What are some common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions regarding the respiratory system? They are shortness of breath (dyspnea), sneezing or an itchy runny nose, tightness in the throat or chest, irritating dry cough, hoarseness, respirations that become rapid, labored, or noisey, and wheezing and/or stridor (progressing to a silent chest with anaphylaxis). 15 airway allergy breathing emergencies immunologic respiratory What is the leading cause of death in the United States among people under 40? Traumatic Injuries are the leading cause of death for this group. 24 emergencies overview statistics trauma What causes trauma emergencies? They occur as a result of physical forces applied to the body. 24 emergencies overview trauma What are the three concepts of energy typically associated with injury (excluding thermal)? They are potential energy, kinetic energy, and work. 24 emergencies overview trauma What is Newton's first law? Newton's first law states that objects at rest tend to stay at rest and objects in motion tend to stay in motion, unless acted on by some force. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What is Newton's second law? It is that Force (F) equals Mass (M) times acceleration (A), that is: F=M(A) 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What is Newton's third law? It is that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What is work? It defined as force acting over a distance. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What is kinetic energy? It is the energy of a moving object. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What is the equation for kinetic energy? The equation is:
KE=m/2 x v2
24 emergencies overview trauma What is relation between energy and speed regarding energy available to cause injury? Notice that the energy available to cause injury doubles when an object's weight doubles, but quadruples when an object's speed doubles. 24 emergencies overview trauma What is potential energy? It is the product of mass, force of gravity, and height, and is mostly associated with the energy of falling objects. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What are some examples of significant MOIs? They include multi-system trauma, falls from heights, motor vehicle and motorcycle crashes, car versus pedestrian, gunshot wounds, and stabbings. 24 emergencies overview trauma What are the two types of traumas? They are blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. 24 emergencies overview trauma What is blunt trauma? It is the result of force (or energy transmission) to the body that causes injury without penetrating the soft tissues or internal organs and cavities. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What is penetrating trauma? It is caused by objects that primarily pierce and penetrate the surface of the body and cause damage to soft tissues, internal organs, and body cavities. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What are the five classifications of car crashes? They are classified as frontal (head-on), rear-end, lateral (T-bone), rollovers, and rotational (spins). 24 emergencies overview trauma What are the three collisions in a typical vehicular impact? They are: The collision of the car against another car, a tree, or another object; The collision of the passenger against the interior of the car; and the collision of the passenger's internal organs against the solid structures of the body. 24 emergencies overview trauma What are some common passenger injuries in a vehicular crash? They include lower extremity fractures (knees into the dashboard), flail chest (rib cage into the steering wheel), and head trauma (head into the windshield). 24 emergencies overview trauma What is coup-contrecoup brain injury? It is a result of trauma to the head that causes a compression injury (or bruising) to the anteior portion of the brain and streching (or tearing) of the posterior portion of the brain. 24 definition emergencies overview trauma What should you suspect if you see a contusion on the patient's forehead and the windshield is starred? In this situation you should strongly suspect an injury to the brain. 24 emergencies overview trauma What should you always suspect whenever there is a significant impact to the head? In this situation, you should also suspect a spinal injury. 24 emergencies overview trauma If one or more of the passengers in a vehicular crash are dead, what action must be taken? In this situation, you should suspect that the other passengers have sustained serious injuries. 24 emergencies overview trauma What should you initially determine when investigating a frontal crash? In this event, you should determine whether the passenger was restrained by a full and properly applied three-point restraint, as well as whether the airbag deployed. Identifying the types of restraints used and whether the airbags were deployed will help you identify injury patterns related to the supplemental restraint systems. 24 emergencies overview trauma "Where should children shorter than 4'9"" sit in a car." This kind of person should ride in the rear seat or, in the case of a pickup truck or other single-seated vehicle, the air bag should be turned off. 24 emergencies overview trauma Where are seatbelts designed to be worn? They are designed to be worn over the iliac crest of the pelvis in order to distribute the force over the bony surface. 24 emergencies overview trauma What type of injuries are associated with rear-end impacts? This type of impact is known to cause whiplash-type injuries, particularly when the passenger's head and/or neck is not restrained by an appropriately placed headset. 24 emergencies overview trauma What is one type of injury to be aware of in a lateral (T-bone) collision? In this type of collision, the car is typically struck above its center of gravity and begins to rock away from the side of the impact. This results in the passenger sustaining a lateral whiplash injury. The cervical spine has little tolerance for lateral bending. 24 emergencies overview trauma What is the most common life-threatening event in a rollover? In this event, the most common life-threatening event is ejection or partial ejection of the passenger from the vehicle. 24 emergencies overview trauma What should the first step be when evaluating the MOI in a car-versus-pedestrian collision? In this event, your first step should be to estimate the speed of the vehicle that struck the patient; next determine whether the patient was thrown through the air and at what distance or whether the patient was pulled under the vehicle. 24 emergencies overview trauma What should you presume in a bicycle collision? In this event, you should presume that the patient has sustained an injury to the spinal column, until proven otherwise at the hospital. 24 emergencies overview trauma What are the four types of motorcycle impacts? The four types are head-on collision, angular, ejection, and controlled crash. 24 emergencies overview trauma At what height should a fall be considered significant? More than 15' or 3 times the patient's height is considered significant. 24 emergencies overview trauma What is something to consider in older patients who have suffered a fall? In this situation, remember that the patient may have osteoporosis, and may have actually sustained a fracture before the fall. 24 emergencies overview trauma What part of our nervous system controls our voluntary activities? This is called the somatic or voluntary nervous system. 26 head injury spinal What part of our nervous system controls many of our body's vital organs, over which the brain has no voluntary control? This is called the autonomic nervous system. 26 head injury spinal What are the names of the two parts of the autonomic nervous system? They are called the sympathetic and the parasympathetic. 26 head injury spinal What is the name of the groups of bones that compose the skull? They are called the cranium, which protects the brain, and the facial bones. 26 head injury spinal What is the cranium occupied by? It is occupied by 80% brain tissue, 10% blood supply, and 10% CSF. 26 head injury spinal What are the four major bones that make up the cranium? These are the occiput in the posterior, temple or temporal regions at the lateral portions, the parietal regions between the occiput and temporal regions, and forehead anteriorly. 26 head injury spinal What is the body's central supporting structure? It is the spinal column. 26 head injury spinal How many bones or vertebrae does the spinal column have? It has 33 bones or vertebrae. 26 head injury spinal What are the five sections of the spinal column, and how many vertebrae in each? They are the cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (5), and coccygeal (4). 26 head injury spinal What connects and separates the vertebrae? They are connected by ligaments and separated by cushions known as intervertebral disks. 26 head injury spinal How many people in the US experience head injuries each year? Approximately 4 million people experience this. 26 head injury spinal How many death occur annually as a result of head injury? 52,000 of these occur annually. 26 head injury spinal What percentage of traumatic deaths are a result of head injuries? 50% of all traumatic deaths result from this. 26 head injury spinal What are closed head injuries? These are injuries in which the brain has been injured but there is no opening into the brain. 26 definition head injury spinal What is an open head injury? This is an injury in which an opening from the brain to the outside world exists. 26 definition head injury spinal What percentage of people involved in motor vehicle crashes experience a head injury? More than 2/3s of people in motor vehicle crashes experience this. 26 head injury spinal What are the general signs and symptoms of a head injury? The general signs and symptoms of this are:
Lacerations, contusions, or hematomas to the scalp;
Soft area or depression on palpation;
Visible fractures or deformities of the skull;
Decreased mentation;
Irregular breathing pattern;
Widening pulse pressure;
Slow heart rate;
Ecchymosis about the eyes or behind the ear over the mastoid process;
Clear or pink CSF leakage from a scalp wound, the nose, or the ear;
Failure of the pupils to respond to light;
Unequal pupil size;
Loss of sensation and/or motor function;
A period of unconsciousness;
Amnesia;
Seizures;
Numbness or tingling in the extremities;
Irregular respirations;
Dizziness;
Visual complaints;
Combative or other abnormal behavior;
Nausea or vomiting;
Posturing (decorticate or decerebrate)

