is rolled onto their left sidewith a hand underneath the head for support. Never put a patient in this position if you suspect spinal trauma.

Q: What is the pin-indexing system?
A: This is a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas.

Q: What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nasal cannula?
A: This device has a flow rate of 1000 to 6000 mL per minute, and delivers 24% to 44% oxygen.

Q: What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nonre-breathing mask?
A: This device has a flow rate of 10 to 15 L per minute, and delivers up to 90% oxygen.

Q: What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a bag-mask device with reservoir?
A: This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 100% oxygen.

Q: What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a mouth-to-mask device?
A: This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 55% oxygen.

Q: What is a partial rebreathing mask?
A: This is similar to a nonrebreathing mask except that there is no one-way valve between the mask and reservoir. Consequently, patients rebreathe a small amount of their exhaled air. This is advantageous for patients who you think are suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. You can easily convert a nonrebreathing mask to this by removing the one-way valve between the mask and the reservoir bag.

Q: What is the nature of air movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
A: Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
air is sucked into the lungs due to the negative intrathoracic created when the diaphragm contracts.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the lungs through a means of mechanical ventilation.

Q: What is the nature of blood movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
A: Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
Normal breathing allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Intrathoracic pressure is increased, not allowing blood to be adequately pulled back to the heart. This causes the amount of blood pumnped by the heart to be reduced.

Q: What is the nature of airway wall pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
A: Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
More volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. As a result, the walls are pushed out of their normal anatomic shape.

Q: What is the nature of esophageal opening pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
A: Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the stomach, causing gastric distention that could result in vomiting and aspiration.

Q: What is the nature of overventilation in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
A: Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not typical of normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Forcing volume and rate results in increased intrathoracic pressure, gastric distention, and a decrease in cardiac output.

Q: For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in adults?
A: For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds.

Q: For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in children and infants?
A: For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds.

Q: When should you use a bag-mask device?
A: This should be used when you need to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients who not ventilating adequately. The device is also used for patients in respiratory arrest, cardiopulmonary arrest, and respiratory failure. You should use an oral or nasal airway adjunct.

Q: What is the volume capability of the adult bag-mask device?
A: The volume capability for this device is 1200 to 1600 mL.

Q: What is the volume capability of the pediatric bag-mask device?
A: The volume capability of this device is 500 to 700 mL.

Q: What is the volume capability of the infant bag-mask device?
A: The volume capability of this device is 150 to 240 mL.

Q: What is a manually triggered ventilation device, AKA a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device?
A: This is a fixed flow/rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed. The major advantage of this device is that it allows a single rescuer to use both hand to maintain a mask-to-face seal.

Q: What is compliance?
A: This is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation.

Q: What is CPAP?
A: This is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress.
Indications for this include:
Patient must be alert and able to follow commands.
Patient is displaying obvious signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress from an underlying pathology, such as pulmonary edema or obstructive pulmonary disease.
The patient is breathing rapidly, such that it affects over-all minute volume.
And,
Pulse oximetry reading is less than 90%.
Contraindications include:
A patient who is in respiratory arrest.
Signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax or chest trauma.
Tracheostomy.
Active gastrointestinal bleeding or vomiting.
And,
The patient is unable to follow verbal commands.

Q: Where should you auscultate?
A: Because you can almost always hear a patients breath sounds better from the back, do this there if the back is accessible. Do this over the apices (upper lungs), bases (lower lungs), and over the major airways.

Q: What is pharmacology?
A: This is the science of drugs.

Q: What is pharmacodynamics?
A: This is the process by which a medication works on the body.

Q: What is an agonist?
A: This is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors.

Q: What is an antagonist?
A: This is medication that binds to a receptor and block other medications.

Q: What is a medication's action?
A: This is the therapeutic effect or intended effect it is expected to have on the body.

Q: What should you remember about doses in the elderly population?
A: These may also need to be decreased for this population because they cannot process medications as efficiently as others.

Q: What are indication?
A: These are the reasons or conditions for which a particular medication is given.

Q: What are contraindications?
A: These are reasons or conditions for which a particular medication should not be given, even if it usually is indicated for that person's condition.

Q: What are side effects?
A: These are any actions of a medication other than the desired ones.

Q: What are unintended effects?
A: These are the effects that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.

Q: What are untoward effects?
A: These are the effects that can be harmful to the patient.

Q: What is the difference between a medication's generic name and its trade name?
A: The first is a simple, clear, nonproprietary name. The second is the brand name; as a proper noun, it begins with a capital letter.

Q: What are OTC medications?
A: These are medications that can be purchased without a prescription.

Q: What are enteral medications?
A: These are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.

Q: What are parenteral medications?
A: These are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes. These are absorbed much more quickly and offer a more predictable and measurable dose.

Q: What is absorption?
A: This is the process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.

Q: What is the per retum (PR) route of administration?
A: This is medication administrated by the rectum. It is most commonly used with children and patients who cannot swallow or are unconscious.

Q: What is the intravenous (IV) route of administration?
A: This is medication administed into the vein. This is the fastest way to deliver a chemical substance.

Q: What is the intraosseous (IO) route of administration?
A: This is medication delivered into the bone, reaching the bloodstream via the bone marrow. This is very painful, and so this route is used most often in patients who are unconscious as a result of cardiac arrest or extreme shock, as well as children who have fewer available IV sites.

Q: What is the subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route of administration?
A: This is medication delivered beneath the skin as an injection into the tissue between the skin and muscle. Because there is less blood here than in the muscles, medications that are given by this route are generally absorbed more slowly, and their effects last longer. Daily insulin injections for patients with diabetes are given this way, as well as some forms of epinephrine.

Q: What is the intramuscular (IM) route of administration?
A: This is medication administered into the muscle. Usually, medications given this way are absorbed quickly because muscles have a lot of blood vessels. Possible problems with this method are damage to muscle tissue and uneven, unreliable absorption, especially in people with decreased tissue perfusion. Auto-injectors frequently use this method.

Q: What is the inhalation route of administration?
A: This is medication inhaled into the lungs so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly, or so they work in the lungs. Generally, this minimizes the effects of the medication in other body tissues.

Q: What is the sublingual (SL) route of administration?
A: This is medication administered under the tongue. The medication enters through the oral mucosa under the tongue and are absorbed into the bloodstream within minutes. This method is faster than the oral route, and it protects medications from chemicals in the digestive system, such as acids that can weaken or inactivate them.

Q: What is the transcutaneous, or transdermal route of administration?
A: This is medication administered through the skin, and usually have longer-lasting effects. Nicotine patches or adhesive patches containing nitroglycerin are examples of this.

Q: What is the intranasal (IN) route of administration?
A: This is medication administered into the nostril, typically via a specialized atomizer device called a Mucosal Atomizer Device (AKA M.A.D.). Blood flow to the head and face is very high; therefore, absorption is rather quick with this route. Naloxone can be administered to some overdose patients via this route.

Q: What is a solution?
A: This is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand.

Q: What is a suspension?
A: This is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. It is very important that you shake or swirl a suspesion before administering it to ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication.

Q: What is a metered-dose inhaler (A.K.A. an MDI)?
A: This is a miniature spray canister used to direct such substances through the mouth and into the lungs. It delivers the same amount of medication each time it is used, and must be shaken vigorously before the medication is administered.

Q: What are topical medications?
A: These are lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin.

Q: What are the "Six Rights" of medication administration?
A: These are:
1) Right patient,
2) Right medication,
3) Right dose,
4) Right route,
5) Right time,
and 6) Right documentation

Q: What is the echo technique?
A: This is repeating the order you receive from the physician for the administration of a medication. It is essential that you do this anytime you receive an order from a physician.

Q: What are the 3 circumstances for administering medication?
A: These are:
1) peer-assisted medication (administering medication to yourself or your partner)
2) patient-assisted medication (assisting the patient with the administration of his or her own medication)
and,
3) EMT-administered medication (directly administering the medication to the patient.

Q: What are the medications that may be administered by EMTs (depending of course on local protocol)?
A: These medications are:
Oxygen,
Activated charcoal,
Oral glucose,
Aspirin,
Epinephrine auto-injector,
Meter-dose inhaler medications,
and,
Nitroglycerin.

Q: What is Lipitor AKA atorvastatin used for?
A: This is used to lower cholesterol.

Q: What is montelukast AKA Singulair used for?
A: This is used to help prevent asthma attacks.

Q: What is escitalopram AKA Lexapro used for?
A: This is used to treat depression.

Q: What is esomeprazole AKA Nexium used for?
A: This is used to treat gastric reflux.

Q: What is levothyroxine AKA Synthroid used for?
A: This is used to treat decreased thyroid functioning.

Q: What is clopidogrel AKA Plavix used for?
A: This is used to prevent stroke and heart attack.

Q: What is metroprolol AKA Toprol used for?
A: This is used to lower blood pressure.

Q: What is lansoprazole AKA Prevacid used for?
A: This is used to treat stomach ulcers.

Q: What is ezetimibe and simvastatin AKA Vytorin AKA Zetia used for?
A: This is used to lower cholesterol.

Q: What is fluticasone and salmeterol AKA Advair Diskus used for?
A: This is used to treat asthma.

Q: What is cetirizine AKA Zyrtec used for?
A: This is used to treat allergies.

Q: What is venlafaxine AKA Effexor used for?
A: This is used to treat depression.

Q: What is pantoprazole AKA Protonix used for?
A: This is used to treat gastic reflux.

Q: What is valsartan AKA Diovan used for?
A: This is used to treat high blood pressure.

Q: What is alendronate AKA Fosamax used for?
A: This is used to treat osteoporosis.

Q: What is potassium chloride AKA Klor-Con used for?
A: This is used to treat low potassium levels.

Q: What is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide AKA Diovan HCT used for?
A: This is used to treat hypertension.

Q: What is levofloxacin AKA Levaquin?
A: This is an antibiotic.

Q: What is polypharmacy?
A: This refers to the use of multiple medications by one person.

Q: What is a common bronchodilator?
A: A common kind of this medication is albuterol (AKA Proventil or Ventolin).

Q: What is another name for asthma?
A: This is also known as reactive airway disease.

Q: What is the standard dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector?
A: The standard dose for this is 0.3 mg.