26 head injury spinal Where is a skull fracture diagnosis usually made? This is usually made in a hospital with a computed tomographic, or CT, scan. 26 head injury spinal What are some signs of a skull fracture? Some signs of this are ecchymosis (bruising) that develops under the eyes (aka raccoon eyes) or behind one ear over the mastoid process (aka battle's sign). 26 head injury spinal What % of skull fractures are linear skull fractures (aka nondisplaced skull fractures)? Appromixately 80% of all skull fractures are these kind. 26 head injury spinal What causes compressed skull fractures? These result from high-energy direct trauma to the head with a blunt object (such as a baseball bat to the head). 26 head injury spinal What are basilar skull fractures? These are associated with high-energy trauma, and usually occur following diffuse impact to the headj (e.g. falls, motor crashes). These injuries generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with radiography (X-ray). 26 definition head injury spinal What are the signs of a basilar skull fracture? Signs of this include CSF drainage from the ears (a risk for bacterial meningitis), which indicates rupture of the tympanic membrane in the ear. Other signs include raccoon eyes or battle's sign. 26 head injury spinal What is a traumatic brain injury (TBI)? "These are defined as ""a traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes"" (from the National Head Injury Foundation)." 26 definition head injury spinal What are the two broad catagories of TBI? These are primary (direct) injuries and secondary (indirect) injuries. 26 head injury spinal What are primary (direct) injuries? These are injury to the brain and its associated structures that results instantaneously from impact to the head. 26 definition head injury spinal What are secondary (indirect) brain injuries? These refer to a multitude of processes that increase the severity of a primary brain injury and therefore, negatively impact the outcome. 26 definition head injury spinal What are the two most common causes of secondary injuries to the brain? The two most common causes of this are hypoxia and hypotension. 26 head injury spinal What are some causes of secondary injuries to the brain? These may be caused by cerebral edema, intracranial hemorrhage, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia, infection, and hypoxia and hypotension (the two most common causes). 26 head injury spinal How long after a TBI can secondary brain injuries occur? They can occur anywhere from a few minuters to several days following the injury. 26 head injury spinal What is coup-contrecoup injury? This is when the brain strikes the front and back of the skull due to rapid deceleration. 26 definition head injury spinal What is cerebral edema? This is swelling of the brain, and may not develop until several hours after the initial injury. 26 definition head injury spinal What aggravates and improves cerebral edema? This is aggravated by low oxygen levels in the blood, and improved by high ones. This is especially true if the patient is unconscious. 26 head injury spinal Why is it not uncommon for a patient with a head injury to have a seizure? This is not uncommon for a patient with a head injury as a result of excessive excitability of the brain, caused by direct injury or the accumulation of fluid within the brain (edema). 26 head injury spinal What can lead to a rapid increase in intracranial pressure? This can be caused by an accumulation of blood within the skull or swelling of the brain. 26 head injury spinal What are the signs and symptoms of a mild elevation of intracranial pressure? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Increased blood pressure and decreased pulse rate;
Pupils that are still reactive;
Cheyne-Strokes respirations (respirations that are fast and then become slow, with intervening periods of apnea);
Patient initially attempts to localize and remove painful stimuli, followed by withdrawal and extension;
[EFFECTS ARE REVERSIBLE WITH PROMPT TREATMENT]
26 head injury spinal What are the signs and symptoms of moderate elevation in intracranial pressure? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Widened pulse pressure and bradycardia;
Pupils that are sluggish or nonreactive;
Central neurogenic hyperventilation (deep, rapid respirations);
Decerebrate posturing;
[SURVIVAL IS POSSIBLE BUT NOT WITHOUT PERMANENT NEUROLOGIC DEFICIT]
26 head injury spinal What are the signs and symptoms of marked elevation in intracranial pressure? The signs and symptoms of this are:
Unilateral fixed and dilated pupils;
Ataxic respirations (characterized by irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea), or absent respirations;
Flaccid response to painful stimuli;
Irregular pulse rate;
Diminished blood pressure;
NB: This level of ICP indicates that the lower portion of the brain stem is involved
[MOST PATIENTS DO NOT SURVIVE THIS LEVEL OF INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE]
26 head injury spinal What is an epidural hematoma? This is an accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater. 26 definition head injury spinal What is a common cause of epidural hematoma? These are nearly always the result of a blow to the head that produces a linear fracture of the thin temporal bone, where the middle meningeal artery runs along and is vulnerable in the event of a fracture. 26 head injury spinal What is the patients condition immediately following an injury that causes an epidural hematoma? In this situation, the patient often loses consciousness immediately following the injury; this is often followed by a brief period of consciousness (aka lucid interval), after which the patient lapses back into unconsciousness. 26 head injury spinal What is a subdural hematoma? This is an accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain. They are more common than epidural hematomas and may or may not be associated with a skull fracture. 26 definition head injury spinal Why do subdural hematomas and the signs of ICP develop more gradually than epidural hematomas? These develop more gradually than epidural hematomas because these are associated with venous bleeding. 26 head injury spinal What is an intracerebral hematoma? This involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself. They have a high mortality rate. 26 definition head injury spinal What is a subarachnoid hemorrhage? This is when bleeding occurs into the subarachnoid space, where the CSF circulates. 26 definition head injury spinal What are common causes of subarachnoid hematoma? The common causes of this condition include trauma or rupture of an aneurysm. 26 head injury spinal What is a common symptom of a subarachnoid hematoma? A common symptom of this is a sudden, severe headache. Mortality rates are high, and permanent neurologic impairment is common. 26 head injury spinal What is a concussion? This is a mild TBI caused by a blow to the head or face. It is in general a closed injury with a temporary loss of alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without demonstrable physical damage to the brain. 26 definition head injury spinal What percentage of patients who sustain a concussion experience a loss of consciousness? Apprixmiately 10% of these patients experience a loss of consciousness. 26 head injury spinal What is retrograde amneisa? This is when the patient can remember everything but the events leading up to the injury. 26 definition head injury spinal What is anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia? This is when a patient is unable to remember events after the injury. 26 head injury spinal What are some additional signs and symptoms you may see in concussion patients? With these patients, you may see nausea or vomiting, ringing in the ears, slurred speech, and an inability to focus. 26 head injury spinal What should you always assume with patients with symptoms of a concussion? You should always assume that these patients have a more serious injury. 26 head injury spinal What is a brain contusion? A contusion involves physical injury to the brain tissue, and is therefore more serious than a concussion. 26 definition head injury spinal What often causes spinal compression injuries? These can occur as a result of a fall, regardless of whether the patient landed on his or her feet, coccyx, or on top of the head. 26 head injury spinal What is a distraction? This is when the spine is pulled along its length. 26 definition head injury spinal What is subluxation? This is an incomplete dislocation of a joint. 26 definition head injury spinal What is the best way to protect a patient with a spinal injury's airway? The best way to do this is to use advanced airway techniques employed by AEMT and paramedics. 26 head injury spinal What does the absence of pain and/or the ability to move and feel extremities tell you about spinal injuries? This does NOT rule out spinal injuries. 26 head injury spinal What does a gradual and progressive deterioration in the patient's response to stimuli indicate? This usually indicates serious brain injury that may need surgical treatment; physicians at the hospital will need to know when a loss of consciousness occurs. 26 head injury spinal What is another name for Cushing's triad? Another name for this is herniation syndrome. 26 head injury spinal What are the signs of Cushing's triad? The signs of this are: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations (for example Cheyne-Stokes respirations), central neurogenic hyperventilation, and Biot respirations (irregular rate, pattern, and depth of breathing). 26 head injury spinal What is Cushing's triad / herniation syndrome? This is when the intracranial pressure is so great that it forces the brain stem and the midbrain through the foramen magnum. 26 head injury spinal What is the prime concern for the patient when you perform the four-person log roll? The prime concern in this situation is to ensure that the head, torso, and pelvis move as a unit, with your teammates controlling the movement of the body. 26 head injury spinal What should you do with a patient wandering around after an accident whom you suspect of having a skull or spinal injuries? In this situation, you should NOT have them lie down; immobilize them with a long backboard in the upright position. 26 head injury spinal When should a helmet be left on an injured trauma patient? This should always be left on provided: There are no impending airway or breathing problems; it does not interfere with assessment and treatment of airway or ventilation problems; and you can properly immobilize the spine. 26 head injury spinal When should a helmet be removed? This should be removed from a trauma patient if:
1) It makes assessing or managing airway problems difficult and removing of the face guard is not possible.
2) It prevents you from properly immobilizing the spine.
Or 3) It allows excessive head movement.
Remember to always remove in the event of cardiac arrest, and, most importantly:
ALWAYS CONSULT WITH MEDICAL CONTROL IF YOU DECIDE TO REMOVE THIS.
26 head injury spinal What is an additional consideration for children with helmets and skull or spinal injuries? In this situation, they may require additional padding to maintain the in-line neutral position due to their smaller airways and larger heads. 26 head injury spinal What is the most common cause of shock following trauma? Bleeding is the most common cause of this after trauma. 25 bleeding How long can cells in the brain, spinal column, and heart live without blood? These can only survive for no more than a few minutes without blood. 25 bleeding How long can cells in organs such as the kidneys and lungs survive without blood? These cells can survive for almost an hour without blood. 25 bleeding How long can skeletal muscle cells survive without blood? These can survive for 2 hours without blood. 25 bleeding What are the 3 main parts of the cardiovascular system? These 3 parts are:
1) The pump (heart)
2) Containers (blood vessels that reach every cell in the body)
3) Fluid (Blood and body fluids)
25 bleeding What does the heart and its muscles absolutely need at all times to function? This requires a rich and well-dsitributed blood supply to function. 25 bleeding From where does blood enter the right atrium? Blood enters here from the vena cava. 25 bleeding Where does the blood go as the right ventricle contracts? From there, the blood flows into the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary circulation. 25 bleeding Through what does oxygenated blood return to the left atrium? The blood returns to here through the pulmonary veins. 25 bleeding Why is the left side of the heart more muscular than the right? This side of the heart is more muscular because it must pump blood into the aorta and on to the arteries throughout the body. 25 bleeding Which chamber is responsible for providing 100% of the body with oxygen-rich blood? The left ventricle is responsible for all of this. 25 bleeding What are the five types of blood vessels? These are:
1) Arteries
2) Arterioles
3) Capillaries
4) Venules
5) Veins
25 bleeding Where does blood pass into as it leaves the left ventricle? It passes into the aorta, the largest artery in the body. 25 bleeding What are arterioles? These are smaller vessels that connect the arteries and capillaries. 25 bleeding definition What are capillaries? These are small tubes, with the diamter of a single red blood cell, that pass among all the cells in the body, linking the arterioles and the venules. 25 bleeding definition What are venules? These are small, thin-walled vessels that connect the capillaries with the veins. 25 bleeding definition What are veins? These are blood vessels that return blood to the heart (usually through the vena cava) 25 bleeding definition What are platelets? These are found in the blood and are responsible for forming blood clots. 25 bleeding definition What is fibrinogen? This is a substance in the body that reinforces clumping red blood cells, helping to form a clot. 25 bleeding What is one thing the autonomic nervous system does during emergencies? This automatically redirects blood away from other organs to the heart, brain, lungs, and kidneys. 25 bleeding How fast must blood pass through the cardiovascular system? This must pass through the system at a speed that is fast enough to maintain adequate circulation throughout the body and slow enough to allow each cell time to exchange oxygen and nutrients for carbon dioxide and other waste products. 25 bleeding When does one require a minimal blood supply? When one is asleep is a good example of this. 25 bleeding When does the gastrointestinal tract require a high flow of blood? It requires a high flow after a meal. 25 bleeding When may an organ or tissue be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion? In this situation, considerably colder temperatures may help resist damage. 25 bleeding What is hemorrhage? This another word for bleeding. 25 bleeding What are some signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock? These signs include:
Rapid, weak pulse;
Changes in mental status (AMS);
Cool, clammy skin;
cyanosis;
low blood pressure (late sign).
25 bleeding Up to what percentage of total blood volume loss can the body tolerate? The body can not tolerate an acute loss of this greater than 20%. 25 bleeding How much blood does the average person have per kilogram of body weight? The average person has 70ml of this per kilogram. 25 bleeding Appromixately how much blood does a person weighing 80 kg (175 lbs.) have A person weighing this much has approximately 6 L (10-12 pints) of blood. 25 bleeding At what level of blood loss will a typical adult experience significant changes in vital signs, including increasing heart rate, increasing respiratory rates, and decreasing blood pressure? A typical adult will experience these changes if they lose more than 1 L (2 pints) of blood. 25 bleeding How much total blood volume does a 1 year old infant have? They have a total blood volume of only 800 mL. 25 bleeding At what level of blood loss will significant symptoms appear in 1 year old infants? Significant symptoms will occur in them after only 100 to 200 mL of blood loss (a soft drink can holds 355 mL) 25 bleeding How much is 1 unit of blood? This is 500 mL of blood. 25 bleeding What are the characteristics of arterial bleeding? Typically, this kind of bleeding results in brighter red blood (high in oxygen) and spurts in time with the pulse. 25 bleeding What are the characteristics of venous bleeding? This kind of bleeding results in blood that is darker (lower in oxygen) and flows slowly or severely, depending on the size. 25 bleeding On its own, how quickly does manageable bleeding stop itself? On its own, internal mechanisms can stop this within about 10 minutes. 25 bleeding What is vasoconstriction? This is a narrowing of blood vessels, a possible response to bleeding. 25 bleeding What is coagulation? This is a process whereby clots form and seal injured portions of the blood vessel. 25 bleeding What can interfere with clotting? A number of medications, including aspirin, can interfere with this. 25 bleeding What is one common cause of severe internal blood loss? Broken bones, and especially broken ribs, may cause this. 25 bleeding What can easily result in the loss of 1 L or more of internal bleeding? A broken femur can result in this amount of internal bleeding into the thigh. 25 bleeding What are some of the only signs of internal bleeding? Sometimes the only signs of this are local swelling and bruising. 25 bleeding What is one way to assist the body's clotting process? Keeping the patient's body as still and quiet as possible will aid in this process. 25 bleeding At least how long should you hold uninterrupted pressure on an external wound to stop the bleeding? You should hold uninterrupted pressure here for at least 5 minutes. 25 bleeding What are some methods to control external bleeding? These methods are:
Direct, even pressure and elevation;
pressure dressings and/or splints;
tourniquets
25 bleeding What blood pressure should alert you to the presence of hypoperfusion? A systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mm Hg with a weak, rapid pulse should suggest this to you. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a fall from a ladder striking the head? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head injury and hematoma. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a fall from a ladder striking the extremities? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are possible fractures or the possibility of chest injury 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a child struck by a car? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head trauma, chest and abdominal pain, or leg fractures. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a fall on an outstreched arm? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are possible broken bones or joint injury. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a child thrown or falling from a great height? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head injury, owing to their top-heaviness. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an unrestrained driver in a head-on collision? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head and neck, chest, abdomen injuries, as well as knee, femur, hip, and pelvis injuries. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an unrestrained front-seat passenger in a side impact collision with intrusion into the vehicle? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are broken humeruses exposing the chest wall (possible flail chest) and pelvis and acetabulum injuries. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an unrestrained driver crushed against the steering column? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are chest and abdomen injuries, ruptured spleen, and neck trauma. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a bike injury? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are fractured clavicles, road rash, and head trauma (esp. if not helmet is present). 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an abrupt motorcycle stop? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are fractured femur and head and neck injuries. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for diving into the shallow end of a swimming pool? A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are head and neck injuries. 25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for an assault or fight?
A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are punching or kicking injury to the chest, the abdomen, or the face.
25 bleeding What are common potential bleeding sources for a blast or explosive?
A common potential internal bleeding source for this MOI are injury from direct strike with debris, indirect and pressure wave in enclosed space; external injuries are dependent upon the anatomic area of the body injured. Internally, air-containing organs such as the middle of the ears and lungs are the most susceptible to injury.
25 bleeding What is a good rule of thumb when entering a scene where you suspect there are multiple patients with bleeding? In a situation such as this, place several pairs of gloves in your pocket for easy access. 25 bleeding What is hemoptysis? This is the coughing up of bright red blood. 25 bleeding What are the later signs of hypoperfusion that suggest internal bleeding? These signs include:
tachycardia;
weakness, fainting, or dizziness at rest;
thirst;
nausea and vomiting;
cold, moist skin;
shallow, rapid breathing;
dull eyes;
slightly dilated pupils that are slow to respond to light;
capillary refill of more than 2 seconds infants and children;
weak, rapid pulse;
decreasing blood pressure;
altered level of consciousness.
25 bleeding What is hematemesis? This is vomited blood. 25 bleeding What is melena? This is a black, tarry stool that contains digested blood. 25 bleeding What are some of the common causes of nontraumatic internal bleeding? These include bleeding ulcers, bleeding from the colon, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, and aneurysms. 25 bleeding What are some possible signs of internal bleeding? These include abdominal tenderness, guarding, rigidity, pain, and distention. 25 bleeding What is the second leading cause of trauma death in the United States? Penetrating trauma is the second leading cause of this in the United States. 24 trauma What is a proijectile's trajectory? This is the path the projectile takes, and may be difficult to determine, as medium and high-velocity projectiles may flatten out, tumble, or even ricochet within the body. 24 trauma What is temporary cavitation? This is caused by the acceleration of the bullet and causes a streching of the tissues. 24 trauma What is permanent cavitation? This is caused by the bullet path and remains once the projectile has passed through the tissue. 24 trauma What is drag? This is another term for air resistance, and over distance will slow the projectile, decreasing the depth of penetration and thus reducing damage to the tissues. 24 trauma What is one reason that exit wounds are often many times larger than entrance wounds? One reason for this is that, much like a boat moving through water, the bullet disrupts not only the tissues that are directly in its path but also those in the wake. 24 trauma What is one of the first signs of hypoperfusion? One of the first signs of this is a change in mental status, such as anxiety, restlessness, or combativeness. 25 bleeding What are the later signs of hypoperfusion suggesting internal bleeding? Later signs of this include:
Tachycardia
Weakness, fainting, or dizziness at rest
Thirst
Nausea and vomiting
Cold, moist skin
Shallow, rapid breathing
Dull eyes
Slightly dilated pupils that are non-reactive to light
Capillary refill of more than 2 seconds in infants and children
Weak, rapid (thready) pulse
Decreasing blood pressure
Altered level of consciousness
25 bleeding When dealing with multiple bleeding patients, what should you remember to do? When doing this, remember to place several pairs of gloves in your pocket for easy access. 25 bleeding What does a systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mg Hg with a weak, rapid pulse suggest? This suggests the presence of hypoperfusion in a patient who may have significant bleeding. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a fall from a ladder striking the head, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is a head injury or hematoma. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a fall from a ladder striking the extremities, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is possible fractures, and also possible chest injuries. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a child striking a car, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is head trauma, chest and abdominal injuries, and leg fractures. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a fall onto an outstretched arm, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is possible bone fractures and joint injuries. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a child thrown or falls from a height, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is head injury. 25 bleeding When the MOI is an unrestrained driver in a head-on collision, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is head and neck, chest, abdominal injuries, and knee, femur, hip, or pelvis injuries. 25 bleeding When the MOI is an unrestrained front-seat passenger or side-impact collision with intrusion into the vehicle, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is a broken humerus exposing the chest wall (possible flail chest), as well as pelvic and acetabulum injuries. 25 bleeding When the MOI is an unrestrained driver crushed against the steering column, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is a chest or abdomen injury, a ruptured spleen, and neck trauma. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a fall over the handlebars of a bike, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI are a fractured clavicle, road rash, and head trauma if there was no helmet. 25 bleeding When the MOI is an abrupt motorcycle stop, and the patient went over the handlebars, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI are fractured femurs, and head or neck injuries. 25 bleeding When the MOI is diving into the shallow end of a swimming pool, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI are head and neck injuries. 25 bleeding When the MOI is an assault or fight, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is injury to the abdomen, chest, and face. 25 bleeding When the MOI is a blast or explosion, what is a potential internal bleeding source? A potential internal bleeding source from this MOI is: injury from direct strike with debris; an indirect pressure wave in an enclosed space; and, internally, air-containing organs, such as the middle of the ears and lungs, are the most susceptible to injury. 25 bleeding With a patient with obvious external bleeding, what is the very least PPE needed? With these patients, BSI includes at the very least gloves and eye protection, and often a mask and possibly a gown. 25 bleeding What are the methods available to control external bleeding? The most commonly used method to do this include:
1) Direct, even pressure and elevation
2) Pressure dressings and/or splints
and
3) Tourniquiets
25 bleeding How long (minimum) should you hold uninterrupted pressure on an open wound to stop bleeding? You should do this for at least 5 minutes. 25 bleeding What is a pressure point? This is a spot where a blood vessel lies near a bone. 25 bleeding What is one way to assist in the body's natural clotting process? One way to do this is to keep the patient as still and quiet as possible. 25 bleeding What are the signs and symptoms of blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck? Signs and symptoms of this are: Noisy or labored breathing, and swelling of the face or neck. 24 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck? The index of suspicion of blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck is:
Significant bleeding or foreign bodies in the upper or lower airway, causing obstruction;
Be alert for airway compromise 24 overview trauma What are the signs and symptoms of significant chest wall, blunt trauma from motor vehicle crashes, car-versus-pedestrian accidents, other crashes, and penetrating trauma to the chest wall? Signs and symptoms of this are: Significant chest pain, shortness of breath, and asymmetrical chest wall movement. 24 overview trauma What are the signs and symptoms of any significant blunt force trauma from motor vehicle crashes or penetrating injury? Signs and symptoms of this are: Blunt or penetrating trauma to the neck, chest, abdomen, or groin, blows to the head sustained during motor vehicle crashes, falls, or other incidents, producing loss of consciousness, altered mental status, inability to recall events, combativeness, or changes in speech patterns, and difficulty moving extremities and headaches, especially with nausea and vomiting. 24 overview trauma What are the signs and symptoms of any significant blunt force trauma, falls from a significant height, or penetrating trauma? Signs and symptoms of this are: Severe back and/or neck pain, a history of difficulty moving extremities, and loss of sensation or tingling in the extremities. 24 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of significant chest wall, blunt trauma from motor vehicle crashes, car-versus-pedestrian accidents, other crashes, and penetrating trauma to the chest wall? The index of suspicion of this is:
Cardiac or pulmonary contusion;
Pneumothorax or hemothorax;
Broken ribs, causing breathing compromise 24 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of any significant blunt force trauma from motor vehicle crashes or penetrating injury? The index of suspicion of this is:
Injuries in these regions may tear and cause damage to the large blood vessels located in these body areas, resulting in significant internal and external bleeding.
Be alert to the possibility of bruising to the brain and bleeding in and around the brain tissue, which may cause the development of excess pressure inside the skull around the brain. 24 overview trauma What is the index of suspicion of any significant blunt force trauma, falls from a significant height, or penetrating trauma? The index of suspicion of this is:
Injury to the bones of the spinal column or to the spinal cord. 24 overview trauma What organ system is most sensitive to blast injuries? The ear is the organ system most sensitive to this. 24 overview trauma What happens to the tympanic membrane when hit by a pressure wave? This has evolved to detect minor chasnges in pressure and will rupture at pressures of 5 to 7 pounds per square inch above atmosphere pressure. 24 overview trauma What are pulmonary blast injuries? These are defined as pulmonary trauma (consisting of contusions and hemorrhages) that results from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives. 24 overview trauma What should you avoid with victims of blast injuries with suspected lung injury? With these patients, avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure (that is by demand valve), because that may simply increase the damage to the lungs. 24 overview trauma What is an arterial air embolism? This is one of the most concerning pulmonary blast injuries, and occurs on alveolar disruption with subsequent air embolization into the pulmonary vasculature. This can produce disturbances in vision, changes in behavior, changes in state of consciousness, and a variety of other neurologic signs. 24 overview trauma What are petechiae? These are pinpoint hemorrhages that show up on the skin, and are the dominant form of pathology for hollow organs injured by blast pressure waves. 24 definition overview trauma What are the most common causes of death from blast injuries? Neurologic injuries and head trauma are the most common causes of death from this. 24 overview trauma What can trigger instant but transient unconsciousness, with or without retrograde amnesia? This can be triggered not only by head trauma, but also by cardiovascular problems. 24 overview trauma What is something to remember about body armor in blast injury treatment? "This may limit or prevent shrapnel from entering the body, but it also ""catches"" more energy from the blast wave, possibly resulting in the victim being thrown backward, thus increasing the potential for spine and spinal cord injury." 24 overview trauma What is multisystem trauma? This is a term that describes a preson who has been subjected to multiple traumatic injuries involving more than one body system.  24 overview trauma What kind of care do most patients with multisystem trauma require? "With these patients, definitive care requires surgical intervention; therefore, on-scene time should be limited to 10 minutes or less; this is referred to as the ""platinum 10 minutes""." 24 overview trauma What can a crushing injury to the upper part of the neck cause? This injury can cause the cartilages of the upper airway and larynx to fracture. The can lead to the leakage of air into the soft tissue of the neck. 24 overview trauma What is subcutaneous crepitation? This is when air is trapped in subcutaneous tissue. 24 overview trauma What is the appropriate use of emergency air medical services for trauma patients? This medical service is appropriate for the following situations:
1) There is an extended period required to access or extricate a remote or trapped patient.
2) The distance to the trauma center is greater than 20 to 25 miles
3) The patient needs medical care and stabilizatio at the ALS level, and there is no ALS-level ground ambulance service available within a reasonable time frame.
4) Traffice conditions or hospital availability make it unlikely that the patient will get to a trauma center.
5) There are multiple patients who will overwhelm resources at the trauma center reachable by ground.
6) EMS systems require bringing a patient to the nearest hospital for initial evaluation and stabilization.
7) There is a mass-casualty incident.
24 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level I trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) 24 hour in-house coverage by general surgeons
2) Availability of care in specialties such as orthopaedic surgery, neurosurgery, anesthesiology, emergency medicine, radiology, internal medicine, and critical care
3) Should also include cardiac, hand, pediatric, and microvascular surgery and hemodialysis.
4) Provides leadership in prevention, public education, and continuing education of trauma team members.
5) Committed to continued improvement through a comprehensive quality assessment program and organized research to help direct new innovations in trauma care.
24 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level II trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) 24 hour in-house coverage by general surgeons
2) Availability of care in specialties such as orthopaedic surgery, neurosurgery, anesthesiology, emergency medicine, radiology, internal medicine, and critical care
3) Committed to trauma prevention and continuing education of trauma team members.
4) Provides continued improvement in trauma care through a comprehensive quality assessment program.
24 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level III trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) 24 hour in-house coverage by general surgeons
2) Committed to continued improvement through a comprehensive quality assessment program
3) Has developed transfer agreements for patients requiring more comprehensive care at a Level I or Level iI trauma center.
4) Committed to continuing education of nursing and allied health personnel or the trauma team.
5) Must be involved with prevention and have an active outreach program for its referring communities.
24 overview trauma What key elements are in a Level IV trauma center? Key elements of this are:
1) Include basic emergency department facilities to implement ATLS protocols and 24-hour laboratory coverage.
2) Transfer to higher level trauma centers follows the guidelines outlined in formal transfer agreements.
3) Committed to continued improvement of these trauma care activities through a formal quality assessment program.
4) Involved in prevention, outreach, and education within its community.
24 overview trauma What is a trauma score? This is a way to calcualte a number from 1 to 16, that accurately evaluates the extent of trauma in a patient. 24 overview trauma In the Glasgow Coma Scale, how do you rate eye opening? For this evaluation:
4 - Spontaneous
3 - To Voice
2 - To Pain
1 - None
24 overview trauma In the Glasgow Coma Scale, how do you rate verbal response? For this evaluation:
5 - Oriented
4 - Confused
3 - Inappropriate Words
2 - Incomprehensible Words
1 - None
24 overview trauma In the Glasgow Coma Scale, how do you rate motor response? For this evaluation:
6 - Obeys Commands
5 - Localizes Pain
4 - Withdraws (pain)
3 - Flexion (pain)
2 - Extension (pain)
1 - None
24 overview trauma What is the American College of Surgeons' Criteria for a Level I Patient? Criteria for this are:
1) Confirmed blood pressure of less than 90 mg Hg at any time in adults, and age-specific hypotension in children.
2) Respiratory compromise, obstruction, and/or intubation
3) Receiving blood to maintain vital signs
4) Emergency physician's discretion
5) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than or equal to 8 with mechanism attributed to trauma
6) Gunshot wound to the abdomen, neck, or chest.
24 overview trauma What does the parasympathetic nervous system do? This directly opposes the other system, it slows the heart and respiratory rates, constricts blood vessels in the muscles, and dilates blood vessels in the digestive system. 06 anatomy definition nervous What is congestive heart failure
?
This is when the ventricular heart muscle is so damaged that it can no longer keep up with the return flow of blood from the atria. Blood backs up in the pulmonary veins, increasing pressure in the capillaries of the lungs and forcing water into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema. 15 cardiovascular definition emergencies What is dyspnea? Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing 09 13 15 breathing emergencies respiratory What structures make up the upper airway? This consists of the nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx. 10 airway anatomy breathing definition respiratory What divides the upper and lower airway? These are divided by the larnyx. 06 10 airway breathing respiratory What is carbon dioxide retention? This is the failure of the respiratory center in the brain to respond normally to a rise in arterial levels of carbon dioxide. 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What is the hypoxic drive? This is a secondary drive which stimulates the respiratory center. 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What is the normal breathing rate of an adult patient? This is 12-20 BPM. 15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of asthma? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Wheezing on inspiration / expiration
Bronchospasm
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? Signs and symptoms include:
Flushed skin or hives
Generalized edema
Decreased blood pressure
Laryngeal edema with dyspnea
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of bronchitis? Signs and symptoms include:
Chronic cough
Wheezing
Cyanosis
Productive cough
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? Signs and symptoms include:
Dependent edema
Rales
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of croup? Signs and symptoms include:
Fever
Barking cough
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema? Signs and symptoms include:
Barrel chest
Pursed lip breathing
Dyspnea on exertion
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia? Signs and symptoms include:
Dyspnea
Chills, fever
Cough
Dark sputum
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax? Signs and symptoms include:
Sudden chest pain with dyspnea
Decreased lung sounds/affected side
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism? Signs and symptoms include:
Sharp, pinpoint pain
Dyspnea
Sudden onset
After childbirth or surgery
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax? Signs and symptoms include:
Progressive shortness of breath
Increasing altered level of consciousness
Neck vein distention
Tracheal deviation
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pertussis? "Signs and symptoms include:
Coughing spells
""Whooping"" sound
Fever
Mostly seen in pediatric patients
" 15 emergencies respiratory As you treat patients with disorders of the lungs, what situations should you be aware of? While treating these kinds of patients, be aware of these situations:
Gas exchange between alveoli and pulmonary circulation is obstructed by fluid in the lung, infection, or collapsed alveoli (atelectasis)
The alveoli are damaged and cannot transport gases properly across their own walls
The air passages are obstructed by muscle spasm, mucus, or weakened floppy airway walls
Blood flow to the lungs is obstructed by blood clots
The pleural space is filled with air or excess fluid, so the lungs cannot properly expand
15 emergencies respiratory What is atelectasis? This is the collapse of the alveolar space in the lungs. 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of bronchitis? Characteristics of this are:
An acute or chronic inflammation of the air passages (bronchi and bronchioles) often due to infection, usually associated with productive cough, and usually presents without fever
Accumulation of fluid within the air passages, as well as swelling of the walls, resticts air flow and may lead to signs of asthma such as wheezing. It is often associated with rhonchi. Crackles are not usually present unless pneumonia has developed.
The breathing pattern in bronchitis does not indicate major airway obstruction, but the patient may experience tachypnea, an increase in the breathing rate, which is an attempt to compensate for the reduced amount of normal lung tissue and for the buildup of fluid.
15 emergencies respiratory What is the pathophysiology of the common cold?
A viral infection usually associated with swollen nasal mucous membranes and the production of fluid from the sinuses and nose.
15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of TB? Characteristics of this are:
A disease that can lay dormant in a person's lungs for decades, then reactivate.
Dangerous because many TB strains are resistant to many antibiotics.
Spread by cough. Droplet nuclei can remain intact for decades.
Use a high-efficiency air particulate, or HEPA, respirator.
15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of diphtheria? Characteristics of this are:
Highly contagious and serious when it occurs
The formation of diphtheritic membrane lining the pharynx that is composed of debris, inflammatory cells, and mucus. This membrane can rapidly and severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.
15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia?
dyspnea
chills fever
cough
green red or rust colored sputum
localized wheezing or crackles
15 breathing emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of epiglottitis? Characteristics of this are:
An inflammation of the epiglottis due to bacterial infection that can produce severe swelling of the flap over the larynx.
Can swell to two or three times its normal size, especially in young children.
The airway may become almost completely obstructed, sometimes quite suddenly.
Stridor (harsh, high-pitched, continued rough, barking inspiratory sounds) may be heard late in the development of airway obstruction.
Characterized in adults by a severe sore throat.
15 emergencies respiratory What is the pathophysiology of croup?
Inflammation and swelling of the whole airway (pharynx, larynx, and trachea) typically seen in children 6 months - 3 years old.
Rarely seen in adults because that airways are larger.
15 emergencies respiratory What is the pathophysiology of respiratory syncytial virus?
Causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia.  
Highly contagious and spread through droplets
15 emergencies respiratory What is the pathophysiology of pertussis?
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years.
Highly contagious through droplet infection.
Does not cause the typical whooping illness in adults. It causes a severe upper respiratory infection that could be an entry pathway to pneumonia in older people.
15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)?
Characteristics of this are:
A serious, potentially life-threatening viral infection caused by a recently discovered family of viruses best known as the second most common cause of the common cold.
Usually starts with flu-like symptoms, and may progress to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and, in some cases, death.
SARS is thought to be transmitted primarily by close person-to-person contact.
15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Influenza type A? Characteristics of this are:
A virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans.
A flu that has the potential to spread at a pandemic level.
15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Meningococcal meningitis? Characteristics of this include:
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord that can be highly contagious.
The bacteria can be spread through the exchange of respiratory and throat secretions through coughing and sneezing.
The effects are lethal in some cases. Victims who survive can be left with brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disabilities.
Patients may present with flulike symptoms, but unique to this are high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and a stiff neck in adults. Patients soemtimes have an altered level of consciousness and can have red blotches on skin.
Use respiratory protection, and report and potential cases.
15 emergencies respiratory What is pulmonary edema? This is a build up of fluid between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries, which interferes with the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen. It can result from heart muscle so injured after a heart attack or other illness that it cannot circulate blood properly; in these cases, the left side of the heart cannot remove blood from the lung as fast as the right side delivers it. Patients with this usually experience dyspnea with rapid, shallow respirations, or frothy pink sputum at the nose in mouth in severe cases. 15 emergencies respiratory What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? The is the slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction. An estimated 12.1 million adults are reported to have this disease, and is the fourth leading cause of death. 15 emergencies respiratory What is chronic bronchitis? This is an ongoing irritation of the trachea and bronchi; excess mucus obstructs small airways and alveoli. This can lead to right-sided heart failure and fluid retention, such as edema in the legs. 15 emergencies respiratory What is emphysema? This is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli when inflamed airways (due to smoking for example) obstruct easy explusion of gases. 15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of COPD? Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the lung characterized by shortness of breath and wheezing.
Home oxygen, bronchodilators, and steroids for treatment.
Breathing progressively worse over time.
Usually in long-term smokers
Shortness of breath mostly on exertion
Chronic coughing
Sputum may be thick
No jugular vein distention or dependent edema
Patient usually thin with a barrel chest
15 emergencies respiratory What are the characteristics of Congestive Heart Failure? Characteristics of this are:
A disease of the heart characterized by shortness of breath, edema, and weakness.
Diuretics prescribed to help promote cardiac function and to reduce fluid loads on the heart.
Sudden onset of shortness of breath.
Patient may or may not smoke.
Shortness of breath all the time.
Coughing
Sputum may be pink and frothy.
Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.
May have distended abdomen.
15 emergencies respiratory What is the sequence of events in anaphylaxis? The sequence of events for this is:
A. The antigen is introduced to the body.
B. The antigen-antibody reaction at the surface of a mast cell.
C. Release of a cell chemical mediators.
D. Chemical mediators exert their effects on end organs.
15 emergencies respiratory What is pneumothorax? This is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space. It is often caused by trauma. 15 emergencies respiratory When may spontaneous pneumothorax occur? This tends to occur in patients with certain chronic lung infections or in young people born with weak areas of the lung, and often during severe coughing. 15 emergencies respiratory What is pleuritic chest pain? This is a sharp, stabbing pain on one side that is worse during inspiration and expiration or with certain movements of the chest wall. 15 emergencies respiratory What is a pleural effusion? This is a collection of fluid outside the lung on one or both sides of the chest. Patients will have decreased lung sounds and will feel better sitting upright. 15 emergencies respiratory What is a tonic-clonic seizure? This, also called a grand mal seizure, is one in which the patient has a sudden loss of consciousness, rapid muscle movement of the body, and often incontinence. This type of seizure typically only lasts minutes. 15 emergencies respiratory What is status epilipticus? This is when a patient continues to have seizures every few minutes without regaining consciousness, and/or the seizure lasts longer than 30 minutes. It could be life threatening. 15 emergencies respiratory What is an embolus? This is anything in the circulatory system that moves from it's point of origin to a distant site and lodges there, obstructing subsequent blood flow in that area. 15 emergencies respiratory What is a pulmonary embolism? This is the passage of a blood clot formed in a vein, usually in the legs or pelvis, that breaks off and circulates through the venous system, enters the pulmonary artery, where it becomes lodged, significantly decreasing or blocking blood flow. Arterial carbon dioxide rises, and oxygen level may drop enough to cause cyanosis. 15 emergencies respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolisms? Signs and symptoms of these include:
Dyspnea
Acute chest pain
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
Cyanosis
Tachypnea
Vary degrees of hypoxia
15 emergencies respiratory What is acidosis? This is the buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from the primary illness. 15 emergencies respiratory What is alkalosis? This is the buildup of excess base in the body fluids. 15 emergencies respiratory What is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? This is a bacterium that can cause infection in different parts of the body and is transmitted by different routes. It is resistant to many commonly used antibiotics. 15 emergencies respiratory What is tuberculosis (TB)? This is an infection most commonyl found in the lungs but can also affect any organ of the body, including the kidneys, bones, and meninges. 15 emergencies respiratory What are adventitious breath sounds? These are abnormal, decreased, or absent breath sounds. 15 emergencies respiratory What are vesicular breath sounds? These are normal breath sounds in a patient. 15 emergencies respiratory What are some risk factors for congestive heart failure? Risk factors for this include hypertension and a history of coronary artery disease and/or atrial fibrillation, a condition in which the atria no longer contract, but quiver. 15 emergencies respiratory What are some signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure? Signs and symptoms of this are:
cool, diaphoretic, and/or cyanotic skin
Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles, wheezing, or rales
A tachycardiac pulse.
15 emergencies respiratory What is cystic fibrosis (CF)? This is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. This disrupts the normal function of cells that make up the sweat glands in the skin and that also line the lungs and digestive and reproductive systems. 15 emergencies respiratory How is croup treated? This often responds well to humidified oxygen. 15 emergencies respiratory What is proper treatment for hyperventilation? Proper treatment for this consists of: reassuing the patient, supplying supplemental oxygen, and providing prompt transport to the emergency department. 15 emergencies respiratory What is the proper treatment for pulmonary embolism? Proper treatment for this consists of: Placing the patient in a comfrotable position, be aware of possible hemoptysis as an airway obstruction, and transport promptly, as this may cause cardiac arrest. 15 emergencies respiratory What should you watch for in patients with COPD? Oftentimes these patients will overuse their inhalers, so watch for side effects. 15 emergencies respiratory What does PASTE stand for? This stands for:
Progression: You want to know if the problem started suddenly or has worsened
Associated chest pain: Dyspnea can be a significant symptom of a cardiac problem.
Sputum: Mucus like sputum could indicate a respiratory infection, while frothy pink sputum indicates fluid in the lungs.
Talking tiredness: How many words a patient can saw between breaths.
Exercise tolerance: What activity was the patient doing before the problem started.
15 abbreviations emergencies respiratory What is wheezing? This is a sound that is generally heard on exhalation as a high-pitched, almost whistling sound. It is extremely common in patients with asthma and sometimes in patients with COPD; it indicates constriction and/or inflammation in the bronchus. 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What are rales? "These are the sounds of air trying to pass through fluid in the alveoli. It is a crackling or bubbling sound typically heard on inspiration. There are high-pitched ""fine"" sounds and low-pitched ""coarse"" sounds. These often indicate congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other fluid in the lungs." 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What are rhonchi? "These are lower pitched sounds caused by secretions or mucus in the larger airway. The sound resembles rattling or is sometimes referred to as ""junky"" lung sounds. It indicates infections, pneumonia, or bronchitis." 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What is stridor? This is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration as air tries to pass through obstruction in the upper airway. This indicates a partial obstruction of the trachea and is seen in patients with anatomic or foreign body airway obstruction. 10 15 breathing definition emergencies respiratory What is an example of an endocrine condition? An example of this kind of condition is diabetes mellitus. 12 medical overview What are the 5 major components of patient assessment? These are:
Scene size-up
Primary assessment
History taking
Secondary assessment
Reassessment
09 medical overview What is the index of suspicion? This is your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. 12 definition medical overview Where can the pulse be most stronly palpated? This can be most strongly palpated at the carotid artery. 12 medical overview What kinds of patients are always considered in serious condition and should be transported immediately? These kinds of patients include:
Patients who are unconscious or who have an altered mental status
Patients with airway or breathing problems
Patients with obvious  circulation problems such as severe bleeding or signs of shock
12 medical overview transport How often should you recheck vitals? You should recheck these every 5 minutes for unstable patients or every 15 minutes for stable patients. 12 medical overview How much time should you spend on scene? You should spend no more than 10 minutes here. 12 medical overview What should you remember about stable patients who are also very old or very young? You should remember that these types of patients should still be considered critical. 12 medical overview What are some typical chief complaints? Typical kinds of these include fever. nausea, rash, pleuritic chest pain, and difficulty breathing. 12 medical overview What are some general management principles? Some of these include:
Place the patient in the position of comfort on the stretcher to keep warm.
Be empathetic.
Always show respect for the feelings of the patient and family members.
12 medical overview What is herpes simplex? This is a common virus strain carried by humans. 80% of individuals carrying it are asymptomatic. 12 medical overview What other virus is far more contagious than HIV? Hepatitis B is far more contagious than this. 12 medical overview How is syphilis transmitted? This disease is transmitted both sexually and via bloodborne vectors. 12 medical overview What is a common symptom of initial syphilis infection? An initial infection of this disease is a lesion called a chancre, commonly located in the genital region. 12 medical overview What is virulence? This is the strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease. 12 medical overview How long can Mycobacterium tuberculosis remain alive? As long as they are shielded from ultraviolet light, these bacterium can stay alive for decades. 12 medical overview What is another name for H1N1? "Another name for this is the ""swine flu""." 12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis A? Characteristics of this are:
Route infection via fecal-oral, infected food, or drink
An incubation period of 2-6 weeks
A vaccine is available, and no treatment is available
Mild illness, approx. 2% or people die.
After infection, patient has life-long immunity
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis B? Route of infection via blood, sexual contact, saliva, urine, breast milk
4-12 week incubation period
Chronic infection affect up to 10% of pateints and 90% of newborns
Vaccine available, treatment is minimally effective.
Up to 30% of patients may become chronic carriers; patients are asymptomatic and without signs of liver disease. Approx. 1-2% of patients die.
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis C? Route of infection via blood or sexual contact
2-10 week of incubation
Chronic infection affects 90% of patients
No vaccine available, treatment minimally effective
Cirrhosis of the liver develops in 50% of patients; chronic infection increases the risk of liver cancer
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Hepatitis D? Route of infection via blood or sexual contact
4-12 weeks of incubation
Chronic infection common
No vaccine or treatment available
Occurs only in patients with active hepatitis B infection; fulminant disease may develop in 20% of patients.
12 medical overview What are the characteristics of of Toxin-induced Hepatitis? Characteristics of this are:
route of infection via inhalation, skin or mucus membrane exposure, oral ingestion, or intravenous administration
Incubation hours to days after exposure
Some chemicals may initiate an inflammatory response that continues to cause liver damage long after the chemical is out of the body.
No vaccine available.
Patients may have jaundice.
12 medical overview What is the hantavirus? This is a newly recognized disease, transmitted via rodent urine and droppings 12 medical overview How is the West Nile Virus transmitted? This virus' vector is the mosquito. 12 medical overview What is the order of BLS if you suspect cardiac arrest? If this is suspected, BLS order becomes CAB. 13 BLS resuscitation What is the chain of survival? This is:
1. Early access (ie Access EMS by calling 911)
2. Early CPR (keeps blood flowing)
3. Early defibrillation
4. Early advanced care
5. Integrated post-arrest care (including controlling temperature and maintaining glucose levels in the patient who is hypoglycemic)
13 BLS definition resuscitation What is important to remember regarding time and CPR? It's important to remember regarding this that few patients survive cardiac arrest if this is not administered within the first few minutes, and if the time from cardiac arrest to defibrillation is more than 10 minutes, the chance of survival is minimal. 13 BLS resuscitation What is arrhythmia? This is sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance. 13 BLS resuscitation What is ventricular fibrillation? This is the disorganized twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest. 13 BLS resuscitation For each minute the patient remains in V-fib or pulseless V-tach, how much does the chance of survival decrease? For each minute in these states, there is a 7% to 10% less chance of survival. 13 BLS resuscitation What is a common cause of cardiac arrest in children? Respiratory failure is usually the cause of this in children. 13 BLS resuscitation Where should you place the AED electrode on patients with an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker? If you see a patient with one of these, you should place the AED electrode at least 1 inch to the side of the device. 13 BLS resuscitation On average, how much blood is pumped through the body when external chest compressions are performed as proficiently as possible? Only one third of the blood that is normally pumped by is circulated through this method. 13 BLS resuscitation Where should the patient's head be while administring chest compressions? This should not be elevated at a level above the heart because this will further reduce blood flow to the brain. 13 BLS resuscitation What kind of surface should a patient receiving chest compressions be placed on? During this, the patient should be placed on the floor or have a board placed under the back. 13 BLS resuscitation When performing CPR on an adult, how many chest compressions should be given a minute? Give at least 100 compressions per minute for this type of patient. 13 BLS resuscitation What is the recovery position? This is a side-lying position (patient's hand under their head) used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are adequately breathing. 13 BLS definition resuscitation What is the focus of pediatric BLS? The focus of BLS for these types of patients is airway and breathing. 13 BLS resuscitation Where do you check the pulse on infants? You check the pulse on the brachial artery for these patients. 13 BLS resuscitation Where do you check the pulse on children (1-12 years)? You check the pulse on the carotid or femoral artery for these patients. 13 BLS resuscitation What is the compression rate for infants and children in CPR? For these patients, the compression rate is at least 100/min. 13 BLS resuscitation What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in CPR for infants and children? For these patients, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for one rescuer, and 15:2 for 2 rescuers. 13 BLS resuscitation With infants and children, what is the ventilation rate during CPR? With these patients, the ventilation rate is 1 breath every 3-5 seconds. 13 BLS resuscitation What should you do with a patient who has a mild airway obstruction? With these patients, you should encourage him or her to cough or to continue coughing if they are already doing so. 13 BLS resuscitation What is homeostasis? This is a balance of all systems and conditions of the body; as shock progresses, this degrades. 12 definition shock What are the three parts of the cardiovascular system? The three parts of this system are:
A pump,
A set of pipes,
and the contents of the container.
12 cardiovascular shock What is systolic pressure? This is the peak arterial pressure, or pressure generated every time the heart contracts. 10 12 assessment cardiovascular definition vitals What is diastolic pressure? This is the pressure maintained within the arteries while the heart rests between the heartbeats. 10 12 assessment cardiovascular definition vitals What are sphincters? These are circular muscles that encircle and, by contracting, constrict a duct, tube, or opening. 12 definition shock What are the three basic causes of shock? The three basic causes of this are:

1. Pump failure (caused by: heart attack, trauma to heart, and obstructive causes).
2. Low fluid volume (caused by: trauma to vessels or tissues, and fluid loss from GI tract),
and,
3. Poor vessel function (caused by: infection, drug overdose, spinal cord injuries, and anaphylaxis).
12 shock What does pump failure cause? Cardiogenic and obstructive shock are caused by this kind of failure. 12 shock What kinds of shock does poor vessel function cause? Distributive shock, septic shock, neurogenic shock, anaphylactic shock, and psychogenic shock are caused by this kind of failure. 12 shock What kinds of shock does low fluid volume cause? Hypovolemic shock, hemorrhagic shock, and nonhemorrhagic shock are caused by this kind of failure. 12 shock What causes cardiogenic shock? This is caused by inadequate functioning of the heart, or pump failure. 12 shock What is edema? This is the presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area. 12 definition shock When does cardiogenic shock develop? This develops when the heart cannot maintain sufficient output (or cardiac output) to meet the demands of the body. 12 shock What is myocardial contractility? This is the ability for the heart to contract. 12 definition shock What is preload? This is the precontraction pressure in the heart as the volume of blood builds up. 12 definition shock What is afterload? This is the force or resistance against which the heart pumps. 12 definition shock What is obstructive shock? This results when conditions that cause mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle also impact pump function. 12 definition shock What are two of the most common examples of obstructive shock? Two of the most common examples of this are cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax. 12 shock What is a cardiac tamponade (A.K.A. a pericardial tamponade)? This is a collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium. It is caused by blunt or penetrating trauma and can progress rapidly. 12 shock What happens during a cardiac tamponade? When this occurs, blood leaks into the tough fibrous membrane known as the pericardium, causing an accumulation of blood within the pericardial sac. This accumulation leads to compression of the heart. Because the pericardium has a limited ability to stretch, each contraction of the heart allows more blood accumulation between the heart and the sac. The accumulated blood prevents the heart from opening up to allow complete refilling. 12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade? The signs and symptoms of this are referred to as Beck's Triad. They are:
1) Jugular vein distention.
2) Muffled heart sounds,
and
3) The merging of systolic and diastolic blood pressure. 
12 shock What causes tension pneumothorax? This is caused by damage to the lung tissue. This damage allows air normally held within the lung to escape into the chest cavity. If this condition is allowed to continue untreated, a sufficient amount of air will accumulate within the chest cavity and begin applying pressure to the structures in the mediastinum. The trapped air begins to shift the chest organs toward the uninjured side, which creates the condition. 12 shock What is distributive shock? This is when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both. 12 definition shock What is septic shock? This is a result of severe infections, usually bacterial, in which toxins are generated by the bacteria or by infected body tissues; the toxins damage the vessel walls, causing increased cellular permeability. The vessel walls leak and are unable to contract well. Widespread dilation of vessels, in combination with plasma loss through the injured vessel walls, resulting in shock. 12 definition shock What is usually the cause of neurogenic shock? This is usually caused by damage to the spinal cord, particularly at the upper cervical level, which damages the part of the nervous system that controls the size and muscular tone of the blood vessels. 12 shock What is an important consideration in patients in neurogenic shock? One important consideration in these kinds of patients is that these patients lack the ability to regulate body temperature. 12 shock What are signs of anaphylactic shock on the skin, in the circulatory system, and in the respiratory system? Signs of this include:

On the skin:
Flushing, itching, or burning, especially over the face and upper part of the chest.
Urticaria, which may spread over large areas of the body.
Edema, especially of the face, tongue, and lips.
Pallor.
And,
Cyanosis about the lips.

In the circulatory system:
Dilation of peripheral blood vessels.
Increased vessel permeability.
A drop in blood pressure.
A weak, barely palpable pulse.
Dizziness.
And,
Fainting and coma.

In the respiratory system:
Sneezing or itching.
Tightness in the chest, with a persistent dry cough.
Wheezing and dyspnea.
Secretions of fluid and mucus into the bronchial passages, alveoli, and lung tissues, causing coughing.
Constriction of the bronchi.
Forced expiration accompanied by wheezing.
And,
Eventual cessation of breathing.
12 shock What is psychogenic shock? This is when a patient has had a sudden reaction of the nervous system that produces a temporary, generalized vascular dilation, resulting in fainting, or syncope. 12 definition shock What are some causes of syncope that are potentially life threatening? Causes of this that are potentially life threatening are an irregular heartbeat or brain aneurysm. 12 shock What is hypovolemic shock? This is the result of inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the system. 12 definition shock What are some causes of hypovolemic shock? Some causes of this kind of shock include hemorrhagic causes, non-hemorrhagic causes (such as vomiting and diarrhea), as well as severe thermal burns; in those cases, it is intravascular plasma that is lost, leaking from the circulatory system into the burned tissues. 12 burn shock How does carbon monoxide affect the ability of cells to metabolize or carry oxygen? This substance has a 250 times greater affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen. If a patient is in an environment with this substance, it will bind to the blood's hemoglobin, preventing oxygen from binding. 12 shock What is compensated shock? This is the early stage of shock, when the body can still compensate for blood loss. Signs and symptoms include:
Agitation,
Anxiety,
Restlessness,
Feeling of impending doom,
A.M.S.,
Weak, rapid, or absent pulse,
Clammy skin,
Pallor with cyanosis around the lips,
Shallow, rapid breathing,
Shortness of breath,
Nausea or vomiting,
And,
Marked thirst.
12 definition shock What is decompensated shock? This is a later stage of shock, when blood pressure falls. Signs and symptoms include:
Falling blood pressure (systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or lower in an adult),
Labored or irregular breathing,
Ashen, mottled, or cyanotic skin,
Thready or absent peripheral pulses,
Dilated pupils,
And,
Poor urinary output.
12 definition shock What is irreversible shock? This is the last stage of shock, when shock has progressed to a terminal stage. A transfusion during this stage will not save the patient's life. 12 definition shock What should you remember about blood pressure drops in children and infants? Remember that these patients can maintain their blood pressure until they have lost more than half their blood volume. By the time their blood pressure drops in shock, they are close to death. 12 shock Which conditions in patients should make you suspect shock? You should expect this if a patient has any one of the following conditions:
Multiple severe fractures,
Abdominal or chest injury,
Spinal injury,
A severe infection,
A major heart attack,
And,
Anaphylaxis.
12 shock What is the only real effective treatment for a severe, acute allergic reaction? The only real effective treatment for this is to administer epinephrine. 12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Chest pain,
Irregular pulse,
Weak pulse,
Low blood pressure,
Cyanosis of the lips and under the nails,
Cool, clammy skin,
Anxiety, 
Rales, 
and pulmonary edema.

Treat this by:
Positioning the patient comfortably, administering oxygen, assisting with ventilations, and transporting promptly.
12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of obstructive shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this are dependent on the cause, and include:
Dyspnea,
A rapid, weak pulse,
Rapid, shallow breaths,
Decreased lung compliance,
Unilateral, decreased, or absent breath sounds,
Decreased blood pressure,
Subcutaneous emphysema,
Cyanosis,
Tracheal deviation towards the unaffected side,
and,
Beck's Triad, which are: Muffled heart sounds, Jugular vein distention, and, The merging of systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

Treatment of this is also dependent on the cause, and includes:
ALS assist, and / or rapid transport.
12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of septic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Warm skin,
Tachycardia,
and, low blood pressure.

Treatment for this includes:
Transporting promptly, administering oxygen en route, providing full ventilatory support, keeping the patient warm, and considering elevating the legs.
12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of neurogenic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Bradycardia,
Low blood pressure,
and,
Signs of neck injury.

Treatment of this includes:
Securing the airway,
stabilizing the spine,
assisting ventilations,
administering high-flow oxygen,
preserving body heat,
and,
transporting promptly.
12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
Mild itching or rash,
Burning skin,
Vascular dilation,
Generalized edema,
Coma,
and,
rapid death.

Treatment for this includes:
Managing the airway,
Assisting ventilations,
administering high-flow oxygen,
assisting with administration of epinephrine,
and,
transporting promptly.
12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of psychogenic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
A rapid pulse,
and,
Normal or low blood pressure.

Treatment for this includes:
Determining the duration of unconsciousness,
Recording initial vitals and mental status,
Suspecting head trauma if the patient is confused or slow to regain consciousness,
and,
Transporting promptly.
12 shock What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock, and how should you treat it? Signs and symptoms of this include:
A rapid, weak pulse,
Low blood pressure,
A change in mental status,
Cyanosis of the lips and / or nails,
Cool, clammy skin,
and,
An increased respiratory rate.

Treatment for this includes:
Securing the airway,
Administering high-flow oxygen,
Controlling external bleeding,
Keeping the patient warm,
Possibly elevating the legs,
and,
Transporting promptly.
12 shock How should you treat tension pneumothorax? Treat this with high-flow oxygen via non-re-breathing mask. Be cautious about providing positive-pressure ventilation to a patient with this condition. Usually the only action that can prevent eventual death from this is decompression of the injured side of the chest. This can be performed by ALS personnel. 12 shock What position should you place patients with neurogenic shock? With these patients, slight elevation of the foot end spine board may help bring the blood that is pooling in the vessels of the legs to the vital organs. Placing the patient's arms across his or her chest without moving the spine will also return some pooled blood. 12 shock When will brain tissue start to die without oxygen? This will begin to die within 4 to 6 minutes. 13 airway breathing respiratory resuscitation What anatomic structures make up the upper airway? The nose, mouth, jaw, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx are located here. 10 15 airway breathing definition respiratory What is the major function of the upper airway? The major function of this is to:
Warm, filter, and humidify air as it enters the body.
10 airway breathing respiratory What is the pharynx and what is it composed of? This is a muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea. It is composed of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx (A.K.A. the hypopharynx). 06 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the lowest portion of the pharynx? This is the laryngopharynx. At its base, it splits into two lumens, the larynx anteriorly, and the esophagus posteriorly. 10 15 airway breathing definition respiratory What is the nasopharynx? This is formed by the union of the facial bones, and is lined with a cilated mucous membrane that keeps contaminants such as dust and other small particles out of the respiratory tract. The membrane also warms and humidifies air as it enters the body. 10 15 airway breathing definition respiratory What is the oropharynx? This forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue.  06 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the larynx? This marks where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins. 10 15 airway breathing definition respiratory What is the thyroid cartilage? "This is a shield-shaped structure formed by two plates that join in a ""V"" shape anteriorly to form the larnygeal prominence known as the Adam's apple." 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the cricoid cartilage? This lies inferiorly to the thyroid cartilage; it forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is the only airway structure that forms a complete ring. 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the glottis? This is space in between the vocal cords and the narrowest portion of the adult's airway. 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the trachea? This is the conduit for air entry into the lungs. It is approximately 10 to 12 centimeters in length and consists of C-shaped cartilaginous rings. It descends anteriorly into the thoracic cavity. 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the carina? This is the point at which the trachea bifurcates into the left and right mainstream bronchi. 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is visceral pleura? This is a thin, slippery outer membrane that covers all lung tissue. 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What is the parietal pleura? This lines the inside of the thoracic cavity. 10 airway anatomy definition respiratory What lies between the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura? Between these is a small amount of fluid, which serves as a lubricant to prevent friction during breathing. 10 airway anatomy breathing definition What should you remember about children's airways? With these patients' airway, remember that:
They have a proportionately smaller mandible and a proportionately larger tongue, both of which increase the incidence of airway obstruction.
They have a proportionately larger occipital lobe, so when positioning the airway, place a folded towel under the shoulders to maintain a neutral position.
In general, the airway of these patients are smaller and narrower at all levels.
10 airway anatomy breathing pediatric What is the mediastinum? This is the space between the lungs, and is surrounded by tough, connective tissue. This space contains the heart, great vessels, esophagus, trachea, major bronchi, and nerves. 10 airway definition respiratory What is the phrenic nerve? This is one of the most important nervous structures in the body. It innervates the diaphragm muscle. 10 airway definition neurologic respiratory What is ventilation? This is the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs. 10 airway breathing definition respiratory What is oxygenation? This is the process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream. 10 airway breathing definition respiratory What is respiration? This is the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli as well as the tissues of the body. 10 airway breathing definition respiratory What is inhalation? This is the active, muscular part of breathing. 10 airway breathing definition respiratory How much air does 1 breath draw in? This is approximately 500 ml in an adult. 09 10 airway breathing What is partial pressure? This is the term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (Hg). 10 airway breathing definition respiratory What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air in the alveoli? This pressure is 104 mm Hg. 10 airway respiratory What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air in the alveoli? This pressure is 40 mm Hg. 10 airway respiratory What is alveolar ventilation, and how is it determined? This is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli, and is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume. 10 airway respiratory What is tidal volume? This is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath. The average volume for an adult man is approximately 500 ml. 10 airway respiratory What is dead space? This is the portion of tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and thus does not participate in gas exchange. It contains the air that remains in the mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. This can add up to approximately 150 mL in adults. 06 10 airway anatomy breathing definition respiratory What is minute ventilation (A.K.A. minute volume)? This is the amount of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space. An average adult male patient might have a rate of 4200 mL , (12 breaths per minute, a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath, and a dead space of 150 mL) 10 airway respiratory What is vital capacity? This refers to the amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing deeply. 10 airway respiratory What is residual volume? This is the air that remains after maximal expiration. It is approximately 1200 mL in the average adult male. 10 airway respiratory What is exhalation? This is the passive part of the breathing process, in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs. 10 airway respiratory How are ventilation changes primarily regulated? These are regulated primarily by the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid, which is directly related to the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood. 09 airway respiratory What is the hypoxic drive? This is a condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; it is seen in patients with end-stage C.O.P.D. 10 airway respiratory What is COPD? "This is when patients have difficulty eliminating carbon dioxide through exhalation; thus, they always have higher levels of carbon dioxide. This potentially alters their drive for breathing. The body uses a ""backup system"", the hypoxic drive, to control breathing. This is different from the primary control of breathing that uses carbon dioxide. Caution should be taken when administering high concentrations of oxygen to these kinds of patients, as providing high concentrations of oxygen over time will increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma; this could potentially negatively affect their body's drive to breathe." 10 airway respiratory What is dyspnea? This is shortness of breath. 10 airway respiratory What is another name for metabolism? Another name for this is cellular respiration. 10 airway respiratory What is the chemical composition of air on average? On average, the chemical composition of this is about 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and 0.3% carbon dioxide. 10 airway respiratory What is surfactant? This is a liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome. 10 airway respiratory Under normal conditions, what percentage of hemoglobin receptor sites contain oxygen? Under normal conditions, 96% to 100% of these contain oxygen. 10 airway respiratory What is aerobic respiration? This can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.  Energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (A.K.A., A.T.P.) is produced through a series of processes known as the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Together, these chemical processes yield nearly 40 molecules of energy-rich ATP for each molecule of glucose metabolized. 10 airway respiratory What are chemoreceptors? These monitor the levels of O2, CO2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any given time. 10 airway definition respiratory How will an elevation in carbon dioxide levels affect the pH balance in CSF? This will decrease the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. 09 airway respiratory What is the normal resting minute ventilation? The normal rate of this is approximately 6000 mL per minute. About a third of this volume fills dead space; therefore, resting alveolar ventilation is approximately 4000 mL per minute. 10 airway respiratory What is intrapulmonary shunting? This is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart, inhibiting diffusion and perfusion. 09 airway respiratory What is a bag-mask device? This is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, this delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen. 02 10 airway breathing equipment PPE respiratory What is the normal respiratory rate of adults? For this group, the average respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. 10 airway respiratory What is the normal respiratory rate of children? The normal respiratory rate of this group is 15 to 30 breaths per minute. 10 airway respiratory What is the normal respiratory rate of infants? The normal respiratory rate of this group is 25 to 50 breaths per minute. 10 airway respiratory What are retractions? This is when the skin pulls in around the ribs or above the clavicle during respiration. It is a sign of inadequate breathing. 10 airway definition respiratory What are agonal gasps? These are occasional gasping breaths that occur after the heart has stopped. They occur when the respiratory center in the brain continues to send signals to the respiratory muscles. 10 airway definition respiratory What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations? This is an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations that is followed by a period of apnea, or lack of spontaneous breathing, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration. 10 airway definition respiratory What is ataxic respirations? This is a pattern of irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern. 10 airway respiratory What are Kussmaul respirations? This is an irregular breathing pattern characterized as deep, gasping respirations commonly seen in patients with metabolic acidosis. 10 airway definition respiratory What maneuver should you use on a patient if you suspect a cervical spine injury to open the airway? In this situation, use the the jaw-thrust maneuver.
10 airway respiratory What are the principle purposes of an oropharyngeal airway? The principle purposes of this are to:
1) Keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway.
and 2) Make it easier to suction the the oropharynx if necessary.
06 10 airway equipment respiratory What is the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway in children? With this group, the only acceptable method of inserting an oral airway is to use a tongue blade to hold the tongue down. 10 airway respiratory When should you consult medical control about inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? You should consult medical control about this when a patient has sustained severe trauma to the head or face. 10 airway respiratory How much airflow and vacuum should a suctioning unit be able to generate? This should generate airflow of more than 40 L per minute, and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. 09 airway respiratory What is a suction catheter? This is a hollow cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient's airway. 10 airway respiratory How long should you suction a patient's mouth or nose? You should never do this for more than 15 seconds at a time for adults, 10 seconds for children, and 5 for infants. 09 airway respiratory What is the recovery position? This position is used to maintain a clear airway in an unconscious patient who is not injured and is breathing on his or her own with a normal respiratory rate and adequate tidal volume. The patient is rolled onto their left sidewith a hand underneath the head for support. Never put a patient in this position if you suspect spinal trauma. 10 airway respiratory What is the pin-indexing system? This is a system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas. 10 airway respiratory What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nasal cannula? This device has a flow rate of 1000 to 6000 mL per minute, and delivers 24% to 44% oxygen. 10 airway respiratory What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a nonre-breathing mask? This device has a flow rate of 10 to 15 L per minute, and delivers up to 90% oxygen. 10 airway respiratory What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a bag-mask device with reservoir? This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 100% oxygen. 10 airway respiratory What is the flow rate and percent of oxygen delivered for a mouth-to-mask device? This device has a flow rate of 15 litres per minute, and delivers nearly 55% oxygen. 10 airway respiratory What is a partial rebreathing mask? This is similar to a nonrebreathing mask except that there is no one-way valve between the mask and reservoir. Consequently, patients rebreathe a small amount of their exhaled air. This is advantageous for patients who you think are suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. You can easily convert a nonrebreathing mask to this by removing the one-way valve between the mask and the reservoir bag. 10 airway definition respiratory What is the nature of air movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation? Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
air is sucked into the lungs due to the negative intrathoracic created when the diaphragm contracts.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the lungs through a means of mechanical ventilation.
10 airway respiratory
What is the nature of blood movement in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
Normal breathing allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Intrathoracic pressure is increased, not allowing blood to be adequately pulled back to the heart. This causes the amount of blood pumnped by the heart to be reduced.
10 airway respiratory
What is the nature of airway wall pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
More volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. As a result, the walls are pushed out of their normal anatomic shape.
10 airway respiratory
What is the nature of esophageal opening pressure in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not affected during normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Air is forced into the stomach, causing gastric distention that could result in vomiting and aspiration.
10 airway respiratory
What is the nature of overventilation in normal ventilation versus positive-pressure ventilation?
Regarding this, in normal ventilation:
This is not typical of normal breathing.
Whereas in positive-pressure ventilation:
Forcing volume and rate results in increased intrathoracic pressure, gastric distention, and a decrease in cardiac output.
10 airway respiratory For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in adults? For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds. 10 airway breathing respiratory vitals For apneic patients with a pulse, what is the ventilation rate in children and infants? For these patients, the rate is 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds. 10 airway breathing respiratory vitals When should you use a bag-mask device? This should be used when you need to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients who not ventilating adequately. The device is also used for patients in respiratory arrest, cardiopulmonary arrest, and respiratory failure. You should use an oral or nasal airway adjunct. 10 airway respiratory What is the volume capability of the adult bag-mask device? The volume capability for this device is 1200 to 1600 mL. 10 airway respiratory What is the volume capability of the pediatric bag-mask device? The volume capability of this device is 500 to 700 mL. 10 airway respiratory What is the volume capability of the infant bag-mask device? The volume capability of this device is 150 to 240 mL. 10 airway respiratory What is a manually triggered ventilation device, AKA a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? This is a fixed flow/rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed. The major advantage of this device is that it allows a single rescuer to use both hand to maintain a mask-to-face seal. 10 airway respiratory What is compliance? This is the ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation. 10 airway respiratory What is CPAP? This is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress.
Indications for this include:
Patient must be alert and able to follow commands.
Patient is displaying obvious signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress from an underlying pathology, such as pulmonary edema or obstructive pulmonary disease.
The patient is breathing rapidly, such that it affects over-all minute volume.
And,
Pulse oximetry reading is less than 90%.