Q: What is epinephrine (AKA adrenaline), and what are its characteristics?
A: This is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response and is the primary medication EMTs will administer IM. It is sympathomimetic, meaning it mimics the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
Characteristics of this chemical are:
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands.
Dilates passages in the lungs.
Constricts blood vessels, causing increased blood pressure.
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.
Contraindication for this include:
hypertension,
hypothermia,
myocardial infarction,
and,
no sign of wheezing or hypotension

Q: What is nitroglycerin?
A: The purpose of this is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to dilate. It does this by relaxing the muscular walls of the coronary arteries and veins. Always take the patient's blood pressure before administering this; if systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, do not administer this medication.
Contraindications for this include:
sildenafil (Viagra), tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or any other medications that are used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction taken in the previous 24 hours.

Q: What is the standard dose for nitroglycerin?
A: The standard dose for this is .4 mg / pill.

Q: How long should you wait between doses of nitroglycerin?
A: You should wait 5 minutes before administering another dose of this.

Q: What is aspirin (A.K.A. acetylsalicylic acid or A.S.A.)?
A: This is an antipyretic (fever reducer), analgesic (reduces pain), and anti-inflammatory medication that also inhibits platelet aggregation. Taken during a heart attack, this may prove lifesaving. It should not be given to children during episodes of fever-causing illness due to its association with Reye syndrome (which causes swelling in the brain and liver).

Q: What is adsorption?
A: This means to bind or stick to a surface.

Q: What is the usual dose for activated charcoal?
A: This is usually 1 to 2 grams per kilogram of body weight.

Q: As an EMT, what is the only way you can administer oral glucose?
A: As an EMT, you can only administer this orally.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Acetaminophen / Tylenol?
A: For this medication:
Action: Analgesic and antifever
Indications: Relief of mild pain or fever, headache, and muscle aches
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Allergic reaction
Interactions: Caution must be taken when EMTs are administering this to avoid potential overdosing.
Adult dose: 500 to 1000 mg every 4 hours as needed; dose is weight based for children.
Administration concerns: Weight of child is more important than age.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of activated charcoal / actidose with Sorbitol?
A: For this medication:
Action: Adsorbs toxic substances in the digestive tract.
Indications: Most oral poisonings; overdose.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness; overdose of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances.
Routes: PO.
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, constipation, black stool.
Interactions: Bonds with and inactivates most medications / substance in the digestive tract.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 grams per kilogram
Administration concerns: Stains; protect patient and provider clothing; do not give when giving other PO medications.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Aspirin / Bayer?
A: For this medication:
Action: Anti-inflammatory agent and anti-fever agent; prevents platelets from clumping, thereby decreasing formation of new clots.
Indications: Relief of mild pain, headache, muscle aches, chest pain when considering myocardial infarction.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, recent bleeding.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Caution should be used in patients who are taking anticoagulants.
Adult dose: 160 to 325 mg for chest pain.
Administration concerns: Do not administer for pain cause by trauma or for fevers in children; patients with chest pain must be able to chew tablets.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Albuterol / Proventil, Ventolin?
A: For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Asthma / difficulty breathing with wheezing.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, tachycardia, myocardial infarction.
Routes: MDI / inhalation.
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 inhalations; wait 5 minutes before repeating dose.
Administration concerns: Patient must inhale all medication in 1 breath; coach patient to hold breath for 5 seconds after inhalation.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of diphenhydramine / Benadryl?
A: For this medication:
Action: Antihistamine.
Indications: Mild allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Asthma, glaucoma, pregnancy, hypertension, infants.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Sleepiness, dry mouth, and throat.
Interactions: Do not take with alcohol or MAO inhibitors (a type of psychiatric medication).
Adult dose: 25 to 50 mg.
Administration concerns: Can use in severe allergic reaction; however, epinephrine is administered first.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Epinephrine / EpiPen?
A: For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Severe allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Myocardial infarction, hypothermia, hypertension.
Routes: IM (auto-injector).
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 auto-injector.
Administration concerns: Medication will last approximately 5 minutes; do not repeat dose; ensure ALS is en route for continuing treatment.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of ibuprofen / Advil, Motrin, Nuprin?
A: For this medication:
Action: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that reduces inflammation and fever, analgesic.
Indications: Mild pain or fever, headache, muscle aches.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Do not take with aspirin.
Adult dose: 200 to 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours; dose is weight based in children.
Administration concerns: Do not take for pain caused by trauma; weight of child is more important than age.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of nitroglycerin / Nitrostat?
A: For this medication:
Action: Dilates blood vessels.
Indications: Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.
Contraindications: Hypotension, having taken sildenafil (Viagra) or another treatment for erectile dysfunction with the past 24 hours; head injury.
Routes: SL / Spray.
Side Effects: Headache, burning under tongue, hypotension, nausea.
Interactions: Increases dilating effects of other blood vessel-dilating medications.
Adult dose: 0.3 to 0.4 mg SL; 0.4 mg spray.
Administration concerns: Ensure ALS is en route.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oral glucose / Glutose?
A: For this medication:
Action: When absorbed, provides glucose for cell use.
Indications: Hypoglycemia.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting.
Interactions: None.
Adult dose: 1/2 to 1 tube.
Administration concerns: Patient must have control of airway and be awake and able to follow commands.

Q: What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oxygen?
A: For this medication:
Action: Reverses hypoxia, provides oxygen to be absorbed by lungs.
Indications: Hypoxia or suspected hypoxia.
Contraindications: Very rarely in patients with C.O.P.D.
Routes: Gas / Inhalation.
Side Effects: Decreased respiratory effort in rare cases in patients with C.O.P.D.
Interactions: Can support combustion.
Adult dose: Use oxygen delivery to administer 28% to 100% oxygen.
Administration concerns: No open flames nearby; do not withhold oxygen from patients in respiratory distress.

Q: What is a neonate?
A: This is a baby from birth to 1 month.

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of neonates (0 to 1 month)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 180;
Respirations: 30 to 60;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 50 to 70;
and,
Temperature: 98 to 100° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of infants (1 month to 1 year)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 100 to 160;
Respirations: 25 to 50;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 70 to 95;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of toddler (1 to 3 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 150;
Respirations: 20 to 30;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of preschool age children (3 to 6 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 80 to 140;
Respirations: 20 to 25;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of school age children (6 to 12 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 70 to 120;
Respirations: 15 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of early adults (19 to 40 years) and middle adults (41 to 60 years)?
A: For these groups:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 140;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of adolescents (12 to 18 years)?
A: For this group:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait

Q: What is the general rule for age and pulse rates / respirations?
A: The general rule is: the younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations.

Q: What is the tidal volume in neonates?
A: In this age group, the tidal volume is 6 to 8 mL per kg.

Q: How much does a neonate usually weigh at birth, what percent of their weight does their head account for, and how much weight do they gain as they develop?
A: This group usually weighs 6 to 8 lbs (3 to 3.5 kg) at birth, with the head accounting for 25% of its body weight. In the first week, 5% to 10% of their birth weight is lost due to fluid loss. I n the second week, they start growing at a rate of about 30g a day.

Q: What are some important considerations regarding a neonate's pulmonary system?
A: In the group:
1) Their first breath is forceful, as they must inflate their lungs.
2) This group is particularly prone to nasal congestion, which causes upper respiratory infections. If you recieve a call for choking, make sure the nasal passages are clear and unobstructed by mucus.
3) Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. This explains their diaphragmatic breathing (AKA "belly breathing").

Q: What is barotrauma?
A: This is trauma resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs.

Q: What is the moro reflex?
A: This (AKA startle reflex) is when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone; the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things.

Q: What is the palmer grasp?
A: This is an infant reflex; when an is object is placed in their palm, they grasp at the object.

Q: What is the rooting reflex?
A: This takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek; the neonate will instinctively turn his or her head toward the touch.

Q: What is the sucking reflex?
A: This occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked.

Q: What are fontanelles?
A: These are areas where the infat's skull has not fused together; the posterior fuses by the third month; the anterior between 9 and 18 months.

Q: If an infant's fontanelles' is depressed or bulging, what does that mean?
A: If these are depressed, the infant is most likely dehydrated.
These bulging is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 2 months?
A: At this age, the infant can recognize familar faces, and is able to track objects with their eyes.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 3 months?
A: At this age, the infant can bring objects to the mouth, and can smile and frown.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 4 months?
A: At this age, the infant can reach out to people and drool.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 5 months?
A: At this age, the infant can sleep through the night, and can tell family from strangers.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 6 months?
A: At this age, teething begins; the infant can sit upright in a chair, and one-syllable words are spoken.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 7 months?
A: At this age, the infant is afraid of strangers, and has mood swings.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 8 months?
A: At this age, the infant responds to "no", can sit alone, and plays peek-a-boo.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 9 months?
A: At this age, the infant can pull himself or herself up, and places objects in mouth to explore them,

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 10 months?
A: At this age, the infant responds to his or her name, and crawls efficiently.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 11 months?
A: At this age, the infant starts to walk without help, and can be frustrated with restrictions.

Q: What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 12 months?
A: At this age, the infant knows his or her name, and can walk.

Q: What a secure attachment?
A: This occurs when an infant understands that parents or caregivers will be responsive to his or her needs. This realization encourages a child to reach out and explore, knowing that the parents will provide a "safety net".

Q: What is anxious-avoidant attachment?
A: In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others.

Q: What are some physical developments in toddlers and preschoolers?
A: In these age groups:
1) The children do not have well-developed lung musculature. This anomaly prevents them from sustaining deep or rapid respirations for an extended period of time.
2) They lose passive immunity and acquire their own immunity as the body is exposed to various viruses and germs.
3) The average age for completion of toilet training is 28 months of age.

Q: At what age do children transition from using language to communicate what they want to using language creatively and playfully.
A: This transition occurs by the age of 3 or 4.

Q: How much do most school age children grow each year?
A: This group grows about 4 lbs (2 kg) and 2 1/2 inches (6 cm) each year.

Q: What is pre-conventional reasoning?
A: In this stage of development, children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

Q: What is conventional reasoning?
A: In this stage of development, children look for approval from their peers and society.

Q: What is postconventional reasoning?
A: In this stage of development, children make decisions guided by their conscience.

Q: What is atherosclerosis?
A: In this disorder, cholesterol and calcium build-up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque. More than 60% of people older than 65 years ahve atherosclerotic disease.

Q: What happens to the respiratory system of late adults?
A: In this group:
1) The size of the airway increases.
2) The surface of the alveoli decreases.
and
3) Factors such as loss of respiratory muscle mass and an increased stiffness of the thoracic cage leads to up to a 50% decresse of vital capacity by age 75.