Contraindications include:
A patient who is in respiratory arrest.
Signs and symptoms of a pneumothorax or chest trauma.
Tracheostomy.
Active gastrointestinal bleeding or vomiting.
And,
The patient is unable to follow verbal commands.
10 airway respiratory What are the steps in the assessment process? This is divided into five main parts:
1) Scene size-up.
2) Primary assessment.
3) History taking.
4) Secondary assessment.
5) Reassessment
09 assessment Whether you are assessing a medical patient or trauma patient, what is the key in both situations? The key to both of these situations, whether medical or trauma, is to remain organized. 09 assessment How is the underlying condition or problem of a patient often revealed to you? It is frequently a combination of many signs and symptoms that reveals this to you. 09 assessment What is a symptom? This is a subjective condition that the patient feels and tells you about. 09 assessment What is a sign? This is an objective condition that you can observe about the patient. 09 assessment What is the minimum appropriate visibility gear? This is an American National Standards Institute 207 certified high-visibility public safety vest. 09 assessment What is the way you typically leave a scene? This is typically the exact same way you entered the scene. 09 assessment What is an important consideration for your patients in severe environmental conditions? With this, remember: You are obliged to provide protection for the patient. Consider the scene factors. 09 assessment What is mechanism of injury? This is the way in which traumatic injuries occur; the forces that act on the body to cause damage. 09 assessment overview What is the difference between 1) blunt trauma and 2) penetrating trauma?  With the first, the force of the injury occurs over a broad area, and the skin is usually not broken. However, the tissues and organs below the area of impact may be damaged.
With the second, the force of the injury occurs at a small point of contact between the skin and the object. The object pierces the skin and creates an open wound that carries a high potential for infection.
09 assessment What is nature of illness (NOI), how should you determine it, and what are some examples of it? This is the general type of illness a patient is experiencing. To quickly determine it, talk with the patient, family, or bystanders about the problem. But at the same time, use your senses to check the scene for clues as to the possible problem.
Examples of it include seizures, heart attacks, diabetic problems, and poisonings.
09 assessment What is Personal Protective Equipment (AKA PPE)? This is clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer. Which type to use will depend on the specific job duties required during a patient care interaction. 09 assessment What are standard precautions? These are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease. 09 assessment What is the incident command system? This is a system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualty incidents in which section chiefs - including finance, logistics, operations, and planning - report to the incident commander. 09 assessment What is triage? This is the process of sorting patients based on the severity of each patient's condition. 09 assessment What is primary assessment, and what are its stages? This is the second step in patient assessment. It begins when you greet your patient, and has a single goal: to identify and initiate treatment of immediate or potential life threats. It stages are:
1) Form a general impression.
2) Assess level of consciousness
3) Assess the airway: identify and treat life threats.
4) Assess the breathing: identify and treat life threats.
5) Assess circulation: identify and treat life threats.
6) Perform rapid scan.
And
7) Determine priority of patient care and transport.
09 assessment What is orientation? This tests mental status by checking a patient's memory and thinking ability. The most common ways to evaluate this in a patient is to test the patient's ability to remember:
1) Person - Remembering his or her name.
2) Place - Identifying the current location.
3) Time - Identifying the current year, month, and approximate date.
4) Event - Describing what happened (the MOI or NOI)
09 assessment On the Glascow Coma Scale, what are the scores for eye opening? On this scale:
4) Spontaneous opening.
3) In response to speech.
2) In response to pain
1) None
09 assessment On the Glascow Coma Scale, what are the scores for verbal response? On this scale:
5) Oriented conversation.
4) Confused conversation.
3) Inappropriate words.
2) Incomprehensible sounds.
1) None
09 assessment On the Glascow Coma Scale, what are the scores for motor response? On this scale:
6) Obeys commands.
5) Localizes pain.
4) Withdraws to pain.
3) Abnormal flexion.
2) Abnormal extension.
1) None.
09 assessment On the Glascow Coma Scale (AKA GCS), what are the score breakdowns?  On this scale:
13-15: May indicate mild dysfunction, although 15 is the score some with no neurologic disabilities would receive.
9-12: May indicate moderate dysfunction.
8 or less: Indicative of severe dysfunction.
09 assessment When a brighter light is introduced in one eye, what should happen? In this case, both pupils should constrict equally to the appropriate size. 09 assessment What is anisocoria? This is a condition in which patients exhibit unequal pupil size. If the patient or family cannot confirm the presence of this condition, you must assume the patient has depressed brain function.  09 assessment What can cause depressed brain function? This can be caused by:
Injury of the brain or brain stem.
Trauma or stroke.
Brain tumor.
Inadequate oxygenation or perfusion.
Drugs or toxins (central nervous system depressants)
09 assessment What do opiates do to pupils? These cause to pupils to constrict so significantly, regardless of light, that they become so small as to be described as pinpoint. 09 assessment drugs What might ICP do to the pupils? This might cause sufficient pressure against the oculomotor nerve on one side that the motor commands can no longer pass from the brain to that eye. When this occurs, the eye no longer receives commands to constrict, and its pupil becomes fully dilated and fixed. This is described as a blown pupil. 09 assessment What does PEARRL stand for? This stands for:
Pupils,
Equal And Round,
Regular in size,
and react to
Light.

09 abbreviations assessment mnemonic What are spontaneous breathing (AKA spontaneous respirations)? This is when a patient breathes without assistance. 09 assessment What is the ratio of inhalation and exhalation times? These occur in a 1:3 ratio. 09 assessment What is the information you must obtain to assess breathing, and what questions should you be asking yourself? When doing this, you must obtain:
Respiratory rate,
Rhythm (regular or irregular),
Quality or character of breathing,
and,
Depth of breathing.

You should be asking yourself:
Does the patient appear to be choking?
Is the rate too fast or too slow?
Are the respirations shallow or deep?
Is the patient cyanotic?
Do you hear abnormal sounds when listening to the lungs?
Is the patient moving air into and out of the lungs on both sides?
09 assessment A patient who coughs up thick, yellowish, or greenish sputum most likely has what? Patients with this sign likely have an advanced respiratory infection. 09 10 15 airway assessment breathing disease infection respiratory signs symptoms Where should you auscultate? Because you can almost always hear a patients breath sounds better from the back, do this there if the back is accessible. Do this over the apices (upper lungs), bases (lower lungs), and over the major airways. 09 assessment What are rales, AKA crackles? These are wet crackling sounds, usually on both inspiration and expiration. 09 assessment definition What are rhonchi? These are congested breath sounds and may suggest the presence of mucus in the lungs. Expect to hear low-pitched, noisy sounds that are most prominent on expiration. The patient often has a productive cough associated with these sounds. 09 assessment definition What are the accessory muscles? These include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoid), the chest pectoris majors, and the abdominal muscles. They aid in respiration. 09 airway anatomy assessment definition muscular respiratory What is nasal flaring? This is seen in pediatric patients with inadequate breathing. 09 assessment What is the tripod position? This is when a patient is sitting and leaning forward on outstreched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward; it indicates poor breathing. 09 assessment What is the sniffing position? This is commonly seen in children. The patient sits upright with the head and chin thrust slightly forward, and the patient appears to be sniffing. 09 assessment What is the normal pulse rate for infants (1 month to 1 year)? This is 100 to 160 beats per minute. 09 assessment What is the normal pulse rate for toddlers (1 to 3 years)? This is 90 to 150 beats per minute. 09 assessment What is the normal pulse rate for preschool chldren (3 to 6 years)? This is 80 to 140 beats per minutes. 09 assessment What is the normal pulse rate for school age children (6 to 12 years)? This is 70 to 120 beats per minute. 09 assessment What is the normal pulse rate for adolescents (12 to 18 years) and adults? This is 60 to 100 beats per minute. 09 assessment What is the sclera? This is the normally white portion of the eye. 09 assessment Where should you determine capillary refill in newborns and young infants? Press on the forehead, chin, or sternum to determine capillary refill in these patients. 09 assessment How long should the rapid scan of the patient take? This should take 60 to 90 seconds. 09 assessment What conditions are examples of conditions that indicate high-priority patients who need to be transported immediately? These conditions are:
Difficulty breathing,
Poor general impression,
Unresponsive with no gag or cough reflex,
Severe chest pain,
Pale skin or other signs of poor perfusion,
Uncontrolled bleeding,
Responsive but unable to follow commands,
Severe pain in any area of the body,
Inability to move any part of the body,
And,
Complicated childbirth.
09 assessment definition reflex What is the Golden Period and the Platinum 10? The first refers to the time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best. Second refers to the ideal time to assess, stabilize, package, and begin transport. 09 assessment definition Which patients benefit from remaining on scene and receiving continuing care? An older patient with chest pain administered nitrogylcerin on scene and waiting for an ALS is an example of this. 09 assessment What is the chief complaint? This is the reason the patient or someone else called 9-1-1 09 assessment NKA no known allergies 09 abbreviations allergy assessment What are pertinent negatives? These are findings that warrant no care or intervention. They also indicate that a thorough and complete examination and history were performed. 09 assessment definition When should you use close-ended questions? Use these when patients say nothing or very little. Also note their silence is a clue to the patient's chief complaint. 09 assessment What should you always remember when determing the nature of the chief complaint? Remember that there may be a number of possible medical or traumatic causes for this. 09 assessment What is one of the most common causes of confusion? One of the most common causes of this is hypoxia. 09 assessment What is one way to deal with hearing impaired patients? One way to deal with this is to use your stethoscope to function like a hearing aid; have the patient place the stethoscope in his or her ears and speak into the stethoscope bell, which will amplify the sound. 09 assessment What is the purpose of the secondary assessment? The purpose of this is to perform a systematic physical examination of the patient. It may be a head-to-toe, full body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a a certain area or region of the body. 09 assessment definition What is crepitus? This is the sound of joints rubbing together. 09 assessment What is a sphygmomanometer? This is a blood pressure cuff. 09 assessment What is capnography? This is a noninvasive method that can quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism. 09 assessment What is capnometry? This is the use of a capnometer, a device that measures the amount of expired carbon dioxide. 09 assessment What is a full-body scan? This is a systematic head-to-toe examination. 09 assessment What is a focused assessment? This is generally performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant MOIs or on responsive medical patients. It is based on the chief complaint. 09 assessment What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults? This is 90 to 140 mm Hg (systolic). 09 assessment What is the normal range for blood pressure in children (1 to 8 years old)? This is 80 to 110 mm Hg (systolic). 09 assessment What is the normal range for blood pressure in infants (newborn to 1 year)? This is 50 to 95 mm Hg (systolic). 09 assessment What is subcutaneous emphysema? This is a crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin. 09 assessment What is the reassessment phase? This is performed at regular intervals and is to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition. 09 assessment What should you do if the patient's condition improves? If this happens, continue whatever treatments you are providing. 09 assessment definition What is pharmacology? This is the science of drugs. 11 pharmacology What is pharmacodynamics? This is the process by which a medication works on the body. 11 pharmacology What is an agonist? This is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. 11 pharmacology What is an antagonist? This is medication that binds to a receptor and block other medications. 11 pharmacology What is a medication's action? This is the therapeutic effect or intended effect it is expected to have on the body. 11 pharmacology What should you remember about doses in the elderly population? These may also need to be decreased for this population because they cannot process medications as efficiently as others. 11 pharmacology What are indication? These are the reasons or conditions for which a particular medication is given. 11 definition pharmacology What are contraindications? These are reasons or conditions for which a particular medication should not be given, even if it usually is indicated for that person's condition. 11 definition pharmacology What are side effects? These are any actions of a medication other than the desired ones. 11 definition pharmacology What are unintended effects? These are the effects that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient. 11 definition pharmacology What are untoward effects? These are the effects that can be harmful to the patient. 11 definition pharmacology What is the difference between a medication's generic name and its trade name? The first is a simple, clear, nonproprietary name. The second is the brand name; as a proper noun, it begins with a capital letter. 11 pharmacology What are OTC medications? These are medications that can be purchased without a prescription. 11 definition pharmacology What are enteral medications? These are medications that enter the body through the digestive system. 11 definition pharmacology What are parenteral medications? These are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes. These are absorbed much more quickly and offer a more predictable and measurable dose. 11 definition pharmacology What is absorption? This is the process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream. 11 pharmacology What is the per retum (PR) route of administration? This is medication administrated by the rectum. It is most commonly used with children and patients who cannot swallow or are unconscious. 11 definition pharmacology What is the intravenous (IV) route of administration? This is medication administed into the vein. This is the fastest way to deliver a chemical substance. 11 pharmacology What is the intraosseous (IO) route of administration? This is medication delivered into the bone, reaching the bloodstream via the bone marrow. This is very painful, and so this route is used most often in patients who are unconscious as a result of cardiac arrest or extreme shock, as well as children who have fewer available IV sites. 11 definition pharmacology What is the subcutaneous (SC or SQ) route of administration? This is medication delivered beneath the skin as an injection into the tissue between the skin and muscle. Because there is less blood here than in the muscles, medications that are given by this route are generally absorbed more slowly, and their effects last longer. Daily insulin injections for patients with diabetes are given this way, as well as some forms of epinephrine. 11 definition pharmacology What is the intramuscular (IM) route of administration? This is medication administered into the muscle. Usually, medications given this way are absorbed quickly because muscles have a lot of blood vessels. Possible problems with this method are damage to muscle tissue and uneven, unreliable absorption, especially in people with decreased tissue perfusion. Auto-injectors frequently use this method. 11 definition pharmacology What is the inhalation route of administration? This is medication inhaled into the lungs so that they can be absorbed into the bloodstream more quickly, or so they work in the lungs. Generally, this minimizes the effects of the medication in other body tissues. 11 pharmacology What is the sublingual (SL) route of administration? This is medication administered under the tongue. The medication enters through the oral mucosa under the tongue and are absorbed into the bloodstream within minutes. This method is faster than the oral route, and it protects medications from chemicals in the digestive system, such as acids that can weaken or inactivate them. 11 definition pharmacology What is the transcutaneous, or transdermal route of administration? This is medication administered through the skin, and usually have longer-lasting effects. Nicotine patches or adhesive patches containing nitroglycerin are examples of this. 11 definition pharmacology What is the intranasal (IN) route of administration? This is medication administered into the nostril, typically via a specialized atomizer device called a Mucosal Atomizer Device (AKA M.A.D.). Blood flow to the head and face is very high; therefore, absorption is rather quick with this route. Naloxone can be administered to some overdose patients via this route. 11 pharmacology What is a solution? This is a liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. 11 pharmacology What is a suspension? This is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. It is very important that you shake or swirl a suspesion before administering it to ensure that the patient receives the right amount of medication. 11 definition pharmacology What is a metered-dose inhaler (A.K.A. an MDI)? This is a miniature spray canister used to direct such substances through the mouth and into the lungs. It delivers the same amount of medication each time it is used, and must be shaken vigorously before the medication is administered. 11 pharmacology What are topical medications? These are lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin. 11 definition pharmacology "What are the ""Six Rights"" of medication administration?" These are:
1) Right patient,
2) Right medication,
3) Right dose,
4) Right route,
5) Right time,
and 6) Right documentation
11 pharmacology What is the echo technique? This is repeating the order you receive from the physician for the administration of a medication. It is essential that you do this anytime you receive an order from a physician. 11 pharmacology What are the 3 circumstances for administering medication? These are:
1) peer-assisted medication (administering medication to yourself or your partner)
2) patient-assisted medication (assisting the patient with the administration of his or her own medication)
and,
3) EMT-administered medication (directly administering the medication to the patient.
11 pharmacology What are the medications that may be administered by EMTs (depending of course on local protocol)? These medications are:
Oxygen,
Activated charcoal,
Oral glucose,
Aspirin,
Epinephrine auto-injector,
Meter-dose inhaler medications,
and,
Nitroglycerin.
11 pharmacology What is Lipitor AKA atorvastatin used for? This is used to lower cholesterol. 11 pharmacology What is montelukast AKA Singulair used for? This is used to help prevent asthma attacks. 11 pharmacology What is escitalopram AKA Lexapro used for? This is used to treat depression. 11 pharmacology What is esomeprazole AKA Nexium used for? This is used to treat gastric reflux. 11 pharmacology What is levothyroxine AKA Synthroid used for? This is used to treat decreased thyroid functioning. 11 pharmacology What is clopidogrel AKA Plavix used for? This is used to prevent stroke and heart attack. 11 pharmacology What is metroprolol AKA Toprol used for? This is used to lower blood pressure. 11 pharmacology What is lansoprazole AKA Prevacid used for? This is used to treat stomach ulcers. 11 pharmacology What is ezetimibe and simvastatin AKA Vytorin AKA Zetia used for? This is used to lower cholesterol. 11 pharmacology What is fluticasone and salmeterol AKA Advair Diskus used for? This is used to treat asthma. 11 pharmacology What is cetirizine AKA Zyrtec used for? This is used to treat allergies. 11 pharmacology What is venlafaxine AKA Effexor used for? This is used to treat depression. 11 pharmacology What is pantoprazole AKA Protonix used for? This is used to treat gastic reflux. 11 pharmacology What is valsartan AKA Diovan used for? This is used to treat high blood pressure. 11 pharmacology What is alendronate AKA Fosamax used for? This is used to treat osteoporosis. 11 pharmacology What is potassium chloride AKA Klor-Con used for? This is used to treat low potassium levels. 11 pharmacology What is valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide AKA Diovan HCT used for? This is used to treat hypertension. 11 pharmacology What is levofloxacin AKA Levaquin? This is an antibiotic. 11 pharmacology What is polypharmacy? This refers to the use of multiple medications by one person. 11 pharmacology What is a common bronchodilator? A common kind of this medication is albuterol (AKA Proventil or Ventolin). 11 pharmacology What is another name for asthma? This is also known as reactive airway disease. 11 pharmacology What is the standard dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector? The standard dose for this is 0.3 mg. 11 pharmacology What is epinephrine (AKA adrenaline), and what are its characteristics? This is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response and is the primary medication EMTs will administer IM. It is sympathomimetic, meaning it mimics the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
Characteristics of this chemical are:
Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands.
Dilates passages in the lungs.
Constricts blood vessels, causing increased blood pressure.
Increases heart rate and blood pressure.

Contraindication for this include:
hypertension,
hypothermia,
myocardial infarction,
and,
no sign of wheezing or hypotension
11 pharmacology What is nitroglycerin? The purpose of this is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to dilate. It does this by relaxing the muscular walls of the coronary arteries and veins. Always take the patient's blood pressure before administering this; if systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, do not administer this medication.
Contraindications for this include:
sildenafil (Viagra), tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra), or any other medications that are used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction taken in the previous 24 hours.
11 pharmacology What is the standard dose for nitroglycerin? The standard dose for this is .4 mg / pill. 11 pharmacology How long should you wait between doses of nitroglycerin? You should wait 5 minutes before administering another dose of this. 11 pharmacology What is aspirin (A.K.A. acetylsalicylic acid or A.S.A.)? This is an antipyretic (fever reducer), analgesic (reduces pain), and anti-inflammatory medication that also inhibits platelet aggregation. Taken during a heart attack, this may prove lifesaving. It should not be given to children during episodes of fever-causing illness due to its association with Reye syndrome (which causes swelling in the brain and liver). 11 pharmacology What is adsorption? This means to bind or stick to a surface. 11 pharmacology What is the usual dose for activated charcoal? This is usually 1 to 2 grams per kilogram of body weight. 11 pharmacology As an EMT, what is the only way you can administer oral glucose? As an EMT, you can only administer this orally. 11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Acetaminophen / Tylenol? For this medication:
Action: Analgesic and antifever
Indications: Relief of mild pain or fever, headache, and muscle aches
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Allergic reaction
Interactions: Caution must be taken when EMTs are administering this to avoid potential overdosing.
Adult dose: 500 to 1000 mg every 4 hours as needed; dose is weight based for children.
Administration concerns: Weight of child is more important than age.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of activated charcoal / actidose with Sorbitol? For this medication:
Action: Adsorbs toxic substances in the digestive tract.
Indications: Most oral poisonings; overdose.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness; overdose of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances.
Routes: PO.
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, constipation, black stool.
Interactions: Bonds with and inactivates most medications / substance in the digestive tract.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 grams per kilogram
Administration concerns: Stains; protect patient and provider clothing; do not give when giving other PO medications.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Aspirin / Bayer? For this medication:
Action: Anti-inflammatory agent and anti-fever agent; prevents platelets from clumping, thereby decreasing formation of new clots.
Indications: Relief of mild pain, headache, muscle aches, chest pain when considering myocardial infarction.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, recent bleeding.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Caution should be used in patients who are taking anticoagulants.
Adult dose: 160 to 325 mg for chest pain.
Administration concerns: Do not administer for pain cause by trauma or for fevers in children; patients with chest pain must be able to chew tablets.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Albuterol / Proventil, Ventolin? For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Asthma / difficulty breathing with wheezing.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity, tachycardia, myocardial infarction.
Routes: MDI / inhalation.
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 to 2 inhalations; wait 5 minutes before repeating dose.
Administration concerns: Patient must inhale all medication in 1 breath; coach patient to hold breath for 5 seconds after inhalation.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of diphenhydramine / Benadryl? For this medication:
Action: Antihistamine.
Indications: Mild allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Asthma, glaucoma, pregnancy, hypertension, infants.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Sleepiness, dry mouth, and throat.
Interactions: Do not take with alcohol or MAO inhibitors (a type of psychiatric medication).
Adult dose: 25 to 50 mg.
Administration concerns: Can use in severe allergic reaction; however, epinephrine is administered first.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of Epinephrine / EpiPen? For this medication:
Action: Stimulates nervous system, causing bronchodilation.
Indications: Severe allergic reactions.
Contraindications: Myocardial infarction, hypothermia, hypertension.
Routes: IM (auto-injector).
Side Effects: Hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness.
Interactions: Increases effects of other nervous system stimulants.
Adult dose: 1 auto-injector.
Administration concerns: Medication will last approximately 5 minutes; do not repeat dose; ensure ALS is en route for continuing treatment.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of ibuprofen / Advil, Motrin, Nuprin? For this medication:
Action: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that reduces inflammation and fever, analgesic.
Indications: Mild pain or fever, headache, muscle aches.
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, allergic reactions.
Interactions: Do not take with aspirin.
Adult dose: 200 to 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours; dose is weight based in children.
Administration concerns: Do not take for pain caused by trauma; weight of child is more important than age.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of nitroglycerin / Nitrostat? For this medication:
Action: Dilates blood vessels.
Indications: Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.
Contraindications: Hypotension, having taken sildenafil (Viagra) or another treatment for erectile dysfunction with the past 24 hours; head injury.
Routes: SL / Spray.
Side Effects: Headache, burning under tongue, hypotension, nausea.
Interactions: Increases dilating effects of other blood vessel-dilating medications.
Adult dose: 0.3 to 0.4 mg SL; 0.4 mg spray.
Administration concerns: Ensure ALS is en route.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oral glucose / Glutose? For this medication:
Action: When absorbed, provides glucose for cell use.
Indications: Hypoglycemia.
Contraindications: Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting.
Routes: PO
Side Effects: Nausea, vomiting.
Interactions: None.
Adult dose: 1/2 to 1 tube.
Administration concerns: Patient must have control of airway and be awake and able to follow commands.
11 pharmacology What are the action, indications, contraindications, routes, sides effects, interactions, adult dose, and administration concerns of oxygen? For this medication:
Action: Reverses hypoxia, provides oxygen to be absorbed by lungs.
Indications: Hypoxia or suspected hypoxia.
Contraindications: Very rarely in patients with C.O.P.D.
Routes: Gas / Inhalation.
Side Effects: Decreased respiratory effort in rare cases in patients with C.O.P.D.
Interactions: Can support combustion.
Adult dose: Use oxygen delivery to administer 28% to 100% oxygen.
Administration concerns: No open flames nearby; do not withhold oxygen from patients in respiratory distress.
11 pharmacology What is a neonate? This is a baby from birth to 1 month. 06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of neonates (0 to 1 month)? For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 180;
Respirations: 30 to 60;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 50 to 70;
and,
Temperature: 98 to 100° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of infants (1 month to 1 year)? For this group:
Pulse: 100 to 160;
Respirations: 25 to 50;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 70 to 95;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of toddler (1 to 3 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 90 to 150;
Respirations: 20 to 30;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 96.8 to 99.6° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of preschool age children (3 to 6 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 80 to 140;
Respirations: 20 to 25;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 100;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of school age children (6 to 12 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 70 to 120;
Respirations: 15 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 80 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of early adults (19 to 40 years) and middle adults (41 to 60 years)? For these groups:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 140;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What are the pulse rate, respirations, systolic blood pressure, and temperature of adolescents (12 to 18 years)? For this group:
Pulse: 60 to 100;
Respirations: 12 to 20;
Systolic Blood Pressure: 90 to 110;
and,
Temperature: 98.6° Farenhait
06 development lifespan What is the general rule for age and pulse rates / respirations? The general rule is: the younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations. 06 development lifespan What is the tidal volume in neonates? In this age group, the tidal volume is 6 to 8 mL per kg. 06 development lifespan How much does a neonate usually weigh at birth, what percent of their weight does their head account for, and how much weight do they gain as they develop? This group usually weighs 6 to 8 lbs (3 to 3.5 kg) at birth, with the head accounting for 25% of its body weight. In the first week, 5% to 10% of their birth weight is lost due to fluid loss. I n the second week, they start growing at a rate of about 30g a day. 06 development lifespan What are some important considerations regarding a neonate's pulmonary system? "In the group:
1) Their first breath is forceful, as they must inflate their lungs.
2) This group is particularly prone to nasal congestion, which causes upper respiratory infections. If you recieve a call for choking, make sure the nasal passages are clear and unobstructed by mucus.
3) Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. This explains their diaphragmatic breathing (AKA ""belly breathing"").
" 06 development lifespan neonatal respiratory What is barotrauma? This is trauma resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs. 06 development lifespan What is the moro reflex? This (AKA startle reflex) is when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone; the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things. 06 development lifespan reflex What is the palmer grasp? This is an infant reflex; when an is object is placed in their palm, they grasp at the object. 06 development lifespan reflex What is the rooting reflex? This takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek; the neonate will instinctively turn his or her head toward the touch. 06 development lifespan reflex What is the sucking reflex? This occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked. 06 development lifespan reflex What are fontanelles? These are areas where the infat's skull has not fused together; the posterior fuses by the third month; the anterior between 9 and 18 months. 06 development lifespan If an infant's fontanelles' is depressed or bulging, what does that mean? If these are depressed, the infant is most likely dehydrated.
These bulging is indicative of increased intracranial pressure.
06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 2 months? At this age, the infant can recognize familar faces, and is able to track objects with their eyes. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 3 months? At this age, the infant can bring objects to the mouth, and can smile and frown. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 4 months? At this age, the infant can reach out to people and drool. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 5 months? At this age, the infant can sleep through the night, and can tell family from strangers. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 6 months? At this age, teething begins; the infant can sit upright in a chair, and one-syllable words are spoken. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 7 months? At this age, the infant is afraid of strangers, and has mood swings. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 8 months? "At this age, the infant responds to ""no"", can sit alone, and plays peek-a-boo." 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 9 months? At this age, the infant can pull himself or herself up, and places objects in mouth to explore them, 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 10 months? At this age, the infant responds to his or her name, and crawls efficiently. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 11 months? At this age, the infant starts to walk without help, and can be frustrated with restrictions. 06 development lifespan What are the noticeable characteristics of an infant at 12 months? At this age, the infant knows his or her name, and can walk. 06 development lifespan What a secure attachment? "This occurs when an infant understands that parents or caregivers will be responsive to his or her needs. This realization encourages a child to reach out and explore, knowing that the parents will provide a ""safety net""." 06 development lifespan What is anxious-avoidant attachment? In this attachment style, children show little emotional response to their parents or caregivers and treat them as they would strangers. These children develop an isolated lifestyle where they do not have to depend on the support and care of others. 06 development lifespan What are some physical developments in toddlers and preschoolers? In these age groups:
1) The children do not have well-developed lung musculature. This anomaly prevents them from sustaining deep or rapid respirations for an extended period of time.
2) They lose passive immunity and acquire their own immunity as the body is exposed to various viruses and germs.
3) The average age for completion of toilet training is 28 months of age.
06 development lifespan At what age do children transition from using language to communicate what they want to using language creatively and playfully. This transition occurs by the age of 3 or 4. 06 development lifespan How much do most school age children grow each year? This group grows about 4 lbs (2 kg) and 2 1/2 inches (6 cm) each year. 06 development lifespan What is pre-conventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. 06 development lifespan What is conventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children look for approval from their peers and society. 06 development lifespan What is postconventional reasoning? In this stage of development, children make decisions guided by their conscience. 06 development lifespan What is atherosclerosis? In this disorder, cholesterol and calcium build-up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque. More than 60% of people older than 65 years ahve atherosclerotic disease. 06 development lifespan What happens to the respiratory system of late adults? In this group:
1) The size of the airway increases.
2) The surface of the alveoli decreases.
and
3) Factors such as loss of respiratory muscle mass and an increased stiffness of the thoracic cage leads to up to a 50% decresse of vital capacity by age 75.
06 development lifespan What happens to the endocrine system of late adults? In this group:
As a person gains weight, more insulin is need to control the body's metabolism and blood glucose level. The pancreas may not be able to produce enough insulin for the person's body size, which can lead to diabetes mellitus.
06 development lifespan What happens to the digestive system of late adults? In this group:
Blood flow may drop by as much as 50%, decreasing the ability of the intestines to extract vitamins and minerals from digested food.
06 development lifespan What happens to the renal system of late adults? In this group:
1) The filtration function of the kidneys declines by 50% from age 20 to age 90.
2) Kidney mass decreases by 20% over the same span.
3) The number of nephrons (capillaries that perform filtering in the kidney) also decreases, which leads to a decrease in the ability to clear wastes from the body.
06 development lifespan What happens to the nervous system of late adults? In this group:
1) The brain may shrink 10% to 20% by age 80, increasing the possibility of internal trauma.
2) The number of neurons (brain cells) declines over one's lifetime.
3) The peripheral nervous system also slows with age.
06 development lifespan What is the terminal drop hypothesis? This is a theory that a person's mental function declines in the last five years of life. 06 development lifespan What percentage of single women of 60 years of age or older live at or below the poverty line in the United States. More than 50% of this group live at or below the poverty line in the United States. 06 development lifespan What is topographic anatomy? This is the landmarks of the surface of the body used to orient treatment. 06 anatomy What is the anatomic position? This is a position of reference in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward. To be consistent, health care providers use the patient's left and right as reference point. 06 anatomy What are the three planes of the body? These are:
1) Frontol (coronal) plane - Anterior vs. posterior.
2) Transverse (horizontal) plane - Superior vs. inferior.
and
3) Sagittal plane - medial vs. lateral.
06 anatomy What is the opposite of superficial (closest to the surface of the skin)? The opposite of this is deep (farthest from the surface of the skin). 06 anatomy What is the palmar surface? This is another term for the palm. 06 anatomy What is the plantar surface? This is another term for the bottom of the foot. 06 anatomy What is the apex (plural apices)? This is the tip of a structure. 06 anatomy What is flexion? This is the bending of a joint. 06 anatomy What is extension? This is the straightening of a joint. 06 anatomy What is adduction? This is motion toward the midline. 06 anatomy What is abduction? This is motion away from the midline. 05 anatomy definition terminology What does it mean if something is said to occur unilaterally? This means something appears on only one side of the body. 06 anatomy What are ligaments? These connect bones to other bones. 06 anatomy What are tendons? These connect muscles to bones. 06 anatomy What is cartilage? This is the soft, semiflexible material that is found within the joints and serves as cushioning. 06 anatomy What is the axial skeleton? This forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung. It is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cavity, and vertebral column. 06 anatomy What is the appendicular skeleton? This is composed of the arms and legs, their connective points, and the pelvis. 06 anatomy How many bones are there in the body? There are 206 of these. 06 anatomy What is the foramen magnum? This is a large opening at the base of the skull. 06 anatomy What are the maxillae? These are the upper, non-moveable jawbones. 06 anatomy What are the zygomas? These are the cheekbones. 06 anatomy What is the orbit? This is the eye socket. 06 anatomy How many vertebrae are there in the body? There are 33 of these in the body. 06 anatomy What are the five sections of the spine, and how many vertebrae in each? These are the:
1) Cervical - 7
2) Thoracic - 12
3) Lumbar - 5
4) Sacrum - 5
5) Coccyx - 4
06 anatomy How many pairs of ribs are there in the body? There are 12 pairs of these. 06 anatomy What is the sternum? This is the midline of the chest. It's bordered superiorly by the easily palpable jugular notch. It has three components: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.  06 anatomy What is the xiphoid process. This is a narrow, cartilaginous tip which forms the inferior part of the sternum. 06 anatomy What is the shoulder girdle? This is where three bones (the clavicle, scapula, and humerus) come together, allowing the arm to be moved. 06 anatomy definition skeletal What is the clavicle? This overlies the superior boundaries of the thorax in fonrt and articulates posteriorly with the scapula. 06 anatomy definition skeletal What is the scapula? This lies in the muscular tissue of the posterior thoracic wall. 06 anatomy skeletal What two bones compose the forearm? This is composed of the ulna (medial, larger in the proximal) and radius (lateral, larger in the distal). 06 anatomy skeletal What bones make up the pelvis? This is made up of the sacrum and the two pelvic bones, each of which is formed by the fusion of three separate bones, the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis, joined posteriorly by the sacrum. 06 anatomy skeletal What is the pubis symphysis? This is a hard and bony cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowest portion of the abdomen, where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion. 06 anatomy What is the acetabulum? "This is the part of the pelvis where the lower leg connects, the ""socket"" in which the ""ball"" of the femur fits." 06 anatomy What is the greater trochanter? This is the projection on the lateral / superior portion of the femur. 06 anatomy skeletal What is the lesser trochanter? This is the medial / superior portion of the femur. 06 anatomy skeletal What is the patella? This is the kneecap. 06 anatomy skeletal What is the tibia (shine bone)? This is the larger bone of lower leg. It lies in the anterior of the leg. 06 anatomy What is the fibula? This is the smaller of the bones in the lower leg. It lies on the lateral side of the leg. 06 anatomy What is joint capsules? These are fibrous sacs composed of ligaments at the end of bones, and assist in flexion. 06 anatomy What is the synovial membrane? This is special tissue on the inner lining of the joint capsule that is responsible for making a thick lubricant called synovial fluid. This fluid allows the ends of bones to glide over each other as opposed to grating. 06 anatomy What is the difference between ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints? The first allows rotation and bending (as in the shoulder joint), while the second restricts motion to one plane (as in the knee). 06 anatomy What is the skeletal system responsible for? This is resonsible for:
1) giving the body shape.
2) providing protection of fragile organs.
3) allowing for movement.
And,
4) helping with the creation of various types of blood cells.
06 anatomy How many different muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system? There are over 600 of these. 06 anatomy What are skeletal muscles (AKA voluntary muscles)? These attach to the bones of the skeleton and forms the major muscle mass of the body. They are under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be stimulated to contract or relax at will. 06 anatomy What is smooth muscle? This is found within blood vessels and intestines. 06 anatomy What is cardiac muscle? This is found only within the heart. 06 anatomy What is the epiglottis? These is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that protects the opening of the trachea. 06 anatomy What is the location and function of the biceps? This is located anterior to the humerus,
and,
flexes the lower arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the triceps? This is located posterior to the humerus,
and,
extends the lower arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the pectoralis? This is located anterior to the thorax,
and,
flexes and rotates the arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the latissimus dorsi? This is located posterior to the thorax,
and,
extends and rotates the arm.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the rectus abdominis? This is located anterior to the abdomen,
and,
flexes and rotates the spine.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the tibialis anterior? This is located anterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes towards the heads.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the gastrocnemius? This is located posterior to the tibia,
and,
points toes away from the head.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the quadriceps? This is located anterior to the femur,
and,
extends the lower leg.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the biceps femoris? This is located posterior to the femur,
and,
flexes the lower leg.
06 anatomy What is the location and function of the gluteus? This is located posterior to the pelvis,
and,
extends and rotates the leg.
06 anatomy What is another name for the larynx? Another name for this is the voice box. 06 anatomy What is the cricothyroid membrane? This lies between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage. It can be felt as a depression in the midline of the neck just inferior to the thyroid cartilage. 06 anatomy What kind of muscle is the diaphragm?
This is unique because it has characteristics of skeletal and smooth muscle. 06 anatomy How does the body detect decreased blood pressure, and what will it do as a result? The body detects this situation by the baroreceptors, and will initiate the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. 06 anatomy What is the V/Q ratio? This examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is gaining access to the alveoli. 06 anatomy What is pathophysiology? This is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular disease. 06 anatomy What is normal physiologic pH? This is normally between 7.35 and 7.45 pH. 06 anatomy What is sodium bicarbonate? This is an alkaline and helps to buffer or neutralize the acidic waste products of the cells. 06 anatomy What is lactic acid? This is the metabolic end product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (AKA anaerobic respiration). 06 anatomy What is the endocrine system? This is a complex message and control system that uses hormones to stimulate the body. 06 anatomy In a healthy adult, what percent of total body weight is delivered as fluid daily to the gastrointestinal tract? About 7% of this is delivered. If significant vomiting or diarrhea occurs for more than 2 or 3 days, the person will lose a substantial portion of body composition and become severely ill. 06 anatomy gastrointestinal value What are enzymes? These are substance catalysts designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions. 06 anatomy What are hormones? These are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. They regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature. 06 anatomy What is bile? This is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and emptied as needed into the duodenum. Its major function is the digestion of fat. 06 anatomy What is chyme? This is ingested food converted in the stomach into a thoroughly mixed semisolid mass. 06 anatomy How much saliva is produced daily? Approximately 1.5 litres of this is produced daily. 06 anatomy What is the average stroke volume (SV) of an adult heart? This is 70 to 80 mL each on average. 06 anatomy What is the average cardiac output (CO) of an adult? This is 5 to 6 litres. 06 anatomy What are the two electrical processes associated with the mechanical contraction of the heart? These are:
1) depolarization, when the electrical charge on the muscle cell surface changes from positive to negative.
And,
2) repolarization, when the heart returns to its resting state and positive charge is restored to the surface.
06 anatomy What is the path of the electrical impulse that produces the a smooth flow of electricity through the heart? This begins high in the atria at the sinoatrial node, then travels to the atrioventricular node bundle of His, and moves through the Purkinje fivers to the ventricles. 06 anatomy What is the chordae tendineae? These are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. 06 anatomy What is the tunica media? This is the middle layer of the artery, and is where the smooth muscles are found that can contract and dilate to change the diameter of the blood vessels. 06 anatomy What are the coronary arteries? These supply the heart. 06 anatomy What are the carotid arteries? These supply the head. 06 anatomy What are the hepatic arteries? These supply the liver with blood. 06 anatomy What are the renal arteries? These supply the kidneys with blood. 06 anatomy What are the mesenteric arteries? These supply the digestive system with blood. 06 anatomy What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)? This is the resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels. 06 anatomy How much blood is in the spleen at any one time? Approximately 450 mL of blood is in this organ at any one time. Virtually all the blood in the body passes through here during the day, where it is filtered. 06 anatomy What is blood plasma composed of? This is composed of:
92% water,
7% proteins such as albumin which regulates oncotic pressure,
and
the final 1% is oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, nutrients, cellular wastes, and other cellular products.
06 anatomy How much blood does a child have in their body? This group has approximately 2 to 3 litres, depending on their age and size. 06 anatomy How much blood does an infant have in their body? This group has only about 300 mL in their body. 06 anatomy How much blood is in the heart, arteries, and capillaries versus the veins and venules? The ratio is approximately 30% in the former group, and 70% in the later group. 06 anatomy What is interstitial space? This is the space between cells. 06 anatomy What are alpha-adrenergic receptors? These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause constriction of blood vessels. 06 anatomy What are beta-adrenergic receptors? These are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of the contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation. 06 anatomy What are the three parts of the brain stem? These are:
1) the midbrain,
2) the pons,
and 3) the medulla oblongata.
06 anatomy What is the parasympathetic nervous system? This is the other half of the autonomic nervous system and generally slow down the body. 06 anatomy What are the 2 layers of the skin?s These are:
1) The epidermis; at its base is the germinal layer, which continuously produces new cells.
2) The dermis; the sweat glands, sebaceous (oil) glands, hair follices, blood vessels, and specialized nerve endings are located here.
06 anatomy How long does it take for cells produced in the germinal layer to rise to the stratum corneal layer? This journey takes about 4 weeks. 06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)? For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes inspiration when stimulated.
Timing: Normal, resting respirations; rhythmic, mechanical pattern.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)? For this:
Location: Medulla.
Function: Causes expiration or inspiration.
Timing: Speech, increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the Pneumotaxic (pontine) center? For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Inhibits the DRG; increases speed and depth of respirations.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the apneustic center? For this:
Location: Pons.
Function: Excites the DRG; prolongs inspiration, decreases rate.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex (stretch reflex)? For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects lung expansion to a point and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy reflex What is the location, function, and timing of the Hering-Breuer deflation reflex? For this:
Location: Chest.
Function: Detects potential lung collapse and then tells VGR and pneumotaxic and apneustic centers to stop.
Timing: Increased emotional or physical stress.
06 anatomy reflex What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the adrenal gland? For this gland:
Location: Above the kidneys.
Function: Stress response, fight or flight.
Hormones produced: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the ovary? For this gland:
Location: Female pelvis.
Function: Regulates sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Estrogen and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pancreas? For this gland:
Location: Retroperitoneal space.
Function: Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions.
Hormones produced: Insulin and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the parathyroid? For this gland:
Location: Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)
Function: Regulates serum calcium.
Hormones produced: Parathyroid hormone.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the pituitary gland? For this gland:
Location: Base of skull.
Function: Regulates all other endocrine glands.
Hormones produced: Multiple, controls other endocrine glands.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the testes? For this gland:
Location: Male scrotum.
Function: Regulate sexual function, characteristics, and reproduction.
Hormones produced: Testosterone and others.
06 anatomy What is the location, function, and hormone produced in the thyroid? For this gland:
Location: Neck (over the larynx).
Function: Regulates metabolism.
Hormones produced: Thyroxine and others.
06 anatomy What is one example of an additional skill that an AEMT can perform that a standard EMT-B cannot? One example of this is esophageal-tracheal intubation. 01 EMS systems What are the responsibilities of the medical director? This person uses their license to allow EMT-Bs to provide prehospital care, and is responsible for the quality of treatment given. They are also responsible for ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training, ensuring the appropriate standards are met by EMT-Bs, and serving as liaison with the medical community. 01 EMS systems What are standing orders? "These are specific policies issued by a medical director that authorizes an EMT to perform particular skills in certain situations (for example: ""if a patient has a blood sugar below 60, administer oral glucose"")." 01 EMS systems What does continuous quality improvement (AKA CQI) involve? This involves:
Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director.
Discussion of needs for improvement.
And,
Periodic reviews of run reports.
01 EMS systems Who is responsible for maintaining quality control? This responsibility ultimately rests with the medical director. 01 EMS systems What is always an EMT-Bs first priority during a call? This is always personal safety. 01 EMS systems What are some essential skills an EMT-B needs to learn? Some examples of this include:
Verbal and written communication skills.
Dealing with medical, legal, and ethical situations,
and,
Delivering a baby.
01 EMS systems "What are the ten standards identified by the ""Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards"" provided by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration?" These are:
1) regulation and policy,
2) resource management,
3) human resources and training,
4) transportation,
5) facilities,
6) communications,
7) public information and education,
8) medical direction,
9) trauma systems,
and
10) evaluation.
01 EMS systems What is online medical control? This is when you are in direct contact with a doctor concerning the current patient. 01 EMS systems What is another term for medical direction? Another term for this is medical control. 01 EMS systems What is the list of steps taken in different situations, and developed by a medical director, called? These are referred to as protocols. 01 EMS systems What federal agency has developed standards for training and development of the EMS system? This agency is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. 01 EMS systems What are some components of the EMS system? Some components of this include:
911 Dispatchers,
Patients,
EMS personnel,
and First Responders.
04 communications EMS systems What is one of the most important safeguards against legal problems? A complete, accurate report is one of the most important safeguards against this. The courts consider an incomplete or untidy report to be evidence of incomplete or unexpert care provided. 03 ethical legal What is an advanced directive (AKA health care directive)? This is a written document that specifies medical treatment should a competent patient become unable to make decisions. 03 ethical legal What are DNR orders? These are written documentation that give medical personnel permission not to attempt resuscitation. 03 definition ethical legal What is assualt? This is anytime you unlawfully place a person in fear of immediate bodily harm without his consent. 03 definition ethical legal What is battery? This is defined as unlawfully touching a person without his or her consent. 03 definition ethical legal What is abandonment? This is unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient. 03 ethical legal What is defamation? This is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community. 03 ethical legal What is expressed consent (AKA actual consent)? This is a type of consent in which a patient give express authorization for provision of care or transport. 03 ethical legal What is implied consent? This is a type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment. 03 ethical legal What is informed consent? This is permission for treatment given by a compentent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained. 03 ethical legal What is breach of duty? This is anytime the EMT-B does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care. This includes providing care above the level of your training. 03 ethical legal How many watts of power do VHF mobile radios operate at? These operate at 100 watts of power, and are mounted in mobile vehicles. 04 communications radio value What is the first key rule of lifting? The first key rule of this is to always keep your back in an upright position and lift without twisting. 08 lifting moving What is the safest and most powerful way to lift? The power lift is this kind of lift. 08 lifting moving How many rescuers should you use whenever possible, and who is responsible for coordinating the moves? You should try to have four of these whenever resourcers allow; the team leader is responsible for this. 08 lifting moving What is the most commonly used device to move and transport patients? The wheeled ambulance stretcher is the most commonly used one of these. 08 equipment lifting moving What are devices used to carry patients? Types of these devices include:
The wheeled ambulance stretchers,
Portable stretchers,
Flexible stretchers,
Backboards,
Basket stretchers (AKA Stokes litters),
Scoop stretchers,
and,
Stair chairs.
08 carrying lifting moving What is bariatrics? This is a branch of medicine concerned with the management, prevention and control of obesity and allied diseases. 08 lifting moving What is a basket stretcher (AKA a Stokes litter)? This is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. 08 equipment lifting moving What is a diamond carry? This is a carrying technique in which one EMT is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the EMTs at the sides use one hand to support the stretcher / backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. 08 carrying equipment lifting moving What is the direct ground lift? This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. 08 lifting moving What is an emergency move? This is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided. 08 lifting moving What is an extremity lift? This is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injury. 08 lifting moving What is a flexible stretcher? This is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use. 08 carrying equipment lifting moving What is a portable stretcher? This is a stretcher with a strong rectangular tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. 08 equipment lifting moving What is a power grip? This is a technique in which the litter or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb. 08 lifting moving What is the power lift? This is a lifting technique in which the EMTs' back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. 08 lifting moving What is the rapid extrication technique? This is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. 08 lifting moving AAA  abdominal aortic aneurysm 05 abbreviations cardiovascular emergencies terminology abd  abdomen 05 abbreviations terminology CHF congestive heart failure 15 abbreviations MI myocardial infarction 05 11 abbreviations cardiovascular emergencies """PASTE"" is an alternate assessment tool for {{c1::respiratory}} patients" 15 respiratory Common signs and symptoms of acute {{c1::hyperventilation}} syndrome include tachypnea and tingling in the extremities. 15 respiratory Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for {{c1::Congestive Heart Failure}}. 15 respiratory {{c1::Bronchiolitis}} is the inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
15 respiratory {{c1::Carbon dioxide retention}} is a condition characterized by a chronically high blood level of carbon dioxide in which the respiratory center no longer responds to high blood levels of carbon dioxide.
15 respiratory Respiratory {{c1::syncytial}} virus (RSV) is a virus that causes an infection of the lungs and breating passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia; highly contagious and spread through droplets.
15 respiratory {{c1::Asthma}} signs and symptoms include wheezing on inspiration/expiration and bronchospasm.
15 respiratory {{c1::Anaphylaxis}} signs and symptoms include flushed skin or hives, generalized edema, {{c2::hypotension}}, and wheezing or stridor.
15 respiratory {{c1::Bronchiolitis}}signs and symptoms include SOB, wheezing, coughing, fever, dehydration, {{c2::tachy}}pnea, and {{c3::tachy}}cardia 15 respiratory {{c1::Bronchitis}} signs and symptoms include chronic cough with clear or white sputum, wheezing, cyanosis, and {{c2::tachy}}pnea.
15 respiratory {{c1::Congestive heart failure (CHF)}} signs and symptoms include dependent edema, crackles, barrel chested, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and produce pink frothy sputum
15 breathing cardiovascular definition emergencies respiratory {{c1::Croup}} signs and symptoms include fever, barking cough, stridor, and is mostly seen in pediatric patients.
15 respiratory {{c1::Diptheria}} signs and symptoms include difficulty breathing and swallowing, sore throat, thick, gray buildup in the throat or nose, and a fever.
15 respiratory {{c1::Emphysema}} signs and symptoms include barrel chest,  pursed lip breathing, dyspnea on exertion, cyanosis and wheezing or decreased breath sounds.  "
" 15 respiratory {{c1::Epiglottitis}} signs and symptoms include dyspnea, high fever, stridor, drooling, difficulty swallowing, sore throat, tripod, or sniffing position.
"" 15 respiratory {{c1::Influenza A (flu)}} signs and symptoms include cough, fever, sore throat, and fatigue.
15 respiratory {{c1::Pertussis}} signs and symptoms include coughing spells, whooping sound, and fever.
15 respiratory {{c1::Pneumonia}} signs and symptoms include dyspnea, chills, fever, cough, green/red/rust colored sputum, and localized wheezing or crackles.
15 respiratory {{c1::Pneumothorax}} signs and symptoms include sudden chest pain with dyspnea, decreased breath sounds (affected side), and subcutaneous emphysema.
15 respiratory {{c1::Pulmonary embolus}} signs and symptoms include sharp chest pain, sudden onset, dyspnea, {{c2::tachy}}cardia, clear breath sounds initially.
15 respiratory {{c1::Tension pneumothorax}} signs and symptoms include severe shortness of breath, decreased/altered LOC, neck vein distention, tracheal deviation (late sign), hypotension; signs of shock (late sign)
15 respiratory {{c1::Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)}} signs and symptoms include cough, wheezing, fever, and dehydation
15 respiratory {{c1::Tuberculosis}} signs and symptoms include cough, fever, fatigue, and productive/bloody sputum.
15 respiratory As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve 10 13 airway breathing PPE practice respiratory resuscitation Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes suctioning while {{c1::withdrawing}} the catheter from the oropharynx. 10 airway breathing respiratory {{c1::Arterial air embolism}} are air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels. 24 overview trauma {{c1::Blunt trauma}} is an impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetratingg soft tissues or internal organs and cavities.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Cavitation}} is a phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullet's path.
24 overview trauma A {{c1::coup-contrecoup}} brain injury is a brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission through brain tissue causes injury on the opposite side of the original impact.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Deceleration}} is the slowing of an object.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Drag}} is the resistance that slows a projectile, such as air.
24 overview trauma A {{c1::Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score}} is an evaluation tool used to determine level of conciousness, which evaluates and assigns point values (scores) for eye opening, verbal response, and motor respose, which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes. 24 overview trauma An {{c1::index of suspicion}} is awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries may exist when determining the mechanism of injury. 24 overview trauma {{c1::Kinetic energy}} is the energy of a moving object.
24 overview trauma The {{c1::mechanism of injury (MOI)}} are the forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury. 24 overview trauma {{c1::Medical emergencies}} are emergencies that require EMS attention because of illnesses or condition not caused by an outside force.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Multi-system trauma}} is trauma that affects more than one body system.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Penetrating trauma}} is injury caused by objects, such as knives and bullets, that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues and organs.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Potential energy}} is the product of mass, gravity, and height, which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury, such as from a fall.
24 overview trauma A {{c1::projectile}} is any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon. 24 overview trauma {{c1::Revised Trauma Score (RTS)}} is a scoring system used for patient with head trauma.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Trajectory}} is the path a projectile takes once it is propelled.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Trauma emergencies}} are emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to a patient's body.
24 overview trauma A {{c1::trauma score}} is a score calculated from 1 to 16, with 16 being the best possible score. It related to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of a severe head injury. It takes into account the GCS score, respiratory rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill. 24 overview trauma The {{c1::tympanic membrane}} is the eardrum, a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits soun vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles.
24 overview trauma {{c1::Work}} is the measure of force over distance.
24 definition overview physics trauma {{c1::Pulmonary blast injuries}} are pulmonary traumas that result from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives.
24 overview trauma The {{c1::aorta}} is the main artery that recieves blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body. 24 bleeding The {{c1::arterioles}} are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries. 24 bleeding An {{c1::artery}} is a blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle, that carries blood away from the heart. 24 bleeding {{c1::Capillaries}} are the small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; various substances pass through capillary walls into and out of the interstitial fluid and then on to the cells.
24 bleeding {{c1::Coagulation}} is the formation of clots to plug openings in injured blood vessels and stop blood flow.
24 bleeding A {{c1::contusion}} is a bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. "" 24 bleeding {{c1::Ecchymosis}} is a building up  of blood beneath the skin that produces a characteristic blue or black discoloration as the result of an injury.
24 bleeding {{c1::Epistaxis}} is another word for nosebleed.
24 bleeding {{c1::Hematemesis}} is vomited blood.
24 bleeding A {{c1::hematoma}} is a mass of blood that has collected withindamaged tissue beneath the skin or in a body cavity. 24 bleeding {{c1::Hematuria}} is blood in the urine.
24 bleeding {{c1::Hemophilia}} is a hereditary condition in which the patient lacks ones or more of the blood's normal clotting factors.
24 bleeding {{c1::Hemoptysis}} is coughing up of blood.
24 bleeding {{c1::Hemorrhage}} is another word for bleeding.
24 bleeding A {{c1::hemostatic agent}} is a chemical compoud that slows or stops bleeding by assisting with clot formation. 24 bleeding {{c1::Hypoperfusion}} is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called shock.
24 bleeding {{c1::Hypovolemic shock}} is a condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion.
24 bleeding {{c1::Melena}} is black, foul-smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood.
24 bleeding An {{c1:: open-book pelvic fracture}} is a life-threatening fracture of the pelvis caused by a force that displaces one or both sides of the pelvis laterally and posteriorly. "" 24 bleeding A {{c1::pelvic binder}} is a device to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain. "" 24 bleeding {{c1::Perfusion}} is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the current needs of the cells.
24 bleeding {{c1::Shock}} is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called hypoperfusion.
24 bleeding A {{c1::tourniquet}} is the bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation.  24 bleeding {{c1::Vasoconstriction}} is the narrowing of a blood vessel, such as  with hypoperfusion or cold extremities.
24 bleeding cardiovascular {{c1::Veins}} are the blood vessels that carry blood from the tissues to the heart.
24 bleeding {{c1::Venules}} are very small, thin-walled blood vessels.
"" 24 bleeding cardiovascular The main artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body is the {{c1::aorta}}. 24 bleeding An {{c1::abraision}} is loss or damage of the superficial layor of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. 26 injury {{c1::Amputation}} is an injury in which part of the body is completely severed.
26 definition injury An {{c1::avulsion}} is an injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. 26 injury {{c1::Burns}} are injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result of thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.
26 burn definition injury {{c1::Closed injuries}} are injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface of the skin remains intact.
26 definition injury {{c1::Compartment syndrome}} is swellingin a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.
26 definition injury A {{c1::contact burn}} is a burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. 26 burn injury {{c1::Contamination}} is the presence of infective organisms or foreign bodies such as dirt, gravel, or metal.
26 definition injury A {{c1::contusion}} is a bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. 26 injury {{c1::Crush syndrome}} is a significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death.
26 definition injury A {{c1::crushing injury}} is an injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. 26 injury The {{c1::dermis}} is the inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels. 26 injury {{c1::Ecchymosis}} is the discoloration associated with a closed wound; signifies bleeding.
"" 26 definition injury {{c1::Evisceration}} is the displacement of organs outside the body.
26 definition injury The {{c1::epidermis}} is the outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering. 26 injury {{c1::Excited delirium}} is a serious behavioral condition in which a perosn exhibits agitated behavior combined with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions; also called agitated delirium or exhaustice mania.
26 definition injury {{c1::Fascia}} is the fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendonds, and ligaments.
26 definition injury A {{c1::flame burn}} is a burn caused by an open flame. 26 burn injury A {{c1::flash burn}} is a burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as an explosuon. 26 burn injury {{c1::Full-thickness burns}} (Third-degree burns) are burns that affect all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathy, and white, dark, brown, or charred.
26 burn definition injury A {{c1::hematoma}} is blood collected within the body's tissues or in a body cavity. 26 injury {{c1::Impaled objects}} are objects that penetrate the skin but remain in place.
26 definition injury An {{c1::incision}} is a sharp, smooth cut in the skin. 26 injury A {{c1::laceration}} is a deep, jagged cut in the skin. 26 injury {{c1::Mucous membranes}} are the linings of body cavities and passages that are in direct contact with the outside environment.
26 definition injury {{c1::Occlusive dressings}} are dressings made of petroleum (Vaseline) gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that prevent air and liquids from entering or exiting a wound.
26 definition injury {{c1::Open injuries}} are injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.
26 definition injury {{c1::Patrial-thickness}} (Second-degree burns) are bruns that affect the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue, characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and molted.
26 burn definition injury A {{c1::penetrating wound}} is an injury resulting from a sharp, piercing object. 26 injury {{c1::Rabid}} means infected with rabies.
26 definition injury {{c1::Rule of nines}} is a system that assigned percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surgace involved in the burn area.
26 burn definition injury A {{c1::scald burn}} is burn caused by hot liquids. 26 burn injury A {{c1::stream burn}} is a burn caused by exposure to hot steam. 26 burn injury {{c1::Superficial}} (first-degree) burns are burns that affect only the epidermis, characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through.
26 burn definition injury {{c1::Thermal burns}} are burned caused by heat.
26 burn definition injury {{c1::Congestive heart failure (CHF)}} signs and symptoms include dependent edema, crackles, barrel chested, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and produce pink frothy sputum 15 breathing cardiovascular emergencies EMS_Lab respiratory {{c1::Anaphylaxis}} signs and symptoms include flushed skin or hives, generalized edema, {{c2::hypotension}}, and wheezing or stridor. 15 airway breathing EMS_Lab respiratory {{c1::Emphysema}} signs and symptoms include barrel chest, breathing through {{c2::pursed lips}}, dyspnea on {{c3::exertion}}, cyanosis and wheezing or decreased breath sounds.  15 airway breathing EMS_Lab respiratory An {{c1::advanced EMT (AEMT)}} is an individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications. 01 definition EMS systems {{c1::Advanced life support (ALS)}} are advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.
01 abbreviations definition EMS systems terminology