Q: What happens to the endocrine system of late adults?
A: In this group:
As a person gains weight, more insulin is need to control the body's metabolism and blood glucose level. The pancreas may not be able to produce enough insulin for the person's body size, which can lead to diabetes mellitus.

Q: What happens to the digestive system of late adults?
A: In this group:
Blood flow may drop by as much as 50%, decreasing the ability of the intestines to extract vitamins and minerals from digested food.

Q: What happens to the renal system of late adults?
A: In this group:
1) The filtration function of the kidneys declines by 50% from age 20 to age 90.
2) Kidney mass decreases by 20% over the same span.
3) The number of nephrons (capillaries that perform filtering in the kidney) also decreases, which leads to a decrease in the ability to clear wastes from the body.

Q: What happens to the nervous system of late adults?
A: In this group:
1) The brain may shrink 10% to 20% by age 80, increasing the possibility of internal trauma.
2) The number of neurons (brain cells) declines over one's lifetime.
3) The peripheral nervous system also slows with age.

Q: What is the terminal drop hypothesis?
A: This is a theory that a person's mental function declines in the last five years of life.

Q: What percentage of single women of 60 years of age or older live at or below the poverty line in the United States.
A: More than 50% of this group live at or below the poverty line in the United States.

Q: What is topographic anatomy?
A: This is the landmarks of the surface of the body used to orient treatment.

Q: What is the anatomic position?
A: This is a position of reference in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward. To be consistent, health care providers use the patient's left and right as reference point.

Q: What are the three planes of the body?
A: These are:
1) Frontol (coronal) plane - Anterior vs. posterior.
2) Transverse (horizontal) plane - Superior vs. inferior.
and
3) Sagittal plane - medial vs. lateral.

Q: What is the opposite of superficial (closest to the surface of the skin)?
A: The opposite of this is deep (farthest from the surface of the skin).

Q: What is the palmar surface?
A: This is another term for the palm.

Q: What is the plantar surface?
A: This is another term for the bottom of the foot.

Q: What is the apex (plural apices)?
A: This is the tip of a structure.

Q: What is flexion?
A: This is the bending of a joint.

Q: What is extension?
A: This is the straightening of a joint.

Q: What is adduction?
A: This is motion toward the midline.

Q: What is abduction?
A: This is motion away from the midline.

Q: What does it mean if something is said to occur unilaterally?
A: This means something appears on only one side of the body.

Q: What are ligaments?
A: These connect bones to other bones.

Q: What are tendons?
A: These connect muscles to bones.

Q: What is cartilage?
A: This is the soft, semiflexible material that is found within the joints and serves as cushioning.

Q: What is the axial skeleton?
A: This forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung. It is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cavity, and vertebral column.

Q: What is the appendicular skeleton?
A: This is composed of the arms and legs, their connective points, and the pelvis.

Q: How many bones are there in the body?
A: There are 206 of these.

Q: What is the foramen magnum?
A: This is a large opening at the base of the skull.

Q: What are the maxillae?
A: These are the upper, non-moveable jawbones.

Q: What are the zygomas?
A: These are the cheekbones.

Q: What is the orbit?
A: This is the eye socket.

Q: How many vertebrae are there in the body?
A: There are 33 of these in the body.

Q: What are the five sections of the spine, and how many vertebrae in each?
A: These are the:
1) Cervical - 7
2) Thoracic - 12
3) Lumbar - 5
4) Sacrum - 5
5) Coccyx - 4

Q: How many pairs of ribs are there in the body?
A: There are 12 pairs of these.

Q: What is the sternum?
A: This is the midline of the chest. It's bordered superiorly by the easily palpable jugular notch. It has three components: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.

Q: What is the xiphoid process.
A: This is a narrow, cartilaginous tip which forms the inferior part of the sternum.

Q: What is the shoulder girdle?
A: This is where three bones (the clavicle, scapula, and humerus) come together, allowing the arm to be moved.

Q: What is the clavicle?
A: This overlies the superior boundaries of the thorax in fonrt and articulates posteriorly with the scapula.

Q: What is the scapula?
A: This lies in the muscular tissue of the posterior thoracic wall.

Q: What two bones compose the forearm?
A: This is composed of the ulna (medial, larger in the proximal) and radius (lateral, larger in the distal).

Q: What bones make up the pelvis?
A: This is made up of the sacrum and the two pelvic bones, each of which is formed by the fusion of three separate bones, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis, joined posteriorly by the sacrum.

Q: What is the pubis symphysis?
A: This is a hard and bony cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowest portion of the abdomen, where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.

Q: What is the acetabulum?
A: This is the part of the pelvis where the lower leg connects, the "socket" in which the "ball" of the femur fits.

Q: What is the greater trochanter?
A: This is the projection on the lateral / superior portion of the femur.

Q: What is the lesser trochanter?
A: This is the medial / superior portion of the femur.

Q: What is the patella?
A: This is the kneecap.

Q: What is the tibia (shine bone)?
A: This is the larger bone of lower leg. It lies in the anterior of the leg.

Q: What is the fibula?
A: This is the smaller of the bones in the lower leg. It lies on the lateral side of the leg.

Q: What is joint capsules?
A: These are fibrous sacs composed of ligaments at the end of bones, and assist in flexion.

Q: What is the synovial membrane?
A: This is special tissue on the inner lining of the joint capsule that is responsible for making a thick lubricant called synovial fluid. This fluid allows the ends of bones to glide over each other as opposed to grating.

Q: What is the difference between ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints?
A: The first allows rotation and bending (as in the shoulder joint), while the second restricts motion to one plane (as in the knee).

Q: What is the skeletal system responsible for?
A: This is resonsible for:
1) giving the body shape.
2) providing protection of fragile organs.
3) allowing for movement.
And,
4) helping with the creation of various types of blood cells.

Q: How many different muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system?
A: There are over 600 of these.

Q: What are skeletal muscles (AKA voluntary muscles)?
A: These attach to the bones of the skeleton and forms the major muscle mass of the body. They are under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be stimulated to contract or relax at will.

Q: What is smooth muscle?
A: This is found within blood vessels and intestines.

Q: What is cardiac muscle?
A: This is found only within the heart.

Q: What is the epiglottis?
A: These is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that protects the opening of the trachea.

Q: What is the location and function of the biceps?
A: This is located anterior to the humerus,
and,
flexes the lower arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the triceps?
A: This is located posterior to the humerus,
and,
extends the lower arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the pectoralis?
A: This is located anterior to the thorax,
and,
flexes and rotates the arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the latissimus dorsi?
A: This is located posterior to the thorax,
and,
extends and rotates the arm.

Q: What is the location and function of the rectus abdominis?
A: This is located anterior to the abdomen,
and,
flexes and rotates the spine.

Q: What is the location and function of the tibialis anterior?
A: This is located anterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes towards the heads.

Q: What is the location and function of the gastrocnemius?
A: This is located posterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes away from the head.

Q: What is the location and function of the quadriceps?
A: This is located anterior to the femur,
and,
extends the lower leg.

Q: What is the location and function of the biceps femoris?
A: This is located posterior to the femur,
and,
flexes the lower leg.

Q: What is the location and function of the gluteus?
A: This is located posterior to the pelvis,
and,
extends and rotates the leg.

Q: What is another name for the larynx?
A: Another name for this is the voice box.

Q: What is the cricothyroid membrane?
A: This lies between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. It can be felt as a depression in the midline of the neck just inferior to the thyroid cartilage.

Q: What kind of muscle is the diaphragm?
A: This is unique because it has characteristics of skeletal and smooth muscle.

Q: How does the body detect decreased blood pressure, and what will it do as a result?
A: The body detects this situation by the baroreceptors, and will initiate the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Q: What is the V/Q ratio?
A: This examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is gaining access to the alveoli.

Q: What is pathophysiology?
A: This is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular disease.

Q: What is normal physiologic pH?
A: This is normally between 7.35 and 7.45 pH.

Q: What is sodium bicarbonate?
A: This is an alkaline and helps to buffer or neutralize the acidic waste products of the cells.

Q: What is lactic acid?
A: This is the metabolic end product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (AKA anaerobic respiration).

Q: What is the endocrine system?
A: This is a complex message and control system that uses hormones to stimulate the body.

Q: In a healthy adult, what percent of total body weight is delivered as fluid daily to the gastrointestinal tract?
A: About 7% of this is delivered. If significant vomiting or diarrhea occurs for more than 2 or 3 days, the person will lose a substantial portion of body composition and become severely ill.

Q: What are enzymes?
A: These are substance catalysts designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.

Q: What are hormones?
A: These are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. They regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature.

Q: What is bile?
A: This is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and emptied as needed into the duodenum. Its major function is the digestion of fat.

Q: What is chyme?
A: This is ingested food converted in the stomach into a thoroughly mixed semisolid mass.

Q: How much saliva is produced daily?
A: Approximately 1.5 litres of this is produced daily.

Q: What is the average stroke volume (SV) of an adult heart?
A: This is 70 to 80 mL each on average.

Q: What is the average cardiac output (CO) of an adult?
A: This is 5 to 6 litres.

Q: What are the two electrical processes associated with the mechanical contraction of the heart?
A: These are:
1) depolarization, when the electrical charge on the muscle cell surface changes from positive to negative.
And,
2) repolarization, when the heart returns to its resting state and positive charge is restored to the surface.

Q: What is the path of the electrical impulse that produces the a smooth flow of electricity through the heart?
A: This begins high in the atria at the sinoatrial node, then travels to the atrioventricular node bundle of His, and moves through the Purkinje fivers to the ventricles.

Q: What is the chordae tendineae?
A: These are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.

Q: What is the tunica media?
A: This is the middle layer of the artery, and is where the smooth muscles are found that can contract and dilate to change the diameter of the blood vessels.

Q: What are the coronary arteries?
A: These supply the heart.

Q: What are the carotid arteries?
A: These supply the head.

Q: What are the hepatic arteries?
A: These supply the liver with blood.

Q: What are the renal arteries?
A: These supply the kidneys with blood.

Q: What are the mesenteric arteries?
A: These supply the digestive system with blood.

Q: What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
A: This is the resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels.

Q: How much blood is in the spleen at any one time?
A: Approximately 450 mL of blood is in this organ at any one time. Virtually all the blood in the body passes through here during the day, where it is filtered.