The {{c1::Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)}} is a comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.
01 definition EMS legal systems An {{c1::automated external difibrillator (AED)}} is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and deliver the appropriate electrical shock to the patient. 01 abbreviations BLS cardiovascular definition EMS equipment resuscitation systems A {{c1::certification}} is a process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care. 01 definition EMS systems {{c1::Community paramedicine}} is a healthcare model in which experience paramedics recieve advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or condition, and patient advocacy. 
01 EMS systems {{c1::Continuous quality improvement (CQI)}} is a system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Emergency medical dispatch (EMD)}} is a system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.
01 EMS systems An {{c1::emergency medical responder (EMR)}} is the first trained professional, such as police officer, firefighters, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance. 01 definition EMS systems {{c1::Emergency medical services (EMS)}} is a multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.
01 EMS systems An {{c1::emergency medical technician (EMT)}} is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, used of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications. 01 definition EMS systems HIPAA stands for {{c1::Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.}} "" 01 EMS systems {{c1::HIPAA}} is federal legislation passed in 1996. It's main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients' health care information andp enalizing violations of patient privacy.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Intravenous (IV) therapy}} is the delivery of medication direction into a vein.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Licensure}} is the process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Medical control}} are physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (offline/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.
01 EMS systems The {{c1::medical director}} is the physican who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Mobile integrated healthcare (MIH)}} is a method delivering health care which involves providing healthcare withing the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital. 01 EMS systems The {{c1::National EMS Scope of Practice Model}} is a document created by the NHTSA that outlines the skills perfored by various EMS providers. 01 EMS systems A {{c1::paramedic}} is an individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills. 01 definition EMS systems {{c1::Primary prevention}} are efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occuring.
01 EMS systems The {{c1::primary service area (PSA)}} is the designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital. 01 EMS systems {{c1::Public health}} is focused on examining that health needs of entire popilations with the goal of preventing health probelms.
01 EMS systems A {{c1::public safety access point}} is a call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services. 01 definition EMS systems {{c1::Quality control}} is the responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care stadards are met by EMTS on each call.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Secondary prevention}} are efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.
01 EMS systems {{c1::Acute stress reactions}} are reactions to stress that occur during a stressful reaction.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Airborne transmission}} is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Bloodborne pathogens}} are pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and HIV.
02 safety wellness The {{c1::Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)}} is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US. It is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services. 02 safety wellness A {{c1::communicable disease}} is a disease that can be spread from one person to another. 02 safety wellness {{c1::Concealment}} is the use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Contamination}} is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such  as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Cover}} is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)}} is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Cumulative stress reactions}} are prolonged or excessive stress.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Delayed stress reactions}} are reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.
02 safety wellness The {{c1::designated officer}} is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues. 02 safety wellness {{c1::Direct contact}} is exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact 02 safety wellness {{c1::Exposure}} is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Foodborne transmission}} is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::General adaptation syndrome}} is the body's respnose to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Hepatitis}} is inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.
02 safety wellness A {{c1::host}} is the organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent. 02 safety wellness {{c1::Human immunodeficieny virus (HIV)}} leads to acquired immunodeficiency symdorme, which damaged the cells in the bodys immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Immunity}} is the bodys ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Indirect contact}} is exposure or trasmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Infection}} is the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by oranisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites with or without signs or symptoms or disease.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Infection control}} are procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.
02 safety wellness An {{c1::infectious disease}} is a medical condition caused by the growtha nd spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. 02 safety wellness The {{c1::Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)}} is the federal regulatory and compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace. 02 safety wellness A {{c1::pathogen}} is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host. "" 02 safety wellness {{c1::Personal protective equipment (PPE)}} is protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or hazardous material.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)}} is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or morer unresolved issues concerning the inciden, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Transmission}} is the way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles or by vectors.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Standard precautions}} are protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potention exposure risks of communicable disease.
02 definition safety wellness {{c1::Vector-borne transmission}} is the use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Abandonment}} is the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring car to antoher medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
03 legal {{c1::Advanced directive}} is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient if they become unable to make decisions; also called a {{c2::living will}} or {{c3::health care directive.}}
03 legal {{c1::Applied ethics}} is the manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
03 legal {{c1::Assault}} is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
03 legal {{c1::Battery}} is unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
03 legal {{c1::Bioethics}} is the study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.
03 legal {{c1::Breach of confidentiality}} is the disclosure of information without proper authorization.
03 legal {{c1::Certification}} is a process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting a certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.
02 safety wellness {{c1::Compensatory damages}} are damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
02 safety wellness Someone who is {{c1::competent}} is able to make rational decisions about personal well-being. 03 legal {{c1::Consent}} is the permission to render care.
03 legal {{c1::Contributory negligence}} is a legal defence that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
03 legal {{c1::Credentialing}} is an established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.
03 legal {{c1::Decision-making capacity}} is the ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
03 legal {{c1::Defamation}} is the communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.
03 legal {{c1::Dependent lividity}} is blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloation of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
03 legal {{c1::Depositions}} are oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
03 legal {{c1::Discovery}} is the phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain info from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. It includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
03 legal {{c1::do not resuscitate (DNR) orders}} are written documentation by a physcian giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
03 legal A {{c1::durable power of attorney}} is a type of advanced directive executed by  a compettent adult that appoints anotheri ndividual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behald, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. 03 legal A {{c1::duty to act}} is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care. 03 legal An {{c1::emergency}} is a serious situation, usch as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention. 03 definition legal terminology {{c1::Emergency doctrine}} is the principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.
03 legal {{c1::Emergency medical care}} is immediate care or treatment.
03 legal {{c1::Ethics}} is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
03 legal {{c1::Expressed consent}} is a type of consent in which a patient fives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
03 legal {{c1::False imprisonment}} is the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.
03 legal {{c1::Forcible restraint}} is the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
03 legal {{c1::Good samaritan laws}} are statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross or willfull negligence.
03 definition ethical legal {{c1::Governmental immunity}} is the legal doctrine that can protect and EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by government entities.
03 legal {{c1::Gross negligence}} is the conduct that constitutes a willfull or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
03 legal A {{c1::health care directive}} is a written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions. Also known as a {{c2::living will.}} 03 legal {{c1::Health care proxies}} are a type of advanced directive that is exceuted by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on their behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity. Also known as a {{c2::power of attorney.}}
"" 03 legal {{c1::Implied consent}} is the type of consent that a patient who is unable to give consent  is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
03 legal {{c1::Informed consent}} is permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment are explained.
03 legal {{c1::In loco parentis}} is the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
03 legal {{c1::Interrogatories}} are written wuestions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
03 legal {{c1::Kidnapping}} is the seizing, confining, abducting or carrying away of another person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without their consent.
03 legal {{c1::Libel}} is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
03 legal {{c1::Licensure}} is the process were a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
03 legal {{c1::Medicolegal}} is a term relating to medical, law, or forensic medicine.
03 legal {{c1::Morality}} is a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character conduct and conscience.
03 legal {{c1::Negligence}} is the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
03 legal {{c1::Negligence per se}} is a theory that may be used when the conduct of a person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statue.
03 legal {{c1::Patient autonomy}} is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding their health care.
03 legal {{c1::Proximate causation}} is when a person who have a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
03 legal {{c1::Punitive damages}} are damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
03 legal {{c1::Putrefaction}} is the decompisition of body tissues; this is a definitive sign of death.
"" 03 legal {{c1::Res ipsa loquitor}} is when the EMT is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
03 definition Latin legal {{c1::Scope of practice}} outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient; this is defined by state law.
03 legal {{c1::Slander}} is false and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.
03 legal {{c1::Standard of care}} is the written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
03 legal A {{c1::tort}} is a wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit. 03 legal The {{c1::base station}} is any radio hardware containing a transmitter and reciever that is located in a fixed place. 04 communications definition radio "A {{c1::cell phone}} is a low power portable radio that communicates through interconnected series of repeater stations called ""cells""" 04 communications A {{c1::channel}} is an assign frequency that is used to carry voice and or data communications. 04 communications {{c1::Communication}} is the transmission of information to another person.
04 communications {{c1::Cultural imposition}} is when one person imposes his or her believes on another because they believe their ideals are superior.
04 communications A {{c1::dedicated line}} is a special phone line that is used for specific point to point communications; also know as a {{c2::hotline.}} 04 communications {{c1::Documentation}} is the recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction that becomes part of the patients permanent medical record.
04 communications A {{c1::duplex}} is the ability to transmit and recieve simultaneously. 04 communications {{c1::Ethnocentrism}} is when a person considers their own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
04 communications The {{c1::Federal Communications Commission (FCC)}} is the federal gency that has jusidiction over interstate and international phone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity. 04 communications An {{c1::interoperable communications system}} is a communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.
04 communications {{c1::MED channels}} are VHF and UHF channels that the FCC has designed exclusively for EMS use.
04 communications government legal radio A {{c1::mobile data terminal (MDT)}} is a small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly recieves data from the dispatch center. 04 communications {{c1::Multiplex}} is the ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.
04 communications {{c1::Noise}} is anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.
04 communications {{c1::Paging}} is the use of radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted hrough pagers or desktop monitor radios.
04 communications A {{c1::patient care report (PCR)}} is the legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. Also known as {{c2::prehospital care reports}}. 04 communications A {{c1::rapport}} is a trusting relationship that you build with your patient. 04 communications A {{c1::repeater}} is a special base station radio that recieves messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. 04 communications definition radio A {{c1::scanner}} is a radio reciever that seraches or scans across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated. 04 communications A {{c1::simplex}} is a single-frequency radio, transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only recieve, and the party that is tranmitting is unable to recieve. 04 communications {{c1::Standing orders}} are written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibition regarding patient care. Also called {{c2::protocols.}}
04 communications {{c1::Telemetry}} is a process which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; which can be transmitted by radio or phone to a reciever with a decoder at the hospital.
04 communications {{c1::Trunking}} is the telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequences.
04 communications {{c1::Therapeutic communications}} are verbal and non verbal communication techniques that encourage patient to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
04 communications {{c1::UHF (ultra high frequency)}} are radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.
04 communications {{c1::VHF (very high frequency)}} are radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz and is divided into high and low bands. 04 communications definition radio {{c1::Abduction}} is the motion of a limb away from the midline.
05 terminology {{c1::Adduction}} is the motion of a limb toward the midline.
05 terminology The {{c1::apex}} is the pointed extremity of a conical strructure. 05 terminology {{c1::Distal}} means further from the trunk of the body.
05 terminology {{c1::Proximal}} means closer from the trunk of the body. 05 terminology {{c1::Extension}} is the straightening of a joint.
05 terminology {{c1::Felxion}} is the bending of a joint.
05 terminology Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline are {{c1::medial}} or inner structures.
05 terminology {{c1::Palmar}} is the forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.
05 definition terminology {{c1::Plantar}} is the bottom surface of the foot.
05 definition terminology The {{c1::prefix}} is the part of a term that changes the meaning of the term. 05 terminology {{c1::Prone}} is the position where a patient is lying face down.
05 terminology When something is {{c1::ventral}} it is on the anterior side of the body. 05 terminology The {{c1::word root}} is the main part of a term that contains the primary meaning of the term.
05 terminology The {{c1::abdomen}} is the body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis. 06 anatomy The {{c1::acetabulum}} is the depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::adams apple}} is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than women. It is also called the {{c2::thyroid cartilage.}} 06 anatomy respiratory {{c1::Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)}} is the nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.
06 anatomy The {{c1::adrenal glands}} are endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Adrenergic}} is a term pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradreniline; also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
06 anatomy The {{c1::aerobic metabolism}} is metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen. 06 anatomy {{c1::Agonal gasps}} are abnormal breathing patterns characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients with cardiac arrest.
06 anatomy {{c1::Alpha-adrenergic receptors}} are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause condtriction of blood vessels.
06 anatomy The {{c1::alveoli}} are the air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place. 06 anatomy {{c1::Anarobic metabolism}} is the metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.
06 anatomy The {{c1::anatomic position}} is the position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side with the palms of the hands forward. 06 anatomy The {{c1::aorta}} is the main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::appendicular skeleton}} is the portion of the skeletal system that comprimises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle. 06 anatomy The {{c1::appendix }} is a small tubular structure that is attaached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. 06 anatomy The {{c1::arterioles}} are the smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Articular cartilage}} is apearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surgaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
06 anatomy The {{c1::atrium}} is one of the two upper chambers of the heart. 06 anatomy The {{c1::autonomic nervous system}} is the part of the nervous sustem that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating that are not controlled voluntarily. 06 anatomy The {{c1::axial skeleton}} is the part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column and rib cage. 06 anatomy A {{c1::ball and socket joint}} is a joint that allows internal and external rotation as well as bending. 06 anatomy {{c1::Beta-adrenergic receptors}} are portions of the nervous system that when stimulated can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
06 anatomy The {{c1::bicep}} is the largemu scle that covers the front of the humerus. 06 anatomy The {{c1::bile ducts}} are the ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine. 06 anatomy {{c1::Blood pressure}} is the pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
06 anatomy The {{c1::brachial artery}} is the major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arms. 06 anatomy The {{c1::brain}} is the controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions to the environment, emotional responses, and judgment. 06 anatomy The {{c1::brain stem}} is the area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration. 06 anatomy The {{c1::capillary vessels}} are the tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood. 06 anatomy {{c1::Cardiac muscle}} is heart muscle.
06 anatomy {{c1::Cardiac output}} is the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. Its calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.
06 anatomy The {{c1::carotid artery}} is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cartilage}} is the smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cecum}} is the first part of the large intenstine into which the ileum opens. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::central nervous system (CNS)}} consists of the brain and spinal cord. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cerebellum}} is one of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the little brain; coordinates the activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements. 06 anatomy {{c1::Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)}} is the fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.
06 anatomy The {{c1::cerebrum}} is the largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the gray matter; it's made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions and personality. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cervical spine}} is the portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertabrae that lie in the neck. 06 anatomy The {{c1::chordaw tendineae}} are thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting. 06 anatomy {{c1::Chyme}} is the substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all the eaten foods with added stomach acids.
06 anatomy The {{c1::circulatory system}} is the complez arrangement of connected tubes that move blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide and cellular waste through the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::clavicle}} is the collar bone,it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula. 06 anatomy The {{c1::coccyx}} is the last three of four vertabrae of the spine; the tail bone. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::coronal plane}} is an imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cranium}} is the area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull; it contains the brain. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cricoid cartilage}} is a firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx. 06 anatomy The {{c1::cricothyroid membrane}} is a thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx. 06 anatomy {{c1::Dead space}} is any portion of the airway that does contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange such as the trachea and bronchi.
06 anatomy The {{c1::dermis}} is the inner layer of skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings and blood vessels. 06 anatomy The {{c1::diaphragm}} is a muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, serparating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of this and the chest wall muscles brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs. 06 anatomy {{c1::Diastole}} is the relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.
06 anatomy {{c1::Diffusion}} is the movement of gas from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
06 anatomy {{c1::Digestion}} is the processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.
06 anatomy The {{c1::dorsal pedis artery}} is the artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals. 06 anatomy The {{c1::endocrine system}} is the complex mesage and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones. 06 anatomy {{c1::Enzymes}} are substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.
06 anatomy The {{c1::epidermis}} is the outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a water tight protective covering for the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::epiglottis}} is a thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering. 06 anatomy {{c1::Epinephrine}} is a hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.
06 anatomy The {{c1::esophagous}} is a collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contractions propel food and liquids through it to the stomach. 06 anatomy {{c1::Expiratory reserve volume}} is the amount of air that can be exhaled following a nromal exhalation.
06 anatomy {{c1::Fallopian tubes}} are long slender tubes the extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through with the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.
06 anatomy The {{c1::femoral artery}} is the major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It suppplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genetalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area. 06 anatomy The {{c1::femoral head}} is the proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint. 06 anatomy The {{c1::femur}} is the thigh bone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::foramen mgnum}} is the large opening at the base of the skill through which the brain connects to the spinal cord. 06 anatomy The {{c1::frontal bone}} si the portion of the cranium that forms the forehead. 06 anatomy The {{c1::gallbladder}} is a sac on the undersurgace of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharfes it into the dudenum through the common bile duct. 06 anatomy The {{c1::genital system}} is the reproductive system in men and women. 06 anatomy The {{c1::germinal layer}} is the deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed. 06 anatomy The {{c1::greater tochanter}} is a bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint. 06 anatomy {{c1::Hair follicles}} are small organs that produce hair.
06 anatomy The {{c1::heart}} is a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body. 06 anatomy {{c1::Heart rate (HR) }}is the number of heartbeats during a specific time.
06 anatomy {{c1::Hinge joints}} are joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.
06 anatomy {{c1::Hormones}} are substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions including metabolism, growth and body temperature.
06 anatomy The {{c1::humerus}} is the supporting bone of the upper body. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Hydrostatic pressure}} is the pressure of water against the walls of its container.
06 anatomy The {{c1::hypoxic drive}} is the backup system to control respiration; senses drop in the oxygen level in the blood. 06 anatomy The {{c1::ilium}} is one of three bones the fuse to form the pelvic ring. 06 anatomy The {{c1::inferior vena cava}} is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and abdominal organs to the heart. 06 anatomy The {{c1::inspiratory reserve volume}} is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalationl the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume. 06 anatomy The {{c1::interstitial space}} is the space in between the cells.
06 anatomy The {{c1::ischium}} is one of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring. 06 anatomy {{c1::Joint articulation}} is the place where two bones come into contact.
06 anatomy A {{c1::joint capsule}} is the fibrous sac that encloses a joint. 06 anatomy The {{c1::kidneys}} are two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content. 06 anatomy {{c1::Labored breathing}} is the use of muscles of the chest, back and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.
06 anatomy {{c1::Lactic acid}} is a metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anerobic metabolism).
06 anatomy The {{c1::large intestine}} is the portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste. 06 anatomy The {{c1::lesser trochanter}} is the projection on the medial superior portion of the femur. 06 anatomy A {{c1::ligament}} is a band of fibrous tissue that connects the bones to bones. it supports and strengthens a joint. 06 anatomy The {{c1::liver}} is a large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the disphragm; it produces biles, stores flucose for immediate use by the body and produces many substances that help regular immune responses. 06 anatomy The {{c1::lumbar spine}} is the lower back of the back formed by the lowest five nonfused vertabrae; also called the dorsal spine. 06 anatomy {{c1::Lymph nodes}} are tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
06 anatomy The {{c1::mandible}} is the bone of the lower jaw. 06 anatomy The {{c1::manubirum}} is the upper quarter of the sternum. 06 anatomy The {{c1::maxillae}} are the upper jaw bones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palae and hold the upper teeth. "" 06 anatomy The {{c1::medula oblongata}} is nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descenging nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing. 06 anatomy The {{c1::metabolism}} also known as {{c2::cellular respiration}} are the biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells. 06 anatomy The {{c1::midbrain}} is the part of the brain that is respondible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness. 06 anatomy The {{c1::midsagittal}} plane or {{c2::midline}} is an imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus to the flood, dividing the body into equal left and right halves. 06 anatomy {{c1::Minute volume}} is the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute. You can calculate it by multiplying the tidal volune and respiratory rate. This is also called minute ventilation.
06 anatomy {{c1::Motor nerves}} carry information from the CNS to the muscles of the body.
06 anatomy {{c1::Mucous membranes}} are the lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
06 anatomy {{c1::Mucus}} is the water secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricate the body openings.
06 anatomy The {{c1::musculoskeltal system}} consist of the bones and voluntary muscles of the body. 06 anatomy The heart muscle is called the {{c1::myocardium.}} 06 anatomy The {{c1::nasopharynx}} is the part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth. 05 06 10 airway anatomy breathing definition respiratory The {{c1::nervous system}} is the systen that controls virtually all activities of body, both voluntary and involuntary. 06 anatomy {{c1::Norepinephrine}} is a neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.
06 anatomy The {{c1::occiput}} is the most posterior portion of the cranium. 06 anatomy {{c1::Oncotic pressure}} is the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins.
06 anatomy The {{c1::orbit}} is the eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma. 06 anatomy The {{c1::ovaries}} are female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs). 06 anatomy The {{c1::pancreas}}is a flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach; it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin. 06 anatomy The {{c1::parasympathetic nervous system}} is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary function, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through teh chemical acetylcholine. 06 anatomy The {{c1::parietal bones}} are the bones thatl ie between the temporal and occpital regions of the cranium. 06 anatomy The {{c1::patella}}is the knee cap; and lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle. 06 anatomy {{c1::Pathophysiology}} is the study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.
06 anatomy {{c1::Perfusion}} is the circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells curent needs.
06 anatomy definition The {{c1::peripheral nervous system (PNS)}} is the part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves. 06 anatomy {{c1::Peristalsis}} is the wavelike contraction of smooth muscles by whichthe ureters of other tubular organs propel their contents.
06 anatomy {{c1::Plasma}} is a stick, yellow like fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.
06 anatomy {{c1::Platelets}} are tiny disc shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the intial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.
06 anatomy The {{c1::pleura}} are serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as pleural space. 06 anatomy "{{c1::Pleural space}} is the potential space between the parietal pleural and the visceral pleura; described as ""potential"" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.
" 06 anatomy The {{c1::pons}} is an organ that lies below th midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration and the medullary respiratory center. 06 anatomy The {{c1::posterior tibial artery}} is the artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot. 06 anatomy The {{c1::prostate gland}} is a small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladdar; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid. 06 anatomy {{c1::Pubic symphysis}} is a hard bony and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic rings are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.
06 anatomy The {{c1::pubis}} is one of the three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring. 06 anatomy The {{c1::pulmonary artery}} is the major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; carries oxygen-poor blood. 06 anatomy {{c1::Pulmonary circulation}} is the flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.
06 anatomy The {{c1::pulmonary veins}} are the four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. 06 anatomy A {{c1::pulse}} is the wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries. 06 anatomy The {{c1::radial artery}}  is the major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side. 06 anatomy Teh {{c1::radius}} is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm. 06 anatomy Th {{c1::rectum}} is the lowermost end of the colon. 06 anatomy {{c1::Red blood cells}} carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.
06 anatomy The {{c1::renal pelvis}} is a cone shapped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder. 06 anatomy {{c1::Residual volume}} is the air that ramines in the lungs after maximal expiration.
06 anatomy {{c1::Respiration}}  is the inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.
06 anatomy {{c1::Respiratory comprimise}} is the inability of the body to move gas efficiently.
06 anatomy The {{c1::respiratory system}} consists of all the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::reticular activating system}} is located  in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal. 06 anatomy The term retropetitoneal means {{c1::behind the peritoneum.}} 06 anatomy The {{c1::sacroiliac joint}} is the connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column. 06 anatomy The {{c1::sacrum}} is one of three bones that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertabrae. 06 anatomy The {{c1::sagittal plane}} or {{c2::lateral plane}} is an imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::salivary glands}} are the glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist. 06 anatomy The {{c1::scalp}} is the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair. 06 anatomy The {{c1::scalpula}} is the shoulder blade. 06 anatomy {{c1::Sebaceous glands}} are glands that produce an oily substance called sebum which discharges along the shaft of the hairs.
06 anatomy {{c1::Seminal vesicles}} are storage sacs for sperm which empty into the urethra at the prostate.
06 anatomy {{c1::Sensory nerves}} are the nerves that carry sensations form the body to the CNS.
06 anatomy {{c1::Shock}} is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the cells of the body, also known as {{c2::hypoperfusion.}}
06 anatomy The {{c1::shoulder girdle}} is the proximal portion of the upper extremities made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus. 06 anatomy {{c1::Skeletal muscle}} is msucle that is attached to vones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.
06 anatomy The {{c1::skeleton}} is the framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also deisgned to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs. 06 anatomy The {{c1::small intestine}} is the portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. 06 anatomy {{c1::Smooth muscle}} is involuntary muscle; it constitutes the build of the GI tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.
06 anatomy The {{c1::somatic nervous system}} is the part of the nervous system that regualr activites over which there is voluntary control. 06 anatomy {{c1::Sphincters}} are muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diametes of tubes; found in the rectum, bladder and blood vessels.
06 anatomy The {{c1::spinal cord}} is an extension of the brain, comoposed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. IT lies inside of an is protected by the spina canal. 06 anatomy The {{c1::sternum}} is the breast bone. 06 anatomy The {{c1::stratum corneal layer}} is the outermost or dead layer of the skin. "" 06 anatomy {{c1::Stroke volume (SV)}} is the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.
06 anatomy The {{c1::subcutaneous tissue}} is tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::superior vena cava}} is one of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart. 06 anatomy {{c1::Sweat glands}} are the glands that secrete sweat, located in the dermal layer of the skin.
06 anatomy definition {{c1::Symphysis}} is type of joint that has growth together to form a very stable connection.
06 anatomy definition {{c1::Synovial fluid}} is the lining of a joint that secretes synovial fluid into the joint space.
06 anatomy definition {{c1::Systemic circulation}} is the portion of the circulatory system outside of the body.
06 anatomy definition {{c1::Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)}} is the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move withing the blood bessels; related to the amount of dilation or constrictions in the blood vessel.
06 anatomy definition {{c1::Systole}} is the contraction, or period of contraction of the heart especially that of the ventricles.
06 anatomy definition The {{c1::temporal bones}} is the lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples. 06 anatomy The {{c1::tendons}} are the fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to the bone. 06 anatomy The {{c1::thoracic cage}} is the chest or rib cage 06 anatomy The {{c1::thoracic spine}} is the 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attach to each side of these vertebrae. 06 anatomy The{{c1::thorax}} is the chest cavity taht contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessels. 06 anatomy The {{c1::thyroid cartilage}} is a firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the adams apple. "" 06 anatomy respiratory The {{c1::tibia}} is the shin bone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg. 06 anatomy {{c1::Tidal volume}} is the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath.
06 anatomy {{c1::Topographic anatomy}} are the superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.
06 anatomy The {{c1::trachea}} is the windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs. 06 anatomy The {{c1::transverse plane}} or {{c2::axial plane}} is an imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts. 06 anatomy The {{c1::triceps}} are the muscles in the back of the upper arm. 06 anatomy The {{c1::tunica media}} is the middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand. 06 anatomy The {{c1::ulna}} is the inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb. 06 anatomy A {{c1::ureter}} is a small, hollow, tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. 06 anatomy The {{c1::urethra}} is the canal that conveys urine from the bladder to the outside the body. 06 anatomy The {{c1::urinary bladder}} is a sac behind the pubis symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine. 06 anatomy The {{c1::urinary system}} are the organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine. 06 anatomy The {{c1::vasa deferentia}} is the spermatic duct of the testicles; also called the vas deferens. 06 anatomy {{c1::Ventilation}} is the movement of air between the lungs and the environmet.
06 anatomy respiratory A {{c1::ventricle}} is one of two lower changers of the heart. 06 anatomy The {{c1::vertebrae}} are the 33 bones that make up the spinal column. 06 anatomy {{c1::V/Q ratio}} is a measurement that examies how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.
06 anatomy respiratory The {{c1::xiphoid process}} is the narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum. 06 anatomy The {{c1::zygomas}} is the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, and zygomaticp rocess of the temporal bone and the great winfs of the sphenoid bone. 06 anatomy An {{c1::adolescent}} is a young person age 12 to 18 years. 07 {{c1::Atherosclerosis}} is a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque which eventually leads to a partial ro complete blockage of blood flow.
07 {{c1::Barotrauma}} is an injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example too much pressure in the lungs.
07 {{c1::Conventional reasoning}} is a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approbal from peers and society.
07 definition lifespan An {{c1::early adult}} is a young adult age 19 to 40 years. 07 {{c1::Fontaelles}} are areas where the neonates or infants skull haas not fused together; usually disappear at appx 18 months of age.
07 An {{c1::infant}} is young child age 1 month to 1 year. 07 {{c1::Life expectancy}} is the average nnumber of years a person can be expected to live.
07 A {{c1::middle adult}} is an adult age 41 to 60 years. 07 The {{c1::moro reflex}} is an infant reflex where an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens their arms wide, spreads their fingers and seems to grab at things. 07 reflex A {{c1::neonate}} is age birth to 1 month. 07 {{c1::Nephrons}} are the basic filtering units in the kidneys.
07 An {{c1::older adult}} is an adult aged 61 years or older. 07 {{c1::Palmar grasp}} is an infatn reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infants palm; the infant grasps the object.
07 reflex {{c1::Postconventional reasoning}} is a type of reasoning where a child bases decisions on their conscience.
07 {{c1::Preconventional reasoning}} is a type of reasoning where a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what they want.
07 A {{c1::rooting reflex}} is an infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infants cheek and the infant instictively turns their head toward the touch. 07 reflex A person who is 6 to 12 years of age is {{c1::school age.}} 07 lifespan The {{c1::sucking reflex}} is an infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when their lips are stroked. 07 reflex A {{c1::toddler}} is a young child ages 1 to 3 years. 07 {{c1::Trust and mistrust}} refers to a stage of develpment form birth  to 18 months where the infant gains trust of their parenst of caregivers if their world is planned, organized and routine.
07 lifespan A {{c1::backboard}} is a A long, flat board made of rigid, rectangular material that is used to provide support to a patient who is suspected of having a hip, pelvic, spinal, or lower extremity injury; also called a spine board, trauma board, and longboard.    08 assessment definition equipment lifting moving spinal {{c1::Bariatrics}} is a branch of medicine concerned with the management (prevention or control) of obesity and allied diseases.
09 assessment definition medicine obesity vocab A {{c1::basket stretcher}} is a rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom; also called a Stokes litter. This is very useful in rough terrain. 08 carrying definition equipment lifting moving spinal transport {{c1::Body mechanics}} is the relationship between the body’s anatomical structures and the physical forces associated with lifting, moving, and carrying; the ways in which the body moves to achieve a specific action.
09 assessment definition The {{c1::diamond carry}} is a carrying technique in which one provider is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the two providers at the sides uses one hand to support the stretcher or backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk. 09 assessment carrying definition lifting moving spinal A {{c1::direct ground lift}} is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury. 08 assessment definition lifting moving transport An {{c1::emergency move}} is a move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided.    08 carrying definition lifting moving An {{c1::extremity lift}} is a lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries. 08 carrying definition lifting moving {{c1::Extrication}} is the removal of a patient from entrapment or a dangerous situation or position, such as removal from a wrecked vehicle, industrial incident, or collapsed building.   
09 assessment definition A {{c1::flexible stretcher}} is a stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use.    "" 08 carrying equipment lifting moving transport A {{c1::portable stretcher}} is a stretcher with a strong, rectangular, tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it. 08 equipment moving {{c1::Power grip}} is a technique in which the stretcher or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb.
08 assessment carrying equipment lifting spinal A {{c1::power lift}} is a lifting technique in which the EMT’s back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms. 08 carrying definition lifting moving The {{c1::rapid extrication technique}} is a technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization. 09 assessment definition extraction A {{c1::scoop stretcher}} is a stretcher that is designed to be split into two or four sections that can be fitted around a patient who is lying on the ground or other relatively flat surface; also called an orthopedic stretcher. 08 equipment moving A {{c1::stairchair}} is a lightweight folding device that is used to carry a conscious, seated patient up or down stairs. 08 definition equipment lifting moving A {{c1::wheeled ambulance stretcher}} is a specially designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground. A collapsible undercarriage allows it to be loaded into the ambulance; also called an ambulance stretcher. 08 equipment moving The {{c1::accessory muscles}} are the secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles. 09 airway anatomy assessment definition muscular respiratory {{c1::Altered mental status}} is any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event, or any deviation from a patient’s normal baseline mental status; may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body.
09 assessment definition mental To {{c1::auscultate}} is to listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope. 09 assessment definition terminology {{c1::DCAP-BTLS}} is a mnemonic for assessment in which each area of the body is evaluated for {{c2::Deformities}}, {{c3::Contusions}}, {{c4::Abrasions}}, {{c5::Punctures/penetrations}}, {{c6::Burns}}, {{c7::Tenderness}}, {{c8::Lacerations}}, and {{c9::Swelling}}.   
09 abbreviations assessment burn mnemonic A {{c1::focused assessment}} is a type of physical assessment typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part. 09 assessment definition The {{c1::general impression}} is the overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient’s surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint. 09 assessment definition {{c1::History taking}} is a step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient’s chief complaint and an account of the patient’s signs and symptoms.
09 assessment definition The {{c1::mechanism of injury (MOI) }} are the forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury. 09 assessment definition injury {{c1::SAMPLE history}} is a brief history of a patient’s condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.
09 assessment definition {{c1::Situational awareness}} is knowledge and understanding of one’s surroundings and the ability to recognize potential risks to the safety of the patient or EMS team.
09 definition {{c1::Vital signs}} are the key signs that are used to evaluate the patient’s overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.
09 assessment definition A {{c1::bag-valve mask}} is a device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, it delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen. 02 10 13 airway breathing definition equipment PPE respiratory resuscitation A {{c1::barrier device}} is a protective item, such as a pocket mask with a valve, that limits exposure to a patient’s body fluids. 02 10 13 airway breathing definition equipment PPE respiratory resuscitation A {{c1::gag reflex}} is a normal reflex mechanism that causes retching; activated by touching the soft palate or the back of the throat. 10 airway assessment reflex respiratory {{c1::Hypercarbia}} is increased carbon dioxide level in the bloodstream.
10 respiratory {{c1::Intrapulmonary shunting}} is the bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart.
09 cardiovascular definition respiratory {{c1::Absorbtion}} is The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Action}} is the therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.
"" 11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Adsorption}} is the process of binding or sticking to a surface.
11 definition pharmacology An {{c1::agonist}} is a medication that causes stimulation of receptors. 11 definition pharmacology An {{c1::antagonist}} is a medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications. 11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Aspirin}} is a medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Contraindications}} are conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.   
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Enteral medications}} are medications that enter the body through the digestive system.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Epinephrine}} is a medication that increases heart rate, blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.
11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::gel}} is a semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes. "" 11 definition pharmacology The {{c1::generic name}} is the original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or trade names); the name is not capitalized. 11 definition pharmacology The {{c1::indications}} are the therapeutic uses for a specific medication. 11 definition pharmacology An {{c1::intraosseous injection}} is an injection into the bone; a medication delivery route. 11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::medication}} is a substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain. 11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::medication error}} is the inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm. 11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::metered-dose inhaled (MDI)}} is a miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles of medication may be inhaled through the mouth and into the lungs. 11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::mucosal atomizer device}} is a device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril. 11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Nitroglycerin}} is a medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Oral glucose}} is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Oxygen}} is a gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without it.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Parenteral medications}} are medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.   
11 definition pharmacology Per os (PO) means {{c1::take by mouth.}} 11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Pharmacodynamics}} is the process by which a medication works on the body. 11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Pharmacology}} is the study of the properties and effects of medications.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Polypharmacy}} is the use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Side effects}} are any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.
11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::solution}} is a liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand. 11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::subcutaneous injection (SC)}} is an injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route. 11 definition pharmacology A {{c1::suspension}} is a mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve. 11 definition pharmacology The {{c1::therapeutic effect}} is the desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body. 11 definition pharmacology The {{c1::trade name}} is the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication; the name is capitalized. 11 definition pharmacology Transcutaneous means {{c1::through the skin}}; a medication delivery route. 11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Unintended effects}} are actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.
11 definition pharmacology {{c1::Untoward effects}} are actions that can be harmful to the patient.
11 definition pharmacology The {{c1::afterload}} is the force or resistance the heart pumps against when ejecting blood. "" 12 definition shock An {{c1::aneurysm}} is an abnormal enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the vessel wall. 12 definition shock The {{c1::autonomic nervous system}} is the part of the nervous system that regulates involuntary activities of the body, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food. 12 definition shock {{c1::Cardiac tamponade}} is the compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.
12 definition shock {{c1::Cardiogenic shock}} is a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions.
12 definition shock {{c1::Compensated shock}} is the early stage of shock, in which the body can still compensate for blood loss.
12 definition shock {{c1::Decompensated shock}} is the late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling.
12 definition shock {{c1::Dehydration}} is the loss of water from the tissues of the body.
12 definition shock "{{c1::Distributive shock}} is a condition that occurs when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both.