Q: What is blood plasma composed of?
A: This is composed of:
92% water,
7% proteins such as albumin which regulates oncotic pressure,
and
the final 1% is oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, nutrients, cellular wastes, and other cellular products.

Q: How much blood does a child have in their body?
A: This group has approximately 2 to 3 litres, depending on their age and size.

Q: How much blood does an infant have in their body?
A: This group has only about 300 mL in their body.

Q: How much blood is in the heart, arteries, and capillaries versus the veins and venules?
A: The ratio is approximately 30% in the former group, and 70% in the later group.

Q: What is interstitial space?
A: This is the space between cells.

Q: What are alpha-adrenergic receptors?
A: These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause constriction of blood vessels.

Q: What are beta-adrenergic receptors?
A: These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.

Q: What are the three parts of the brain stem?
A: These are:
1) the midbrain,
2) the pons,
and 3) the medulla oblongata.

Q: What is the parasympathetic nervous system?
A: This is the other half of the autonomic nervous system and generally slow down the body.

Q: What are the 2 layers of the skin?s
A: These are:
1) The epidermis; at its base is the germinal layer, which continuously produces new cells.
2) The dermis; the sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, hair follices, blood vessels, and specialized nerve endings are located here.

Q: How long does it take for cells produced in the germinal layer to rise to the stratum corneal layer?
A: This journey takes about 4 weeks.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)?
A: For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes inspiration when stimulated.
Timing: Normal, resting respirations; rhythmic, mechanical pattern.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)?
A: For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes expiration or inspiration.
Timing: Speech, increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the Pneumotaxic (pontine) center?
A: For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the apneustic center?
A: For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration, decreases rate.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex (stretch reflex)?
A: For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects lung expansion to a point and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex?
A: For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects potential lung collapse and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the adrenal gland?
A: For this gland:
Location: Above the kidneys.
Function: Stress response, fight or flight.
Hormones produced: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the ovary?
A: For this gland:
Location: Female pelvis.
Function: Regulates sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Estrogen and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pancreas?
A: For this gland:
Location: Retroperitoneal space.
Function: Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions.
Hormones produced: Insulin and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the parathyroid?
A: For this gland:
Location: Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)
Function: Regulates serum calcium.
Hormones produced: Parathyroid hormone.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pituitary gland?
A: For this gland:
Location: Base of skull.
Function: Regulates all other endocrine glands.
Hormones produced: Multiple, controls other endocrine glands.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the testes?
A: For this gland:
Location: Male scrotum.
Function: Regulate sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Testosterone and others.

Q: What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the thyroid?
A: For this gland:
Location: Neck (over the larynx).
Function: Regulates metabolism.
Hormones produced: Thyroxine and others.

Q: What is one example of an additional skill that an AEMT can perform that a standard EMT-B cannot?
A: One example of this is esophageal-tracheal intubation.

Q: What are the responsibilities of the medical director?
A: This person uses their license to allow EMT-Bs to provide prehospital care, and is responsible for the quality of treatment given. They are also responsible for ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training, ensuring the appropriate standards are met by EMT-Bs, and serving as liaison with the medical community.

Q: What are standing orders?
A: These are specific policies issued by a medical director that authorizes an EMT to perform particular skills in certain situations (for example: "if a patient has a blood sugar below 60, administer oral glucose").

Q: What does continuous quality improvement (AKA CQI) involve?
A: This involves:
Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.
Discussion of needs for improvement.
And,
Periodic reviews of run reports.

Q: Who is responsible for maintaining quality control?
A: This responsibility ultimately rests with the medical director.

Q: What is always an EMT-Bs first priority during a call?
A: This is always personal safety.

Q: What are some essential skills an EMT-B needs to learn?
A: Some examples of this include:
Verbal and written communication skills.
Dealing with medical, legal, and ethical situations,
and,
Delivering a baby.

Q: What are the ten standards identified by the "Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards" provided by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration?
A: These are:
1) regulation and policy,
2) resource management,
3) human resources and training,
4) transportation,
5) facilities,
6) communications,
7) public information and education,
8) medical direction,
9) trauma systems,
and
10) evaluation.

Q: What is online medical control?
A: This is when you are in direct contact with a doctor concerning the current patient.

Q: What is another term for medical direction?
A: Another term for this is medical control.

Q: What is the list of steps taken in different situations, and developed by a medical director, called?
A: These are referred to as protocols.

Q: What federal agency has developed standards for training and development of the EMS system?
A: This agency is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.

Q: What are some components of the EMS system?
A: Some components of this include:
911 Dispatchers,
Patients,
EMS personnel,
and First Responders.

Q: What is one of the most important safeguards against legal problems?
A: A complete, accurate report is one of the most important safeguards against this. The courts consider an incomplete or untidy report to be evidence of incomplete or unexpert care provided.

Q: What is an advanced directive (AKA health care directive)?
A: This is a written document that specifies medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions.

Q: What are DNR orders?
A: These are written documentation that give medical personnel permission not to attempt resuscitation.

Q: What is assualt?
A: This is anytime you unlawfully place a person in fear of immediate bodily harm without his consent.

Q: What is battery?
A: This is defined as unlawfully touching a person without his or her consent.

Q: What is abandonment?
A: This is unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.

Q: What is defamation?
A: This is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.

Q: What is expressed consent (AKA actual consent)?
A: This is a type of consent in which a patient give express authorization for provision of care or transport.

Q: What is implied consent?
A: This is a type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.

Q: What is informed consent?
A: This is permission for treatment given by a compentent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained.

Q: What is breach of duty?
A: This is anytime the EMT-B does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care. This includes providing care above the level of your training.

Q: How many watts of power do VHF mobile radios operate at?
A: These operate at 100 watts of power, and are mounted in mobile vehicles.

Q: What is the first key rule of lifting?
A: The first key rule of this is to always keep your back in an upright position and lift without twisting.

Q: What is the safest and most powerful way to lift?
A: The power lift is this kind of lift.

Q: How many rescuers should you use whenever possible, and who is responsible for coordinating the moves?
A: You should try to have four of these whenever resourcers allow; the team leader is responsible for this.

Q: What is the most commonly used device to move and transport patients?
A: The wheeled ambulance stretcher is the most commonly used one of these.

Q: What are devices used to carry patients?
A: Types of these devices include:
The wheeled ambulance stretchers,
Portable stretchers,
Flexible stretchers,
Backboards,
Basket stretchers (AKA Stokes litters),
Scoop stretchers,
and,
Stair chairs.

Q: What is bariatrics?
A: This is a branch of medicine concerned with the management, prevention and control of obesity and allied diseases.

Q: What is a basket stretcher (AKA a Stokes litter)?
A: This is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom.

Q: What is a diamond carry?
A: This is a carrying technique in which one EMT is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the EMTs at the sides use one hand to support the stretcher / backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk.

Q: What is the direct ground lift?
A: This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury.

Q: What is an emergency move?
A: This is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided.

Q: What is an extremity lift?
A: This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injury.

Q: What is a flexible stretcher?
A: This is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use.

Q: What is a portable stretcher?
A: This is a stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it.

Q: What is a power grip?
A: This is a technique in which the litter or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb.

Q: What is the power lift?
A: This is a lifting technique in which the EMTs' back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms.

Q: What is the rapid extrication technique?
A: This is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization.

Q: AAA
A: abdominal aortic aneurysm

Q: abd
A: abdomen

Q: CHF
A: congestive heart failure

Q: MI
A: myocardial infarction

Q: "PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for [...] patients
A: respiratory

Q: Common signs and symptoms of acute [...] syndrome include tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
A: hyperventilation

Q: Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for [...].
A: Congestive Heart Failure

Q: [...] is the inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
A: Bronchiolitis

Q: [...] is a condition characterized by a chronically high blood level of carbon dioxide in which the respiratory center no longer responds to high blood levels of carbon dioxide.
A: Carbon dioxide retention

Q: Respiratory [...] virus (RSV) is a virus that causes an infection of the lungs and breating passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia; highly contagious and spread through droplets.
A: syncytial

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include wheezing on inspiration/expiration and bronchospasm.
A: Asthma

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include flushed skin or hives, generalized edema, [...], and wheezing or stridor.
A: Anaphylaxis; hypotension

Q: [...]signs and symptoms include SOB, wheezing, coughing, fever, dehydration, [...]pnea, and [...]cardia
A: Bronchiolitis; tachy; tachy

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include chronic cough with clear or white sputum, wheezing, cyanosis, and [...]pnea.
A: Bronchitis; tachy

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include dependent edema, crackles, barrel chested, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and produce pink frothy sputum
A: Congestive heart failure (CHF)

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include fever, barking cough, stridor, and is mostly seen in pediatric patients.
A: Croup

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include difficulty breathing and swallowing, sore throat, thick, gray buildup in the throat or nose, and a fever.
A: Diptheria

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include barrel chest,  pursed lip breathing, dyspnea on exertion, cyanosis and wheezing or decreased breath sounds.
A: Emphysema

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include dyspnea, high fever, stridor, drooling, difficulty swallowing, sore throat, tripod, or sniffing position.
A: Epiglottitis

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include cough, fever, sore throat, and fatigue.
A: Influenza A (flu)

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include coughing spells, whooping sound, and fever.
A: Pertussis

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include dyspnea, chills, fever, cough, green/red/rust colored sputum, and localized wheezing or crackles.
A: Pneumonia

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include sudden chest pain with dyspnea, decreased breath sounds (affected side), and subcutaneous emphysema.
A: Pneumothorax

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include sharp chest pain, sudden onset, dyspnea, [...]cardia, clear breath sounds initially.
A: Pulmonary embolus; tachy

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include severe shortness of breath, decreased/altered LOC, neck vein distention, tracheal deviation (late sign), hypotension; signs of shock (late sign)
A: Tension pneumothorax

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include cough, wheezing, fever, and dehydation
A: Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include cough, fever, fatigue, and productive/bloody sputum.
A: Tuberculosis

Q: As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
A: mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve

Q: [...] signs and symptoms include barrel chest, breathing through [...], dyspnea on [...], cyanosis and wheezing or decreased breath sounds.
A: Emphysema; pursed lips; exertion

Q: An [...] is an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications.
A: advanced EMT (AEMT)

Q: [...] are advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.
A: Advanced life support (ALS)

Q: The [...] is a comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.
A: Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)