(Ie. EXCESSIVE VASODILATION)

""DISTRIBUTED DILATION""
" 12 definition shock {{c1::Edema}} is the presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area. 12 definition shock {{c1::Homeostasis}} is a balance of all systems of the body.
12 definition shock {{c1::Hypovolemic shock}} is a condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion. (Ie; VOLUME DEPLETION)
"
" 12 definition shock {{c1::Myocardial contractility}} is the ability of the heart muscle to contract.
12 definition shock {{c1::Neurogenic shock}} is circulatory failure caused by paralysis of the nerves that control the size of the blood vessels, leading to widespread dilation; seen in patients with spinal cord injuries.
12 definition shock {{c1::Obstructive shock}} is shock that occurs when there is a block to blood flow in the heart or great vessels, causing an insufficient blood supply to the body’s tissues.
12 definition shock {{c1::Perfusion}} is the flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.
12 definition shock A {{c1::pericardial effusion}} is a collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium. 12 definition shock {{c1::Preload}} is the precontraction pressure in the heart as the volume of blood builds up.
12 definition shock {{c1::Psychogenic shock}} is shock caused by a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the brain that causes fainting (syncope).
12 definition shock A {{c1::pulmonary embolism}} is a blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung causing obstruction of blood flow. 10 12 definition shock The {{c1::pulse pressure}} is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. "
" 12 definition shock {{c1::Sensitization}} is the process of developing a sensitivity to a substance that initially caused no allergic reaction.
12 definition shock {{c1::Septic shock}} is shock caused by severe infection, usually a bacterial infection.
12 definition shock {{c1::Shock}} is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to enable every body part to perform its function;  also called hypoperfusion.
12 definition shock The {{c1::abdominal-thrust maneuver}} is the preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver. 13 {{c1::Active compression-decompression CPR}} is a technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression); may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart, and thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase.
13 {{c1::Basic life support (BLS)}} is noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. 13 {{c1::Cardiopulmonary resuscitation}} is the combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.  
13 {{c1::Chest compression fraction}} is the total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed. 
13 {{c1::Hyperventilation}} is the rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return, and hypotension when associated with BVM use.
13 An {{c1::impedance threshold device}} is a valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-valve mask that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.
02 10 13 airway breathing definition equipment PPE respiratory resuscitation {{c1::Ischemia}} is a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.
13 A {{c1::load-distributing band}} is a circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax. 13 A {{c1::mechanical piston device}} is a device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard. 13 A {{c1::return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)}} is the return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.   13 abbreviations BLS resuscitation {{c1::Rigor mortis}} is the stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.
13 {{c1::Dependent lividity}} is blood settling to the lowest point of the body; causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.
13 While performing chest compressions in an adult patient, the EMT should compress the chest of an adult at a rate of {{c1::100 to 120}}/min to a depth of at least {{c2::2}} inches and should allow full recoil of the chest after each compression 13 Altered mental status and unequal or fixed pupils are signs of {{c1::intracranial pressure (ICP) }} and should be treated with hyperventilation with BVM.
ABC airway, breathing, circulation 05 13 abbreviations resuscitation terminology ac before meals 05 abbreviations terminology ACLS advanced cardiac life support 05 abbreviations resuscitation terminology ad lib as desired 05 abbreviations terminology ADL activities of daily living 05 abbreviations terminology AIDS Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome 05 abbreviations terminology A&P anatomy and physiology 05 abbreviations terminology BS blood sugar <br> breath sounds <br> bowel sounds <br> bachelor of science (degree) 05 abbreviations terminology IM Intramuscular also Intramedullary 05 11 abbreviations terminology IV Intravenous 05 11 abbreviations terminology O/P oropharynx 06 10 abbreviations respiratory PO per oral 05 11 abbreviations terminology PR Per Rectum 05 11 abbreviations terminology RSV Respiratory Syncytial Virus 15 abbreviations airway breathing disease respiratory virus SL sublingual 05 11 abbreviations ā before 05 abbreviations terminology adduction Motion of a limb toward the midline. 05 definition terminology anterior The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position. 05 definition terminology apex (plural apices) The pointed extremity of a conical structure. 05 definition terminology bilateral A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline. 05 definition terminology deep Farther inside the body and away from the skin. 05 definition terminology distal Further from the trunk or nearer to the free end of the extremity. 05 definition terminology dorsal The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand. 05 definition terminology extension The straightening of a joint. 05 definition terminology flexion The bending of a joint. 05 definition terminology Fowler position An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised. 05 definition terminology inferior Below a body part or nearer to the feet. 05 definition terminology lateral Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline; also called outer structures. 05 definition terminology medial Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline; also called inner structures. 05 definition terminology palmar The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position. 05 definition terminology plantar The bottom surface of the foot. 05 definition terminology posterior The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position. 05 definition terminology prone Lying face down. 05 definition terminology proximal Closer to the trunk. 05 definition terminology quadrants Describes the sections of the abdominal cavity, in which two imaginary lines intersect at the umbilicus, dividing the abdomen into four equal areas. 05 definition terminology superficial Closer to or on the skin. 05 definition terminology superior Above a body part or nearer to the head. 05 definition terminology supine Lying face up. 05 definition terminology ventral The anterior surface of the body. 05 definition terminology AF, A-fib atrial fibrillation 05 abbreviations terminology AICD automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator 05 abbreviations terminology amb ambulatory 05 abbreviations terminology ant anterior 05 abbreviations terminology ASHD arterioscleroticatherosclerotic heart disease 05 abbreviations terminology BGL blood glucose level 05 abbreviations terminology bid/b.i.d/BID twice daily 05 abbreviations terminology BP, B/P blood pressure 05 abbreviations terminology bx biopsy 05 abbreviations terminology CC, C/C chief complaint 05 abbreviations terminology CCU coronary care unit 05 abbreviations terminology C diff Clostridium difficile 05 abbreviations terminology cm centimeter 05 abbreviations terminology c/o complaining of 05 abbreviations terminology C02 carbon dioxide 05 abbreviations terminology COLD chronic obstructive lung disease 05 abbreviations breathing respiratory terminology CP chest pain OR chemically pure OR cerebral palsy 05 abbreviations terminology CRNA certified registered nurse anesthetist 05 abbreviations terminology CRT capillary refill time OR cathode ray tube 05 abbreviations terminology DOA dead on arrival 05 abbreviations terminology DOE dyspnea on exertion 05 abbreviations terminology DON director of nursing 05 abbreviations terminology DPT diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine OR Doctor of Physical Therapy 05 abbreviations terminology DSD dry sterile dressing 05 abbreviations terminology DtaP diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine 05 abbreviations terminology DTP diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine 05 abbreviations terminology Dx diagnosis 05 abbreviations terminology EDC estimated date of confinement 05 abbreviations terminology ENT ears, nose, and throat 05 abbreviations terminology EOC Emergency Operations Center 05 abbreviations terminology ET, ETT endotracheal tube, endotracheal 05 abbreviations terminology ETA estimated time of arrival 05 abbreviations terminology ETCO2 end-tidal carbon dioxide 05 abbreviations terminology °F degrees Fahrenheit 05 abbreviations terminology Fio2 fraction of inspired oxygen 05 abbreviations terminology Fe iron 05 abbreviations terminology FHR fetal heart rate 05 abbreviations terminology FHx family history 05 abbreviations terminology fl, fid fluid 05 abbreviations terminology fx fracture 05 abbreviations terminology Gl gastrointestinal 05 abbreviations terminology gtt drop(s) 05 abbreviations terminology gyn gynecology 05 abbreviations terminology h hour 05 abbreviations terminology H&P history and physical 05 abbreviations terminology HBV hepatitis B virus 05 abbreviations terminology Hct hematocrit 05 abbreviations terminology H2O water 05 abbreviations terminology hr hour 05 abbreviations terminology Hx history 05 abbreviations terminology l&O intake and output 05 abbreviations terminology ICS incident command system OR intercostal space 05 abbreviations terminology ICU intensive care unit 05 abbreviations terminology IMS incident management system 05 abbreviations terminology IO intraosseous 05 abbreviations terminology IPPB intermittent positive pressure breathing 05 abbreviations terminology kg kilogram 05 abbreviations terminology L/M, LPM liters per minute 05 abbreviations terminology MAE moves all extremities 05 abbreviations terminology MAEW moves all extremities well 05 abbreviations terminology mg milligram 05 abbreviations terminology Ml myocardial infarction 05 abbreviations terminology min minute 05 abbreviations terminology mL milliliter 05 abbreviations terminology mm millimeter 05 abbreviations terminology mm Hg millimeters of mercury 05 abbreviations terminology MVA motor vehicle accident 05 abbreviations terminology MVC motor vehicle crash 05 abbreviations terminology NA, N/A not applicable 05 abbreviations terminology NC nasal cannula 05 abbreviations terminology NKA no known allergies 05 abbreviations terminology NRB, NRBM nonrebreathing mask 05 abbreviations terminology NTG nitroglycerin 05 abbreviations terminology N/V nausea and vomiting 05 abbreviations terminology N/V/D nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 05 abbreviations terminology O2 oxygen 05 abbreviations terminology OBS organic brain syndrome 05 abbreviations terminology OPA oropharyngeal airway 05 10 abbreviations anatomy terminology OR operating room 05 abbreviations terminology oz ounce 05 abbreviations terminology p̄ after 05 abbreviations terminology Pco2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide 05 abbreviations terminology PDR Physicians' Desk Reference 05 abbreviations terminology PEARL, PERL pupils equal and reactive to light 05 abbreviations terminology PEARLA pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation 05 abbreviations terminology PEARRL pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light 05 abbreviations terminology ped, peds pediatric 05 abbreviations pediatric terminology PEEP positive end expiratory pressure 05 abbreviations terminology psi pounds per square inch 05 abbreviations terminology PSVT paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia 05 abbreviations terminology Pt patient 05 abbreviations terminology q̄ every 05 abbreviations terminology Rh Rhesus blood factor OR rhodium 05 abbreviations terminology RN registered nurse 05 abbreviations terminology Rx prescription 05 abbreviations terminology s̄ without 05 abbreviations terminology Sao2 oxygen saturation 05 abbreviations terminology SOB shortness of breath 05 abbreviations terminology Spo2 saturation of peripheral oxygen 05 abbreviations terminology S/S, S&S signs and symptoms 05 abbreviations terminology stat immediately 05 abbreviations terminology STEMI ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction 05 abbreviations terminology subcut subcutaneous 05 abbreviations terminology SVT supraventricular tachycardia 05 abbreviations terminology sym, Sx symptoms 05 abbreviations terminology tab tablet 05 abbreviations terminology TBA to be admitted OR to be announced 05 abbreviations terminology tech technician OR technologist 05 abbreviations terminology tid/t.i.d/TID three times a day 05 abbreviations terminology Tx treatment 05 abbreviations terminology VD venereal disease 05 abbreviations terminology VRE vancomycin-resistant enterococcus 05 abbreviations terminology W/ with 05 abbreviations terminology WMD weapon of mass destruction 05 abbreviations terminology wt weight 05 abbreviations terminology x̄ except 05 abbreviations terminology AO X 4, A/O X 4  alert and oriented to person, place, time, and self 05 abbreviations terminology
BPM
beats per minute 05 abbreviations terminology
with 05 abbreviations terminology
°C
degrees Celsius (centigrade) 05 abbreviations terminology CA
cancer <br> cardiac arrest <br> chronologic age <br> coronary artery <br> cold agglutinin
05 abbreviations terminology HA, H/A headache 05 abbreviations terminology Hb, Hgb hemoglobin 05 abbreviations terminology VT/V tach
ventricular tachycardia
05 abbreviations terminology yo, y/o year old 05 abbreviations terminology {{c1::Special teams}} possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training 41 teams {{c1::Regular teams}} consistently interact with the same partner or team 41 teams {{c1::Temporary teams}} have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know 41 definition teams Examples of special EMS include:
Fire Team
Rescue Team
Hazardous materials (HazMat) Team
Tactical EMS Team
Special event EMS Team
EMS bike Team
In-hospital patient care technicians
MIH technicians
41 examples teams Regular teams {{c1::consistently interact with the same partner or team}}  41 definition teams Special teams {{c1::possess specific knowledge, skills, abilities, equipment, and/or training}} 41 definition teams Temporary teams {{c1::have EMTs who work providers with whom they do not regularly interact or may not even know}} 41 definition teams
What are the 5 essential elements of a group?
A common goal
An image of themselves as a “group”
A sense of continuity of the group
A set of shared values
Different roles within the group
41 list teams
In {{c1::dependent groups}} each individual is told what to do, and often how to do it, by his or her supervisor or group leader.
41 teams In {{c1::independent groups}} each individual is responsible for his or her own area 41 teams In {{c1::interdependent groups}} individuals function as a true team. 41 teams PACE Probe
Alert
Challenge 
Emergency
41 abbreviations teams What are the steps for assisting an ALS process?
Patient preparation
Equipment
Performing the procedure
Continuing care