Q: An [...] is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and deliver the appropriate electrical shock to the patient.
A: automated external difibrillator (AED)

Q: A [...] is a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.
A: certification

Q: [...] is a healthcare model in which experience paramedics recieve advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or condition, and patient advocacy.
A: Community paramedicine

Q: [...] is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.
A: Continuous quality improvement (CQI)

Q: [...] is a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.
A: Emergency medical dispatch (EMD)

Q: An [...] is the first trained professional, such as police officer, firefighters, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance.
A: emergency medical responder (EMR)

Q: [...] is a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.
A: Emergency medical services (EMS)

Q: An [...] is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, used of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications.
A: emergency medical technician (EMT)

Q: HIPAA stands for [...]
A: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

Q: [...] is federal legislation passed in 1996. It's main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information andp enalizing violations of patient privacy.
A: HIPAA

Q: [...] is the delivery of medication direction into a vein.
A: Intravenous (IV) therapy

Q: [...] is the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
A: Licensure

Q: [...] are physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (offline/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.
A: Medical control

Q: The [...] is the physican who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field.
A: medical director

Q: [...] is a method delivering health care which involves providing healthcare withing the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital.
A: Mobile integrated healthcare (MIH)

Q: The [...] is a document created by the NHTSA that outlines the skills perfored by various EMS providers.
A: National EMS Scope of Practice Model

Q: A [...] is an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.
A: paramedic

Q: [...] are efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occuring.
A: Primary prevention

Q: The [...] is the designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital.
A: primary service area (PSA)

Q: [...] is focused on examining that health needs of entire popilations with the goal of preventing health probelms.
A: Public health

Q: A [...] is a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services.
A: public safety access point

Q: [...] is the responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care stadards are met by EMTS on each call.
A: Quality control

Q: [...] are efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.
A: Secondary prevention

Q: [...] are reactions to stress that occur during a stressful reaction.
A: Acute stress reactions

Q: [...] is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust.
A: Airborne transmission

Q: [...] are pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and HIV.
A: Bloodborne pathogens

Q: The [...] is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US. It is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services.
A: Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

Q: A [...] is a disease that can be spread from one person to another.
A: communicable disease

Q: [...] is the use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
A: Concealment

Q: [...] is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such  as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
A: Contamination

Q: [...] is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.
A: Cover

Q: [...] is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.
A: Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)

Q: [...] are prolonged or excessive stress.
A: Cumulative stress reactions

Q: [...] are reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.
A: Delayed stress reactions

Q: The [...] is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues.
A: designated officer

Q: [...] is exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact
A: Direct contact

Q: [...] is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.
A: Exposure

Q: [...] is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.
A: Foodborne transmission

Q: [...] is the body's respnose to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.
A: General adaptation syndrome

Q: [...] is inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.
A: Hepatitis

Q: A [...] is the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent.
A: host

Q: [...] leads to acquired immunodeficiency symdorme, which damaged the cells in the bodys immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.
A: Human immunodeficieny virus (HIV)

Q: [...] is the bodys ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.
A: Immunity

Q: [...] is exposure or trasmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.
A: Indirect contact

Q: [...] is the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by oranisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites with or without signs or symptoms or disease.
A: Infection

Q: [...] are procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.
A: Infection control

Q: An [...] is a medical condition caused by the growtha nd spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
A: infectious disease

Q: The [...] is the federal regulatory and compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace.
A: Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Q: A [...] is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host.
A: pathogen

Q: [...] is protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or hazardous material.
A: Personal protective equipment (PPE)

Q: [...] is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or morer unresolved issues concerning the inciden, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
A: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Q: [...] is the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles or by vectors.
A: Transmission

Q: [...] are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potention exposure risks of communicable disease.
A: Standard precautions

Q: [...] is the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.
A: Vector-borne transmission

Q: [...] is the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring car to antoher medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
A: Abandonment

Q: [...] is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a [...] or [...]
A: Advanced directive; living will; health care directive.

Q: [...] is the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
A: Applied ethics

Q: [...] is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
A: Assault

Q: [...] is unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
A: Battery

Q: [...] is the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.
A: Bioethics

Q: [...] is the disclosure of information without proper authorization.
A: Breach of confidentiality

Q: [...] is a process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting a certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.
A: Certification

Q: [...] are damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
A: Compensatory damages

Q: Someone who is [...] is able to make rational decisions about personal well-being.
A: competent

Q: [...] is the permission to render care.
A: Consent

Q: [...] is a legal defence that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
A: Contributory negligence

Q: [...] is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.
A: Credentialing

Q: [...] is the ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
A: Decision-making capacity

Q: [...] is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.
A: Defamation

Q: [...] is blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloation of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
A: Dependent lividity

Q: [...] are oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
A: Depositions

Q: [...] is the phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain info from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. It includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
A: Discovery

Q: [...] are written documentation by a physcian giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
A: do not resuscitate (DNR) orders

Q: A [...] is a type of advanced directive executed by  a compettent adult that appoints anotheri ndividual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behald, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity.
A: durable power of attorney

Q: A [...] is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care.
A: duty to act

Q: An [...] is a serious situation, usch as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention.
A: emergency

Q: [...] is the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.
A: Emergency doctrine

Q: [...] is immediate care or treatment.
A: Emergency medical care

Q: [...] is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
A: Ethics

Q: [...] is a type of consent in which a patient fives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
A: Expressed consent

Q: [...] is the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.
A: False imprisonment

Q: [...] is the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
A: Forcible restraint

Q: [...] are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willfull negligence.
A: Good samaritan laws

Q: [...] is the legal doctrine that can protect and EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by government entities.
A: Governmental immunity

Q: [...] is the conduct that constitutes a willfull or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
A: Gross negligence

Q: A [...] is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a [...]
A: health care directive; living will.

Q: [...] are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a [...]
A: Health care proxies; power of attorney.

Q: [...] is the type of consent that a patient who is unable to give consent  is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
A: Implied consent

Q: [...] is permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment are explained.
A: Informed consent

Q: [...] is the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
A: In loco parentis

Q: [...] are written wuestions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
A: Interrogatories

Q: [...] is the seizing, confining, abducting or carrying away of another person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without their consent.
A: Kidnapping

Q: [...] is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
A: Libel

Q: [...] is the process were a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
A: Licensure

Q: [...] is a term relating to medical, law, or forensic medicine.
A: Medicolegal

Q: [...] is a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character conduct and conscience.
A: Morality

Q: [...] is the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
A: Negligence

Q: [...] is a theory that may be used when the conduct of a person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statue.
A: Negligence per se

Q: [...] is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding their health care.
A: Patient autonomy

Q: [...] is when a person who have a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
A: Proximate causation

Q: [...] are damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
A: Punitive damages

Q: [...] is the decompisition of body tissues; this is a definitive sign of death.
A: Putrefaction

Q: [...] is when the EMT is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
A: Res ipsa loquitor

Q: [...] outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient; this is defined by state law.
A: Scope of practice

Q: [...] is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.
A: Slander

Q: [...] is the written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
A: Standard of care

Q: A [...] is a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit.
A: tort

Q: The [...] is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and reciever that is located in a fixed place.
A: base station

Q: A [...] is a low power portable radio that communicates through interconnected series of repeater stations called "cells"
A: cell phone

Q: A [...] is an assign frequency that is used to carry voice and or data communications.
A: channel

Q: [...] is the transmission of information to another person.
A: Communication

Q: [...] is when one person imposes his or her believes on another because they believe their ideals are superior.
A: Cultural imposition

Q: A [...] is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a [...]
A: dedicated line; hotline.

Q: [...] is the recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction that becomes part of the patients permanent medical record.
A: Documentation

Q: A [...] is the ability to transmit and recieve simultaneously.
A: duplex

Q: [...] is when a person considers their own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
A: Ethnocentrism

Q: The [...] is the federal gency that has jusidiction over interstate and international phone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity.
A: Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

Q: An [...] is a communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.
A: interoperable communications system

Q: [...] are VHF and UHF channels that the FCC has designed exclusively for EMS use.
A: MED channels

Q: A [...] is a small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly recieves data from the dispatch center.
A: mobile data terminal (MDT)

Q: [...] is the ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.
A: Multiplex

Q: [...] is anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.
A: Noise

Q: [...] is the use of radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted hrough pagers or desktop monitor radios.
A: Paging

Q: A [...] is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as [...].
A: patient care report (PCR); prehospital care reports

Q: A [...] is a trusting relationship that you build with your patient.
A: rapport

Q: A [...] is a special base station radio that recieves messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
A: repeater

Q: A [...] is a radio reciever that seraches or scans across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated.
A: scanner

Q: A [...] is a single-frequency radio, transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only recieve, and the party that is tranmitting is unable to recieve.
A: simplex

Q: [...] are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called [...]
A: Standing orders; protocols.

Q: [...] is a process which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; which can be transmitted by radio or phone to a reciever with a decoder at the hospital.
A: Telemetry

Q: [...] is the telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequences.
A: Trunking

Q: [...] are verbal and non verbal communication techniques that encourage patient to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
A: Therapeutic communications

Q: [...] are radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.
A: UHF (ultra high frequency)

Q: [...] are radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz and is divided into high and low bands.
A: VHF (very high frequency)

Q: [...] is the motion of a limb away from the midline.
A: Abduction

Q: [...] is the motion of a limb toward the midline.
A: Adduction

Q: The [...] is the pointed extremity of a conical strructure.
A: apex

Q: [...] means further from the trunk of the body.
A: Distal

Q: [...] means closer from the trunk of the body.
A: Proximal

Q: [...] is the straightening of a joint.
A: Extension

Q: [...] is the bending of a joint.
A: Felxion

Q: Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline are [...] or inner structures.
A: medial

Q: [...] is the forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.
A: Palmar

Q: [...] is the bottom surface of the foot.
A: Plantar

Q: The [...] is the part of a term that changes the meaning of the term.
A: prefix

Q: [...] is the position where a patient is lying face down.
A: Prone

Q: When something is [...] it is on the anterior side of the body.
A: ventral

Q: The [...] is the main part of a term that contains the primary meaning of the term.
A: word root

Q: The [...] is the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis.
A: abdomen

Q: The [...] is the depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly.
A: acetabulum

Q: The [...] is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the [...]
A: adams apple; thyroid cartilage.

Q: [...] is the nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.
A: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Q: The [...] are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
A: adrenal glands

Q: [...] is a term pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradreniline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
A: Adrenergic

Q: The [...] is metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.
A: aerobic metabolism

Q: [...] are abnormal breathing patterns characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients with cardiac arrest.
A: Agonal gasps

Q: [...] are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause condtriction of blood vessels.
A: Alpha-adrenergic receptors

Q: The [...] are the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place.
A: alveoli

Q: [...] is the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.
A: Anarobic metabolism

Q: The [...] is the position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side with the palms of the hands forward.
A: anatomic position

Q: The [...] is the main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body.
A: aorta

Q: The [...] is the portion of the skeletal system that comprimises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle.
A: appendicular skeleton

Q: The [...] is a small tubular structure that is attaached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen.
A: appendix

Q: The [...] are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries.
A: arterioles

Q: [...] is apearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surgaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
A: Articular cartilage

Q: The [...] is one of the two upper chambers of the heart.
A: atrium

Q: The [...] is the part of the nervous sustem that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating that are not controlled voluntarily.
A: autonomic nervous system

Q: The [...] is the part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage.
A: axial skeleton

Q: A [...] is a joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending.
A: ball and socket joint

Q: [...] are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
A: Beta-adrenergic receptors

Q: The [...] is the largemu scle that covers the front of the humerus.
A: bicep

Q: The [...] are the ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine.
A: bile ducts

Q: [...] is the pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
A: Blood pressure

Q: The [...] is the major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arms.
A: brachial artery

Q: The [...] is the controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions to the environment, emotional responses, and judgment.
A: brain

Q: The [...] is the area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration.
A: brain stem

Q: The [...] are the tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood.
A: capillary vessels

Q: [...] is heart muscle.
A: Cardiac muscle

Q: [...] is the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. Its calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.
A: Cardiac output

Q: The [...] is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain.
A: carotid artery

Q: The [...] is the smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones.
A: cartilage

Q: The [...] is the first part of the large intenstine into which the ileum opens.
A: cecum

Q: The [...] consists of the brain and spinal cord.
A: central nervous system (CNS)

Q: The [...] is one of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements.
A: cerebellum

Q: [...] is the fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.
A: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Q: The [...] is the largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter; it's made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality.
A: cerebrum

Q: The [...] is the portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertabrae that lie in the neck.
A: cervical spine

Q: The [...] are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.
A: chordaw tendineae

Q: [...] is the substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all the eaten foods with added stomach acids.
A: Chyme

Q: The [...] is the complez arrangement of connected tubes that move blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide and cellular waste through the body.
A: circulatory system

Q: The [...] is the collar bone,it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula.
A: clavicle

Q: The [...] is the last three of four vertabrae of the spine; the tail bone.
A: coccyx

Q: The [...] is an imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts.
A: coronal plane

Q: The [...] is the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; it contains the brain.
A: cranium

Q: The [...] is a firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx.
A: cricoid cartilage

Q: The [...] is a thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx.
A: cricothyroid membrane

Q: [...] is any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange such as the trachea and bronchi.
A: Dead space

Q: The [...] is the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels.
A: dermis

Q: The [...] is a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, serparating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of this and the chest wall muscles brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs.
A: diaphragm

Q: [...] is the relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.
A: Diastole

Q: [...] is the movement of gas from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
A: Diffusion

Q: [...] is the processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.
A: Digestion

Q: The [...] is the artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals.
A: dorsal pedis artery

Q: The [...] is the complex mesage and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones.
A: endocrine system

Q: [...] are substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.
A: Enzymes

Q: The [...] is the outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a water tight protective covering for the body.
A: epidermis

Q: The [...] is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering.
A: epiglottis

Q: [...] is a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.
A: Epinephrine

Q: The [...] is a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contractions propel food and liquids through it to the stomach.
A: esophagous

Q: [...] is the amount of air that can be exhaled following a nromal exhalation.
A: Expiratory reserve volume

Q: [...] are long slender tubes the extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through with the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.
A: Fallopian tubes

Q: The [...] is the major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It suppplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genetalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area.
A: femoral artery

Q: The [...] is the proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint.
A: femoral head

Q: The [...] is the thigh bone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body.
A: femur

Q: The [...] is the large opening at the base of the skill through which the brain connects to the spinal cord.
A: foramen mgnum

Q: The [...] si the portion of the cranium that forms the forehead.
A: frontal bone

Q: The [...] is a sac on the undersurgace of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharfes it into the dudenum through the common bile duct.
A: gallbladder

Q: The [...] is the reproductive system in men and women.
A: genital system

Q: The [...] is the deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed.
A: germinal layer

Q: The [...] is a bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint.
A: greater tochanter

Q: [...] are small organs that produce hair.
A: Hair follicles

Q: The [...] is a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body.
A: heart

Q: [...]is the number of heartbeats during a specific time.
A: Heart rate (HR)

Q: [...] are joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.
A: Hinge joints

Q: [...] are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions including metabolism, growth and body temperature.
A: Hormones

Q: The [...] is the supporting bone of the upper body.
A: humerus

Q: [...] is the pressure of water against the walls of its container.
A: Hydrostatic pressure

Q: The [...] is the backup system to control respiration; senses drop in the oxygen level in the blood.
A: hypoxic drive

Q: The [...] is one of three bones the fuse to form the pelvic ring.
A: ilium

Q: The [...] is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and abdominal organs to the heart.
A: inferior vena cava

Q: The [...] is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalationl the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume.
A: inspiratory reserve volume

Q: The [...] is the space in between the cells.
A: interstitial space

Q: The [...] is one of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
A: ischium

Q: [...] is the place where two bones come into contact.
A: Joint articulation

Q: A [...] is the fibrous sac that encloses a joint.
A: joint capsule

Q: The [...] are two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content.
A: kidneys

Q: [...] is the use of muscles of the chest, back and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.
A: Labored breathing

Q: [...] is a metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anerobic metabolism).
A: Lactic acid

Q: The [...] is the portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste.
A: large intestine

Q: The [...] is the projection on the medial superior portion of the femur.
A: lesser trochanter

Q: A [...] is a band of fibrous tissue that connects the bones to bones. it supports and strengthens a joint.
A: ligament

Q: The [...] is a large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the disphragm; it produces biles, stores flucose for immediate use by the body and produces many substances that help regular immune responses.
A: liver

Q: The [...] is the lower back of the back formed by the lowest five nonfused vertabrae; also called the dorsal spine.
A: lumbar spine

Q: [...] are tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
A: Lymph nodes

Q: The [...] is the bone of the lower jaw.
A: mandible

Q: The [...] is the upper quarter of the sternum.
A: manubirum

Q: The [...] are the upper jaw bones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palae and hold the upper teeth.
A: maxillae

Q: The [...] is nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descenging nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing.
A: medula oblongata

Q: The [...] also known as [...] are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells.
A: metabolism; cellular respiration

Q: The [...] is the part of the brain that is respondible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness.
A: midbrain

Q: The [...] plane or [...] is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves.
A: midsagittal; midline

Q: [...] is the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute. You can calculate it by multiplying the tidal volune and respiratory rate. This is also called minute ventilation.
A: Minute volume

Q: [...] carry information from the CNS to the muscles of the body.
A: Motor nerves

Q: [...] are the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
A: Mucous membranes

Q: [...] is the water secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricate the body openings.
A: Mucus

Q: The [...] consist of the bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
A: musculoskeltal system

Q: The heart muscle is called the [...]
A: myocardium.

Q: The [...] is the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth.
A: nasopharynx

Q: The [...] is the systen that controls virtually all activities of body, both voluntary and involuntary.
A: nervous system

Q: [...] is a neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.
A: Norepinephrine

Q: The [...] is the most posterior portion of the cranium.
A: occiput

Q: [...] is the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.
A: Oncotic pressure

Q: The [...] is the eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma.
A: orbit

Q: The [...] are female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs).
A: ovaries

Q: The [...]is a flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin.
A: pancreas

Q: The [...] is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary function, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through teh chemical acetylcholine.
A: parasympathetic nervous system

Q: The [...] are the bones thatl ie between the temporal and occpital regions of the cranium.
A: parietal bones

Q: The [...]is the knee cap; and lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle.
A: patella

Q: [...] is the study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.
A: Pathophysiology

Q: [...] is the circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells curent needs.
A: Perfusion

Q: The [...] is the part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves.
A: peripheral nervous system (PNS)

Q: [...] is the wavelike contraction of smooth muscles by whichthe ureters of other tubular organs propel their contents.
A: Peristalsis

Q: [...] is a stick, yellow like fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.
A: Plasma

Q: [...] are tiny disc shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the intial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.
A: Platelets

Q: The [...] are serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as pleural space.
A: pleura

Q: [...] is the potential space between the parietal pleural and the visceral pleura; described as "potential" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.
A: Pleural space

Q: The [...] is an organ that lies below th midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration and the medullary respiratory center.
A: pons

Q: The [...] is the artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot.
A: posterior tibial artery

Q: The [...] is a small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladdar; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid.
A: prostate gland

Q: [...] is a hard bony and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.
A: Pubic symphysis

Q: The [...] is one of the three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
A: pubis

Q: The [...] is the major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; carries oxygen-poor blood.
A: pulmonary artery

Q: [...] is the flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.
A: Pulmonary circulation

Q: The [...] are the four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.
A: pulmonary veins

Q: A [...] is the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries.
A: pulse

Q: The [...]  is the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side.
A: radial artery

Q: Teh [...] is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm.
A: radius

Q: Th [...] is the lowermost end of the colon.
A: rectum

Q: [...] carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.
A: Red blood cells

Q: The [...] is a cone shapped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder.
A: renal pelvis

Q: [...] is the air that ramines in the lungs after maximal expiration.
A: Residual volume

Q: [...]  is the inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.
A: Respiration

Q: [...] is the inability of the body to move gas efficiently.
A: Respiratory comprimise

Q: The [...] consists of all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts.
A: respiratory system

Q: The [...] is located  in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal.
A: reticular activating system

Q: The term retropetitoneal means [...]
A: behind the peritoneum.