are the steps for this process.
41 process sequential teams What are the steps for BE MAGIC?
B – Perform BVM preoxygenation
E – Evaluate for airway difficulties
M – Manipulate the patient
A – Attempt first-pass intubation
GI – Use a supraGlottic or Intermediate          airway if unable to intubate
C – Confirm successful intubation

are the steps for this process.
41 process sequential teams
What are the steps for patient prepation when assisting in an ALS procedure?
preoxygenation, and 
apenic oxygenation

are the steps for helping with this procedure.
41 process sequential teams What is the difference between a group and a team?
A team consists of a group of health care providers who are assigned specific roles and are working interdependently in a coordinated manner under a designated leader.
41 teams What is the difference between an opiate and an opioid? Opiates are a subset of the opioid family, referring to natural, non-synthetic opioids; opioids are not derived from opium. 11 13 21 pharmacology MOI mechanism of injury 05 09 abbreviations injury terminology NOI nature of illness 05 09 abbreviations injury terminology BVM bag-valve mask 02 10 13 airway breathing definition equipment PPE respiratory resuscitation NPA nasopharyngeal airway 05 06 10 abbreviations anatomy terminology NG nasogastric 05 abbreviations terminology GCS Glasgow Coma Scale 10 abbreviations DNR do not resuscitate 03 abbreviations legal NHTSA National Highway Traffic Safety Administration 01 abbreviations ethics legal What is the difference between assault and battery? Assault is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm, whereas battery is unlawfully touching without consent. 03 difference ethical legal FCC Federal Communications Commission 04 abbreviations communications definition government legal radio COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 10 abbreviations airway breathing respiratory The principal function of the lungs is {{c1::respiration}} 06 10 15 anatomy definition respiratory What are the signs and symptoms of the common cold?
cough
runny or stuffy nose
sore throat 10 15 airway breathing disease respiratory SARS severe acute respiratory syndrome 15 abbreviations disease infection virus What is the treatment for pneumonia? Possible treatments include: airway support and providing supplemental oxygen. 15 breathing disease emergencies respiratory treatment What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia are common present in pediatric patients? Children often present with unusually rapid or labored breathing or breathing characterized by grunting or wheezing sounds 15 breathing disease emergencies respiratory treatment Which variant of pneumonia presents with more severe symptoms? 
Bacterial pneumonia
15 bacterial breathing disease infection What are the variants of pneumonia? Viral or bacterial pneumonia 15 bacterial breathing disease infection A {{c1::viral pneumonia}} presents more gradually and is less severe 15 bacterial breathing disease infection MDI metered-dose inhaler 05 11 abbreviations equipment If the patient is life-like start with {{c1::ABC}} If the patient is life-less start with {{c1::CAB}} "Patient assessment order:
1. {{c1::Scene Safe/ BSI / PPE}}
2. {{c2::NOI}}
3. {{c3::# of Patients}}
4. {{c4::Request Additional Resources}}
5. {{c5::Consider C-Spine}}
6. {{c6::What is my general impression?}}
7. {{c7::AVPU}}
8. {{c8::""What seems to be the problem?""}}
9. {{c9::Chief complaint is...}}
10. {{c10::ABCs}}
10a. A: {{c11::Airway patent?}}
10b. B: {{c12::Check RRQ Lung Sounds}}
10c. C: {{c13::Check RRQ Pulse, Check Skin, Check Capillary Refill}}
11. {{c14::Take Vitals}}
12. {{c15::FAST G (if applicable)}}
13. {{c16::OPQRST}}
14. {{c17::SAMPLE (FAST 4 & PORCH)}}
15. {{c18::Fix Problem/ Call Medical Control / Administer Meds}}
16. {{c19::""Stay & Play"" or ""Load and Go""}}
17. {{c20::Secondary Assessment (FAST 5)}}
18. {{c21::Secondary Vitals}}
19. {{c22::Give Report & Diagnosis}}
" "Patient assessment order:
1. {{c1::Scene Safe/ BSI / PPE}}
2. {{c2::NOI}}
3. {{c3::# of Patients}}
4. {{c4::Request Additional Resources}}
5. {{c5::Consider C-Spine}}
6. {{c6::What is my general impression?}}
7. {{c7::AVPU}}
8. {{c8::""What seems to be the problem?""}}
9. {{c9::Determine Chief Compaint & Life Threats}}
10. {{c10::ABCs}}
10a. A: {{c11::Airway patent?}}
10b. B: {{c12::Check RRQ Lung Sounds}}
10c. C: {{c13::Check RRQ Pulse, Check Skin, Control major bleeding (if present)}}
11. {{c14::Shock Management (Position Properly & Conserve Body Heat)}}
12. {{c15::Rapid Trauma Assessment}}
13. {{c16::Transport (verbalize ""trauma patient / trauma alert"")}}
14. {{c18::Focused Assessment}}
15. {{c17::Vitals}}
16. {{c19::SAMPLE}}
17. {{c20::Reassessment}}
" 24 assessment trauma The {{c1::diaphragm}} is unique because {{c2::this muscle characteristics of both skeletal and smooth muscle}} 06 anatomy breathing muscular respiratory In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by {{c1::pushing the head}} of the stretcher while your partner {{c1::guides the feet}} of the stretcher. 08 lifting moving {{c1::Nonfunctional alveoli}} {{c2::inhibit the diffusion of}} oxygen and carbon dioxide. 09 anatomy definition respiratory A patient who {{c1::coughs up thick, yellowish, or greenish sputum}} most likely has {{c2::advanced respiratory infection}}. 10 15 airway breathing disease infection respiratory signs symptoms UHF ultra high frequency 04 communications government legal radio