Q: The [...] is the connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column.
A: sacroiliac joint

Q: The [...] is one of three bones that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertabrae.
A: sacrum

Q: The [...] or [...] is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts.
A: sagittal plane; lateral plane

Q: The [...] are the glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist.
A: salivary glands

Q: The [...] is the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair.
A: scalp

Q: The [...] is the shoulder blade.
A: scalpula

Q: [...] are glands that produce an oily substance called sebum which discharges along the shaft of the hairs.
A: Sebaceous glands

Q: [...] are storage sacs for sperm which empty into the urethra at the prostate.
A: Seminal vesicles

Q: [...] are the nerves that carry sensations form the body to the CNS.
A: Sensory nerves

Q: [...] is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as [...]
A: Shock; hypoperfusion.

Q: The [...] is the proximal portion of the upper extremities made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus.
A: shoulder girdle

Q: [...] is msucle that is attached to vones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.
A: Skeletal muscle

Q: The [...] is the framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also deisgned to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs.
A: skeleton

Q: The [...] is the portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
A: small intestine

Q: [...] is involuntary muscle; it constitutes the build of the GI tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.
A: Smooth muscle

Q: The [...] is the part of the nervous system that regualr activites over which there is voluntary control.
A: somatic nervous system

Q: [...] are muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diametes of tubes; found in the rectum, bladder and blood vessels.
A: Sphincters

Q: The [...] is an extension of the brain, comoposed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. IT lies inside of an is protected by the spina canal.
A: spinal cord

Q: The [...] is the breast bone.
A: sternum

Q: The [...] is the outermost or dead layer of the skin.
A: stratum corneal layer

Q: [...] is the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.
A: Stroke volume (SV)

Q: The [...] is tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body.
A: subcutaneous tissue

Q: The [...] is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart.
A: superior vena cava

Q: [...] are the glands that secrete sweat, located i the dermal layer of the skin.
A: Sweat glands

Q: [...] is type of joint that has growth together to form a very stable connection.
A: Symphysis

Q: [...] is the lining of a joint that secretes synovial fluid into the joint space.
A: Synovial fluid

Q: [...] is the portion of the circulatory system outside of the body.
A: Systemic circulation

Q: [...] is the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move withing the blood bessels; related to the amount of dilation or constrictions in the blood vessel.
A: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

Q: [...] is the contraction, or period of contraction of the heart especially that of the ventricles.
A: Systole

Q: The [...] is the lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples.
A: temporal bones

Q: The [...] are the fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to the bone.
A: tendons

Q: The [...] is the chest or rib cage
A: thoracic cage

Q: The [...] is the 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attach to each side of these vertebrae.
A: thoracic spine

Q: The[...] is the chest cavity taht contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessels.
A: thorax

Q: The [...] is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the adams apple.
A: thyroid cartilage

Q: The [...] is the shin bone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg.
A: tibia

Q: [...] is the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath.
A: Tidal volume

Q: [...] are the superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.
A: Topographic anatomy

Q: The [...] is the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs.
A: trachea

Q: The [...] or [...] is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts.
A: transverse plane; axial plane

Q: The [...] are the muscles in the back of the upper arm.
A: triceps

Q: The [...] is the middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand.
A: tunica media

Q: The [...] is the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb.
A: ulna

Q: A [...] is a small, hollow, tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
A: ureter

Q: The [...] is the canal that conveys urine from the bladder to the outside the body.
A: urethra

Q: The [...] is a sac behind the pubis symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine.
A: urinary bladder

Q: The [...] are the organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine.
A: urinary system

Q: The [...] is the spermatic duct of the testicles; also called the vas deferens.
A: vasa deferentia

Q: [...] is the movement of air between the lungs and the environmet.
A: Ventilation

Q: A [...] is one of two lower changers of the heart.
A: ventricle

Q: The [...] are the 33 bones that make up the spinal column.
A: vertebrae

Q: [...] is a measurement that examies how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.
A: V/Q ratio

Q: The [...] is the narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum.
A: xiphoid process

Q: The [...] is the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, and zygomaticp rocess of the temporal bone and the great winfs of the sphenoid bone.
A: zygomas

Q: An [...] is a young person age 12 to 18 years.
A: adolescent

Q: [...] is a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque which eventually leads to a partial ro complete blockage of blood flow.
A: Atherosclerosis

Q: [...] is an injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example too much pressure in the lungs.
A: Barotrauma

Q: [...] is a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approbal from peers and society.
A: Conventional reasoning

Q: An [...] is a young adult age 19 to 40 years.
A: early adult

Q: [...] are areas where the neonates or infants skull haas not fused together; usually disappear at appx 18 months of age.
A: Fontaelles

Q: An [...] is young child age 1 month to 1 year.
A: infant

Q: [...] is the average nnumber of years a person can be expected to live.
A: Life expectancy

Q: A [...] is an adult age 41 to 60 years.
A: middle adult

Q: The [...] is an infant reflex where an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens their arms wide, spreads their fingers and seems to grab at things.
A: moro reflex

Q: A [...] is age birth to 1 month.
A: neonate

Q: [...] are the basic filtering units in the kidneys.
A: Nephrons

Q: An [...] is an adult aged 61 years or older.
A: older adult

Q: [...] is an infatn reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infants palm; the infant grasps the object.
A: Palmar grasp

Q: [...] is a type of reasoning where a child bases decisions on their conscience.
A: Postconventional reasoning

Q: [...] is a type of reasoning where a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what they want.
A: Preconventional reasoning

Q: A [...] is an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infants cheek and the infant instictively turns their head toward the touch.
A: rooting reflex

Q: A person who is 6 to 12 years of age is [...]
A: school age.

Q: The [...] is an infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when their lips are stroked.
A: sucking reflex

Q: A [...] is a young child ages 1 to 3 years.
A: toddler

Q: [...] refers to a stage of develpment form birth  to 18 months where the infant gains trust of their parenst of carefivers if their world is planned, organized and routine.
A: Trust and mistrust

Q: A [...] is a A long, flat board made of rigid, rectangular material that is used to provide support to a patient who is suspected of having a hip, pelvic, spinal, or lower extremity injury; also called a spine board, trauma board, and longboard.
A: backboard

Q: A [...] is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom; also called a Stokes litter. This is very useful in rough terrain.
A: basket stretcher

Q: A [...] is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury.
A: direct ground lift

Q: A [...] is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use.
A: flexible stretcher

Q: To [...] is to listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope.
A: auscultate

Q: The [...] is the overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient’s surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint.
A: general impression

Q: [...] is a step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient’s chief complaint and an account of the patient’s signs and symptoms.
A: History taking

Q: [...] is a brief history of a patient’s condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.
A: SAMPLE history

Q: [...] is knowledge and understanding of one’s surroundings and the ability to recognize potential risks to the safety of the patient or EMS team.
A: Situational awareness

Q: [...] are the key signs that are used to evaluate the patient’s overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.
A: Vital signs

Q: A [...] is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, it delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen.
A: bag-valve mask

Q: A [...] is a protective item, such as a pocket mask with a valve, that limits exposure to a patient’s body fluids.
A: barrier device

Q: A [...] is a normal reflex mechanism that causes retching; activated by touching the soft palate or the back of the throat.
A: gag reflex

Q: [...] is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart.
A: Intrapulmonary shunting

Q: [...] is The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
A: Absorbtion

Q: [...] is the therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.
A: Action

Q: [...] is the process of binding or sticking to a surface.
A: Adsorption

Q: An [...] is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors.
A: agonist

Q: An [...] is a medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications.
A: antagonist

Q: [...] is a medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).
A: Aspirin

Q: [...] are conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.
A: Contraindications

Q: [...] are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.
A: Enteral medications

Q: [...] is a medication that increases heart rate, blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.
A: Epinephrine

Q: A [...] is a semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes.
A: gel

Q: The [...] is the original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or trade names); the name is not capitalized.
A: generic name

Q: The [...] are the therapeutic uses for a specific medication.
A: indications

Q: An [...] is an injection into the bone; a medication delivery route.
A: intraosseous injection

Q: A [...] is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain.
A: medication

Q: A [...] is the inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm.
A: medication error

Q: A [...] is a miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles of medication may be inhaled through the mouth and into the lungs.
A: metered-dose inhaled (MDI)

Q: A [...] is a device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril.
A: mucosal atomizer device

Q: [...] is a medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.
A: Nitroglycerin

Q: [...] is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.
A: Oral glucose

Q: [...] is a gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without it.
A: Oxygen

Q: [...] are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.
A: Parenteral medications

Q: Per os (PO) means [...]
A: take by mouth.

Q: [...] is the process by which a medication works on the body.
A: Pharmacodynamics

Q: [...] is the study of the properties and effects of medications.
A: Pharmacology

Q: [...] is the use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
A: Polypharmacy

Q: [...] are any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.
A: Side effects

Q: A [...] is a liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand.
A: solution

Q: A [...] is an injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route.
A: subcutaneous injection (SC)

Q: A [...] is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve.
A: suspension

Q: The [...] is the desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body.
A: therapeutic effect

Q: The [...] is the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication; the name is capitalized.
A: trade name

Q: Transcutaneous means [...]; a medication delivery route.
A: through the skin

Q: [...] are actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.
A: Unintended effects

Q: [...] are actions that can be harmful to the patient.
A: Untoward effects

Q: The [...] is the preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver.
A: abdominal-thrust maneuver

Q: [...] is a technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression); may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart, and thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase.
A: Active compression-decompression CPR

Q: [...] is noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
A: Basic life support (BLS)

Q: [...] is the combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.
A: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Q: [...] is the total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed.
A: Chest compression fraction

Q: [...] is the rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return, and hypotension when associated with BVM use.
A: Hyperventilation

Q: An [...] is a valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-valve mask that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.
A: impedance threshold device

Q: [...] is a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.
A: Ischemia

Q: A [...] is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax.
A: load-distributing band

Q: A [...] is a device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard.
A: mechanical piston device

Q: A [...] is the return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.
A: return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)

Q: [...] is the stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.
A: Rigor mortis

Q: [...] is blood settling to the lowest point of the body; causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
A: Dependent lividity

Q: While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of [...]/min to a depth of at least [...] inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression
A: 100 to 120; 2

Q: Altered mental status and unequal or fixed pupils are signs of [...] and should be treated with hyperventilation with BVM.
A: intracranial pressure (ICP)

Q: ABC
A: airway, breathing, circulation

Q: ac
A: before meals

Q: ACLS
A: advanced cardiac life support

Q: ad lib
A: as desired

Q: ADL
A: activities of daily living

Q: AIDS
A: Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome

Q: A&P
A: anatomy and physiology

Q: BS
A: blood
sugar <br> breath sounds <br> bowel sounds <br> bachelor of
science (degree)

Q: IM
A: Intramuscular also Intramedullary

Q: IV
A: Intravenous

Q: O/P
A: oropharynx

Q: PO
A: per oral

Q: PR
A: Per Rectum

Q: RSV
A: Respiratory Syncytial Virus

Q: SL
A: sublingual

Q: ā
A: before

Q: adduction
A: Motion of a limb toward the midline.

Q: anterior
A: The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.

Q: apex (plural apices)
A: The pointed extremity of a conical structure.

Q: bilateral
A: A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline.

Q: deep
A: Farther inside the body and away from the skin.

Q: distal
A: Further from the trunk or nearer to the free end of the extremity.

Q: dorsal
A: The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand.

Q: extension
A: The straightening of a joint.

Q: flexion
A: The bending of a joint.

Q: Fowler position
A: An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised.

Q: inferior
A: Below a body part or nearer to the feet.

Q: lateral
A: Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline; also called outer structures.

Q: medial
A: Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline; also called inner structures.

Q: palmar
A: The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.

Q: plantar
A: The bottom surface of the foot.

Q: posterior
A: The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position.

Q: prone
A: Lying face down.

Q: proximal
A: Closer to the trunk.

Q: quadrants
A: Describes the sections of the abdominal cavity, in which two imaginary lines intersect at the umbilicus, dividing the abdomen into four equal areas.

Q: superficial
A: Closer to or on the skin.

Q: superior
A: Above a body part or nearer to the head.

Q: supine
A: Lying face up.

Q: ventral
A: The anterior surface of the body.

Q: AF, A-fib
A: atrial fibrillation

Q: AICD
A: automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator

Q: amb
A: ambulatory

Q: ant
A: anterior

Q: ASHD
A: arterioscleroticatherosclerotic heart disease

Q: BGL
A: blood glucose level

Q: bid/b.i.d/BID
A: twice daily

Q: BP, B/P
A: blood pressure

Q: bx
A: biopsy

Q: CC, C/C
A: chief complaint

Q: CCU
A: coronary care unit

Q: C diff
A: Clostridium difficile

Q: cm
A: centimeter

Q: c/o
A: complaining of

Q: C02
A: carbon dioxide

Q: COLD
A: chronic obstructive lung disease

Q: CP
A: chest pain OR chemically pure OR cerebral palsy

Q: CRNA
A: certified registered nurse anesthetist

Q: CRT
A: capillary refill time OR cathode ray tube

Q: DOA
A: dead on arrival

Q: DOE
A: dyspnea on exertion

Q: DON
A: director of nursing

Q: DPT
A: diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine OR Doctor of Physical Therapy

Q: DSD
A: dry sterile dressing

Q: DtaP
A: diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine

Q: DTP
A: diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine

Q: Dx
A: diagnosis

Q: EDC
A: estimated date of confinement

Q: ENT
A: ears, nose, and throat

Q: EOC
A: Emergency Operations Center

Q: ET, ETT
A: endotracheal tube, endotracheal

Q: ETA
A: estimated time of arrival

Q: ETCO_2
A: end-tidal carbon dioxide

Q: °F
A: degrees Fahrenheit

Q: Fio_2
A: fraction of inspired oxygen

Q: Fe
A: iron

Q: FHR
A: fetal heart rate

Q: FHx
A: family history

Q: fl, fid
A: fluid

Q: fx
A: fracture

Q: Gl
A: gastrointestinal

Q: gtt
A: drop(s)

Q: gyn
A: gynecology

Q: h
A: hour

Q: H&P
A: history and physical

Q: HBV
A: hepatitis B virus

Q: Hct
A: hematocrit

Q: H2O
A: water

Q: hr
A: hour

Q: Hx
A: history

Q: l&O
A: intake and output

Q: ICS
A: incident command system OR intercostal space

Q: ICU
A: intensive care unit

Q: IMS
A: incident management system

Q: IO
A: intraosseous

Q: IPPB
A: intermittent positive pressure breathing

Q: kg
A: kilogram

Q: L/M, LPM
A: liters per minute

Q: MAE
A: moves all extremities

Q: MAEW
A: moves all extremities well

Q: mg
A: milligram

Q: Ml
A: myocardial infarction

Q: min
A: minute

Q: mL
A: milliliter

Q: mm
A: millimeter

Q: mm Hg
A: millimeters of mercury

Q: MVA
A: motor vehicle accident

Q: MVC
A: motor vehicle crash

Q: NA, N/A
A: not applicable

Q: NC
A: nasal cannula

Q: NKA
A: no known allergies

Q: NRB, NRBM
A: nonrebreathing mask

Q: NTG
A: nitroglycerin

Q: N/V
A: nausea and vomiting

Q: N/V/D
A: nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

Q: O_2
A: oxygen

Q: OBS
A: organic brain syndrome

Q: OPA
A: oropharyngeal airway

Q: OR
A: operating room

Q: oz
A: ounce

Q: p̄
A: after

Q: Pco_2
A: partial pressure of carbon dioxide

Q: PDR
A: Physicians' Desk Reference

Q: PEARL, PERL
A: pupils equal and reactive to light

Q: PEARLA
A: pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation

Q: PEARRL
A: pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light

Q: ped, peds
A: pediatric

Q: PEEP
A: positive end expiratory pressure

Q: psi
A: pounds per square inch

Q: PSVT
A: paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Q: Pt
A: patient

Q: q̄
A: every

Q: Rh
A: Rhesus blood factor OR rhodium

Q: RN
A: registered nurse

Q: Rx
A: prescription

Q: s̄
A: without

Q: Sao_2
A: oxygen saturation

Q: SOB
A: shortness of breath

Q: Spo_2
A: saturation of peripheral oxygen

Q: S/S, S&S
A: signs and symptoms

Q: stat
A: immediately

Q: STEMI
A: ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction

Q: subcut
A: subcutaneous

Q: SVT
A: supraventricular tachycardia

Q: sym, Sx
A: symptoms

Q: tab
A: tablet

Q: TBA
A: to be admitted OR to be announced

Q: tech
A: technician OR technologist

Q: tid/t.i.d/TID
A: three times a day

Q: Tx
A: treatment

Q: VD
A: venereal disease

Q: VRE
A: vancomycin-resistant enterococcus

Q: W/
A: with

Q: WMD
A: weapon of mass destruction

Q: wt
A: weight

Q: x̄
A: except

Q: AO X 4, A/O X 4
A: alert
and oriented to person, place, time, and self

Q: BPM
A: beats per minute

Q: c̄
A: with

Q: °C
A: degrees Celsius (centigrade)

Q: CA
A: cancer <br> cardiac arrest <br> chronologic age <br> coronary artery <br> cold agglutinin

Q: HA,
H/A
A: headache

Q: Hb,
Hgb
A: hemoglobin

Q: VT/V
tach
A: ventricular tachycardia

Q: yo, y/o
A: year
old

Q: [...] possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training
A: Special teams

Q: [...] consistently interact with the same partner or team
A: Regular teams

Q: [...] have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know
A: Temporary teams

Q: Examples of special EMS include:
A: Fire Team
Rescue Team
Hazardous materials (HazMat) Team
Tactical EMS Team
Special event EMS Team
EMS bike Team
In-hospital patient care technicians
MIH technicians

Q: Regular teams [...]
A: consistently interact with the same partner or team

Q: Special teams [...]
A: possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training

Q: Temporary teams [...]
A: have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know

Q: What are the 5 essential elements of a group?
A: A common goal
An image of themselves as a “group”
A sense of continuity of the group
A set of shared values
Different roles within the group

Q: In [...] each individual is told what to do, and often how to do it, by his or her supervisor or group leader.
A: dependent groups

Q: In [...] each individual is responsible for his or her own area
A: independent groups

Q: In [...] individuals function as a true team.
A: interdependent groups

Q: PACE
A: Probe
Alert
Challenge
Emergency

Q: What are the steps for assisting an ALS process?
A: Patient preparation
Equipment
Performing the procedure
Continuing care
are the steps for this process.

Q: What are the steps for BE MAGIC?
A: B – Perform BVM preoxygenation
E – Evaluate for airway difficulties
M – Manipulate the patient
A – Attempt first-pass intubation
GI – Use a supraGlottic or Intermediate          airway if unable to intubate
C – Confirm successful intubation
are the steps for this process.

Q: What are the steps for patient prepation when assisting in an ALS procedure?
A: preoxygenation, and
apenic oxygenation
are the steps for helping with this procedure.

Q: What is the difference between a group and a team?
A: A team consists of a group of health care providers who are assigned specific roles and are working interdependently in a coordinated manner under a designated leader.

Q: What is the difference between an opiate and an opioid?
A: Opiates are a subset of the opioid family, referring to natural, non-synthetic opioids; opioids are not derived from opium.

Q: [...] inhibit the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
A: Nonfunctional alveoli

Q: MOI
A: mechanism of injury

Q: NOI
A: nature of illness

Q: BVM
A: bag-valve mask

Q: NPA
A: nasopharyngeal airway

Q: NG
A: nasogastric

Q: GCS
A: Glasgow Coma Scale

Q: DNR
A: do not resuscitate

Q: NHTSA
A: National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

Q: What is the difference between assault and battery?
A: Assault is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm, whereas battery is unlawfully touching without consent.

Q: FCC
A: Federal Communications Commission

Q: COPD
A: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Q: The principal function of the lungs is [...]
A: respiration

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of the common cold?
A: cough
runny or stuffy nose
sore throat

Q: SARS
A: severe acute respiratory syndrome

Q: What is the treatment for pneumonia?
A: Possible treatments include: airway support and providing supplemental oxygen.

Q: What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia are common present in pediatric patients?
A: Children often present with unusually rapid or labored breathing or breathing characterized by grunting or wheezing sounds

Q: Which variant of pneumonia presents with more severe symptoms?
A: Bacterial pneumonia

Q: What are the variants of pneumonia?
A: Viral or bacterial pneumonia

Q: A [...] presents more gradually and is less severe
A: viral pneumonia

Q: MDI
A: metered-dose inhaler